The complete UGC NET December 2018 question paper for Commerce, covering Paper 1 (General Aptitude) and Paper 2 (Commerce). Every question below is shown with its options and the correct answer, and a detailed explanation you can unlock by signing in. All 150 questions are free to practise.
| Exam | UGC NET December 2018 |
|---|---|
| Papers | Paper 1 (General Aptitude) and Paper 2 (Commerce) |
| Exam date(s) | December 22, 2018 |
| Shift(s) | Shift 2 |
| Paper 1 questions | 50 questions · 60 minutes · 100 marks |
| Paper 2 questions | 100 questions · 120 minutes · 200 marks |
| Total | 150 questions |
| Marking scheme | +2 per correct answer · No negative marking |
UGC NET December 2018 · Commerce sitting
50 questions with the answer key and explanations.
Which of the following are considered as key behaviours of effective teaching as evident from researches?
a. Structuring through comments made for organizing what is to come
b. Asking process or content based questions
c. Lesson clarity implying the extent, to which teacher's presentation is clear to the class
d. Using student ideas and contributions while the teacher is presenting the subject
e. Instructional variety involving teacher's variability and flexibility during presentation
f. Student success rate implying the rate at which students understand and correctly complete the exercises
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (B) (c), (e) and (f)
Explanation
Below are given the characteristic features of formative and summative assessment procedures used in various teaching-learning contexts.
a. It is used for judging learning standard
b. It is used for improvement of capacity and quality
c. Its use is extended to performance appraisal of teachers, students and institutions
d. It is used during instruction
e. Assessment is formal and post instructional in nature
f. It is based on participation of both teacher and student
Which of the given codes relate to formative procedures?
Answer: (D) (b), (d) and (f)
Explanation
Match the domain of teaching competencies in Set-I with the specific competencies in Set-II.
| Set-I (Domain of teaching competencies) | Set-II (Specific competencies) |
|---|---|
| (a) Personality and attitude related competencies | (i) Dynamism and flexibility |
| (b) Behavioural competencies | (ii) Subject and general knowledge |
| (c) Substantive competencies | (iii) Good physique and appearance |
| (d) Style related competencies | (iv) Self efficacy and locus of control |
| (v) Teaching and managing |
Answer: (A) (a)-(iv), (b)-(v), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Explanation
In which of the modalities of teaching-learning arrangements there is more scope for critical and creative interchange?
Answer: (D) Dialogic presentations involving teachers, students and the content
Explanation
Which of the following specify the factors affecting teaching. For your answer select from the code given below:
a. Availability of teaching aids and their use
b. School-community linkages
c. Interest of parents in the school programmes
d. Subject-knowledge of the teacher
e. Frequency of organizing co-curricular activities
f. Verbal and non-verbal communication skills of the teacher
Answer: (B) (a), (d) and (f)
Explanation
Match the research types in Set-I with their nature and characteristics in Set-II.
| Set-I (Research types) | Set-II (Nature and characteristics) |
|---|---|
| (a) Experimental research | (i) Generalizations follow rather than precede the observations in due course |
| (b) Exports facts research | (ii) Emphasizing the access to reality by sharing the perspectives of people |
| (c) Participant observation based research | (iii) Getting at causal facts by retrospective analysis |
| (d) Grounded theory approach based research | (iv) Describing the status and conditions as obtainable |
| (v) Controlling the extraneous variables and observing the effect of independent variable manipulated by the researcher on dependent variable |
Answer: (D) (a)-(v), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Explanation
Which of the following implies the correct sequence in an action research paradigm?
Answer: (C) Plan, act, observe and reflect
Explanation
The issue of research ethics is pertinent at which of the following stages of research?
Answer: (C) Data collection, data analysis and reporting of research findings/results
Explanation
In which of the following, target related specifications will be considered necessary?
Answer: (D) Workshops
Explanation
In which of the following research methods the emphasis is laid on naturalistic settings and meaning-giving processes?
Answer: (C) Case study method
Explanation
The observation of Adam Smith in going beyond self-serving interest is:
It is easy to see that there is nothing particularly unusual, or especially contrary to reason, for a person to choose to pursue a goal that is not exclusively confined to his or her own self-interest. As Adam Smith noted, we do have many different motivations, taking us well beyond the single-minded pursuit of our interest. There is nothing contrary to reason in our willingness to do things that are not entirely self-serving. Some of these motivations, like 'humanity, justice, generosity and public spirit', may even be very productive for society, as Smith noted. There tends to be, however, more resistance to accepting the possibility that people may have good reasons even to go beyond the pursuit of their own goals. The argument runs: if you are consciously not pursuing what you think are your goals, then clearly those cannot be your goals. Indeed, many authors have taken the view that the claim that one can have reason not to be confined to the pursuit of one's goals is 'nonsensical' since even strongly heterogeneous or altruistic agents cannot pursue other people's goals without making their own. The point here is that in denying that rationality demands that you must act single-mindedly according to your own goals. You do not necessarily dedicate yourself to the promotion of others. We can reason our way towards following decent rules of behaviour that we see being fair to others as well. This can restrain the unique dominance of single-minded pursuit of our own goals. There is nothing particularly mysterious about our respect for sensible rules of conduct. This can qualify the pursuit of what we rightly - and reasonably-see as goals that we would in general like to advance. What we can say about your choice? There is no difficulty in understanding that you are not averse to helping your neighbour-or anyone else- pursue his or her well-being. But it so happens that you do not think that your neighbour's well-being is, in fact, best advanced by his wasting time on playing a silly game. Your action is not corollary of any general pursuit of well-being.
Answer: (B) Motivations like justice and public spirit
Explanation
In the view of many authors, not pursuing one's own goal is:
It is easy to see that there is nothing particularly unusual, or especially contrary to reason, for a person to choose to pursue a goal that is not exclusively confined to his or her own self-interest. As Adam Smith noted, we do have many different motivations, taking us well beyond the single-minded pursuit of our interest. There is nothing contrary to reason in our willingness to do things that are not entirely self-serving. Some of these motivations, like 'humanity, justice, generosity and public spirit', may even be very productive for society, as Smith noted. There tends to be, however, more resistance to accepting the possibility that people may have good reasons even to go beyond the pursuit of their own goals. The argument runs: if you are consciously not pursuing what you think are your goals, then clearly those cannot be your goals. Indeed, many authors have taken the view that the claim that one can have reason not to be confined to the pursuit of one's goals is 'nonsensical' since even strongly heterogeneous or altruistic agents cannot pursue other people's goals without making their own. The point here is that in denying that rationality demands that you must act single-mindedly according to your own goals. You do not necessarily dedicate yourself to the promotion of others. We can reason our way towards following decent rules of behaviour that we see being fair to others as well. This can restrain the unique dominance of single-minded pursuit of our own goals. There is nothing particularly mysterious about our respect for sensible rules of conduct. This can qualify the pursuit of what we rightly - and reasonably-see as goals that we would in general like to advance. What we can say about your choice? There is no difficulty in understanding that you are not averse to helping your neighbour-or anyone else- pursue his or her well-being. But it so happens that you do not think that your neighbour's well-being is, in fact, best advanced by his wasting time on playing a silly game. Your action is not corollary of any general pursuit of well-being.
Answer: (A) Nonsensical
Explanation
According to the passage, decent rules of behaviour are needed:
It is easy to see that there is nothing particularly unusual, or especially contrary to reason, for a person to choose to pursue a goal that is not exclusively confined to his or her own self-interest. As Adam Smith noted, we do have many different motivations, taking us well beyond the single-minded pursuit of our interest. There is nothing contrary to reason in our willingness to do things that are not entirely self-serving. Some of these motivations, like 'humanity, justice, generosity and public spirit', may even be very productive for society, as Smith noted. There tends to be, however, more resistance to accepting the possibility that people may have good reasons even to go beyond the pursuit of their own goals. The argument runs: if you are consciously not pursuing what you think are your goals, then clearly those cannot be your goals. Indeed, many authors have taken the view that the claim that one can have reason not to be confined to the pursuit of one's goals is 'nonsensical' since even strongly heterogeneous or altruistic agents cannot pursue other people's goals without making their own. The point here is that in denying that rationality demands that you must act single-mindedly according to your own goals. You do not necessarily dedicate yourself to the promotion of others. We can reason our way towards following decent rules of behaviour that we see being fair to others as well. This can restrain the unique dominance of single-minded pursuit of our own goals. There is nothing particularly mysterious about our respect for sensible rules of conduct. This can qualify the pursuit of what we rightly - and reasonably-see as goals that we would in general like to advance. What we can say about your choice? There is no difficulty in understanding that you are not averse to helping your neighbour-or anyone else- pursue his or her well-being. But it so happens that you do not think that your neighbour's well-being is, in fact, best advanced by his wasting time on playing a silly game. Your action is not corollary of any general pursuit of well-being.
Answer: (C) For being fair to others
Explanation
What can stand in the way of single-minded pursuit of one's goals?
It is easy to see that there is nothing particularly unusual, or especially contrary to reason, for a person to choose to pursue a goal that is not exclusively confined to his or her own self-interest. As Adam Smith noted, we do have many different motivations, taking us well beyond the single-minded pursuit of our interest. There is nothing contrary to reason in our willingness to do things that are not entirely self-serving. Some of these motivations, like 'humanity, justice, generosity and public spirit', may even be very productive for society, as Smith noted. There tends to be, however, more resistance to accepting the possibility that people may have good reasons even to go beyond the pursuit of their own goals. The argument runs: if you are consciously not pursuing what you think are your goals, then clearly those cannot be your goals. Indeed, many authors have taken the view that the claim that one can have reason not to be confined to the pursuit of one's goals is 'nonsensical' since even strongly heterogeneous or altruistic agents cannot pursue other people's goals without making their own. The point here is that in denying that rationality demands that you must act single-mindedly according to your own goals. You do not necessarily dedicate yourself to the promotion of others. We can reason our way towards following decent rules of behaviour that we see being fair to others as well. This can restrain the unique dominance of single-minded pursuit of our own goals. There is nothing particularly mysterious about our respect for sensible rules of conduct. This can qualify the pursuit of what we rightly - and reasonably-see as goals that we would in general like to advance. What we can say about your choice? There is no difficulty in understanding that you are not averse to helping your neighbour-or anyone else- pursue his or her well-being. But it so happens that you do not think that your neighbour's well-being is, in fact, best advanced by his wasting time on playing a silly game. Your action is not corollary of any general pursuit of well-being.
Answer: (C) Respect for sensible rules of conduct
Explanation
The moral derived from the passage is:
It is easy to see that there is nothing particularly unusual, or especially contrary to reason, for a person to choose to pursue a goal that is not exclusively confined to his or her own self-interest. As Adam Smith noted, we do have many different motivations, taking us well beyond the single-minded pursuit of our interest. There is nothing contrary to reason in our willingness to do things that are not entirely self-serving. Some of these motivations, like 'humanity, justice, generosity and public spirit', may even be very productive for society, as Smith noted. There tends to be, however, more resistance to accepting the possibility that people may have good reasons even to go beyond the pursuit of their own goals. The argument runs: if you are consciously not pursuing what you think are your goals, then clearly those cannot be your goals. Indeed, many authors have taken the view that the claim that one can have reason not to be confined to the pursuit of one's goals is 'nonsensical' since even strongly heterogeneous or altruistic agents cannot pursue other people's goals without making their own. The point here is that in denying that rationality demands that you must act single-mindedly according to your own goals. You do not necessarily dedicate yourself to the promotion of others. We can reason our way towards following decent rules of behaviour that we see being fair to others as well. This can restrain the unique dominance of single-minded pursuit of our own goals. There is nothing particularly mysterious about our respect for sensible rules of conduct. This can qualify the pursuit of what we rightly - and reasonably-see as goals that we would in general like to advance. What we can say about your choice? There is no difficulty in understanding that you are not averse to helping your neighbour-or anyone else- pursue his or her well-being. But it so happens that you do not think that your neighbour's well-being is, in fact, best advanced by his wasting time on playing a silly game. Your action is not corollary of any general pursuit of well-being.
Answer: (A) Pro-active move to support others
Explanation
To communicate effectively with students, teachers should use:
a. Affinity-seeking strategies
b. Immediacy behaviours
c. Humour
d. Collaborative filters
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (D) (a), (b) and (c)
Explanation
Internal cues of non-verbal behaviour in the classroom help diagnose:
Answer: (A) Inter-personal dynamics
Explanation
Assertion (A): Classroom communication behaviours imply making the contents relevant.
Reason (R): It is none of the functions of teachers to make students organise information for effective interaction.
Answer: (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Explanation
Communication variables involved in a model of performance are:
a. Encoding
b. Decoding
c. Passive resistance
d. Channelisation
e. Indifference
Select the correct option from the code given below:
Answer: (D) (a), (b) and (d) only
Explanation
In pre-learning preparation, an important stage of communication is:
Answer: (A) Information acquisition and its processing
Explanation
In the sequence of numbers 1, 2, 6, 33, 49, 174, 210, x, . . . . ., the term x is:
Answer: (B) 553
Explanation
If R + 1/S = 1 and S + 1/T = 1, then R × S × T =:
Answer: (A) -1
Explanation
A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man related to the woman?
Answer: (D) Cousin
Explanation
Before death a man left the following instructions for his fortune: half to his wife, 1/7 of what was left to his son, 2/3 of what was left to his daughter, and the man's pet dog got the remaining Rs.20000. How much money did the man leave behind altogether?
Answer: (A) Rs.140000
Explanation
7, 13, 2, 14, 6 is to flame, then 3, 13, 16, 2, 21 is to:
Answer: (C) Bloat
Explanation
'Every law is an evil, for every law is an infraction of liberty'. The above is:
Answer: (A) An argument
Explanation
Among the following propositions, two are related in such a way that both of them together cannot be false although they may both be true. Select the code that states those two propositions:
a. All students are intelligent
b. Some students are intelligent
c. No students are intelligent
d. Some students are not intelligent
Answer: (D) (b) and (d)
Explanation
Assertion (A): Honesty is a great virtue.
Reason (R): Honesty does not harm anybody.
Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
When the conclusion of an argument follows from its premises necessarily, the argument is called:
Answer: (D) Deductive argument
Explanation
Given below are two premises (i) and (ii). Four conclusions are drawn from them:
Premises:
(i) Some prisoners are dacoits
(ii) Some dacoits are murderers
Conclusions:
a. Some prisoners are murderers
b. All prisoners are murderers
c. Some dacoits are prisoners
d. Some murderers are dacoits
Select the code that states the validly drawn conclusions:
Answer: (C) Only (c) and (d)
Explanation
The number of male students exceeding female students is:
The following table indicates the percentage of students enrolled in various faculties of a University. The total number of students in the University is 12000, out of which 52% are males and remaining are females.
| Name of the Faculty | Percentage (%) of Students |
|---|---|
| Science | 17% |
| Education | 30% |
| Engineering | 8% |
| Performing Arts | 26% |
| Social Sciences | 19% |
Answer: (B) 480
Explanation
Approximately, how many female students are there in the faculty of Performing Arts if the proportion of males and females is the same for this faculty as for the whole University?
The following table indicates the percentage of students enrolled in various faculties of a University. The total number of students in the University is 12000, out of which 52% are males and remaining are females.
| Name of the Faculty | Percentage (%) of Students |
|---|---|
| Science | 17% |
| Education | 30% |
| Engineering | 8% |
| Performing Arts | 26% |
| Social Sciences | 19% |
Answer: (C) 1498
Explanation
If half of the students from the faculty of Education and all of the students from the faculty of Social Sciences are females, then the number of female students in the three remaining faculties altogether will be:
The following table indicates the percentage of students enrolled in various faculties of a University. The total number of students in the University is 12000, out of which 52% are males and remaining are females.
| Name of the Faculty | Percentage (%) of Students |
|---|---|
| Science | 17% |
| Education | 30% |
| Engineering | 8% |
| Performing Arts | 26% |
| Social Sciences | 19% |
Answer: (B) 1680
Explanation
Supposing, the number available in the faculty of Engineering doubles keeping the total number in the University to be the same by reducing the student numbers in faculty of Performing Arts and faculty of Education equally, the number of students available in the faculty of Education will be:
The following table indicates the percentage of students enrolled in various faculties of a University. The total number of students in the University is 12000, out of which 52% are males and remaining are females.
| Name of the Faculty | Percentage (%) of Students |
|---|---|
| Science | 17% |
| Education | 30% |
| Engineering | 8% |
| Performing Arts | 26% |
| Social Sciences | 19% |
Answer: (B) 3120
Explanation
The difference in the number of students enrolled in the faculty of Science as compared to the number of students enrolled in the faculty of Engineering, is:
The following table indicates the percentage of students enrolled in various faculties of a University. The total number of students in the University is 12000, out of which 52% are males and remaining are females.
| Name of the Faculty | Percentage (%) of Students |
|---|---|
| Science | 17% |
| Education | 30% |
| Engineering | 8% |
| Performing Arts | 26% |
| Social Sciences | 19% |
Answer: (D) 1080
Explanation
Which one of the following pairs least matches in respect of computers?
Answer: (B) HTTPS: Hypertext Transfer Protocol Standard
Explanation
Which piece of the computer hardware is known as the "brain" of the computer and is responsible for processing instructions?
Answer: (A) CPU
Explanation
Which option would complete the following sentences about digital communication system by using the words - short/long, low/high?
Bluetooth is a _____________ range wireless technology. It is used to connect devices together for data transfer. Bluetooth is a _____________ cost means of data transfer.
Answer: (B) short, low
Explanation
Computer data files that are included with an email message are often referred to as:
Answer: (B) Attachments
Explanation
In the spreadsheet given, the equation in cell B2 is = A2 + $B$1.
The equation is then copied and pasted to cells B3, B4 and B5. What should be the value in B3?
| A | B | C | |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | 10 | 16 | |
| 2 | 20 | ||
| 3 | 8 | ||
| 4 | 12 | ||
| 5 | 0 |
Answer: (B) 24
Explanation
The two major processes involved in the carbon cycle are:
Answer: (C) Photosynthesis and respiration
Explanation
Human populations have historically settled in flood plains due to which of the following reasons?
a. Flood plains are close to rivers for transportation
b. The soils in the flood plains are usually fertile
c. The terrain in flood plains is found as flat
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (D) (a), (b) and (c)
Explanation
Which of the following methods would be most appropriate in reducing acid rain and acid deposition problems?
Answer: (B) Reducing the use of fossil fuels
Explanation
Assertion (A): Mapping of landslide prone areas and construction of houses, felling of trees and grazing in landslide prone areas should be prohibited.
Reason (R): Afforestation in the vulnerable areas is an effective way of durable landslides control.
Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of the greenhouse effect in earth's atmosphere?
Answer: (C) Infrared radiation from earth's surface is absorbed by gases in the atmosphere.
Explanation
For pursuing a Ph.D. programme through our University system, what has become a mandatory provision now?
Answer: (B) Course work
Explanation
Match the apex level institutions in Set-I with their formal concerns in Set-II.
| Set-I (Apex level Institution) | Set-II (Formal concerns) |
|---|---|
| (a) University Grants Commission | (i) Adjudication of legal matters in education |
| (b) All India Council of Technical Education | (ii) Coordination, recognition and quality issues related to teacher education institutions |
| (c) National Council of Teacher Education | (iii) Coordination and quality maintenance in institutions of higher education |
| (d) National Assessment and Accreditation Council | (iv) Recognition and quality issues in technical institutions |
| (v) Evaluation of quality and determining grade of excellence |
Answer: (A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(v)
Explanation
Match the stages of value development in Set-I with their critical features from the point of view of value education in Set-II.
| Set-I (Stages of value development) | Set-II (Critical features in terms of value education) |
|---|---|
| (a) Value collection | (i) Providing opportunity for imitation |
| (b) Value assessment | (ii) Characterization through integration of values |
| (c) Value clarification | (iii) Providing hints for inner evaluation |
| (d) Value consolidation | (iv) Exposure to other values |
| (v) Discussions and debates |
Answer: (C) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
Explanation
In the institutions of higher education in India which of the following has the formal authority to approve the courses and programmes of studies?
Answer: (D) Academic Council
Explanation
To improve access and quality in higher education, the Knowledge Commission recommendations include which of the following?
a. Use of ICT for production of knowledge
b. Closure of non-performing Universities in the country
c. Establishment of a network of institutions of higher learning
d. Increase in the enrolment of students in the institutions of higher learning
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (C) (a), (c), (d) only
Explanation
100 questions with the answer key and explanations.
Match the business elements in List I with their corresponding environment categories in List II.
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| (a) Rival Firms | (i) External Environment |
| (b) Technology | (ii) Social and Cultural Environment |
| (c) Improving Quality | (iii) Internal Environment |
| (d) Ethics in Business | (iv) Global Environment |
Answer: (C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
Explanation
The companies having business in a large number of countries around the world at present are called
Answer: (C) Global Corporations (GCs)
Explanation
The Industrial Policy, 1956 has been prompted by which combination of the following developments?
(i) Adoption of the Constitution of India
(ii) Implementation of Economic Planning
(iii) Acceleration of Economic Growth and Industrialisation
(iv) Availability of Sufficient Funds for Investment in Public Sector
Answer: (B) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
Explanation
Indicate the most popular route of privatisation adopted by the Government of India in recent decades.
Answer: (D) Strategic sale
Explanation
Assertion (A): Consumers need to be given legal protection against certain trade practices and business methods.
Reason (R): Protection as per market forces and 'Caveat Emptor' is not enough as perfectly competitive market is an economist's dream and consumer sovereignty is a myth.
Answer: (C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
Explanation
Second generation reforms in our country do not comprise of which one of the following?
Answer: (C) Population control measures
Explanation
Statement I: Most infrastructure services are provided by public monopolies which generally suffer with severe problems like lack of accountability, low productivity, poor financial performance and over-employment.
Statement II: There is a need now to induce more private sector investment and participation in provision of social overheads as it may encourage better risk sharing, accountability, monitoring and management of infrastructure sector.
Answer: (A) Both I and II are correct
Explanation
Statement I: Punctuality and team spirit among employees of an organisation has great contribution in enhancing profits of the business but they do not appear as an asset in the balance sheet.
Statement II: Financial statements do not reflect the correct financial position of a business.
Answer: (A) Both the statements I and II are correct.
Explanation
X Ltd. forfeited 40 shares of Rs. 10 each on which Rs. 4 per share was paid. If the forfeited shares are reissued as Rs. 8 per share paid up, what is the minimum price the company must charge?
Answer: (B) Rs. 4 per share
Explanation
A and B are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3:2. They admit X as a partner for 1/3 share in profits of the firm. The new profit sharing ratio of A, B and X is
Answer: (D) 6:4:5
Explanation
Which one of the following statements is not true?
Accepted answers: (A) Depreciation is a source of funds., (D) Profits earned from non-operating activities is added to net profit while calculating profits from operations.
Explanation
Assertion (A): A low debt-equity ratio is generally recommended for a newly started business.
Reason (R): During the initial years of the business, debt servicing will prove to be less burdensome.
Answer: (C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
Explanation
Which one of the following statements is not true?
Answer: (C) Higher operating ratio indicates higher profits.
Explanation
A company proposes to introduce a new product in the market. The company wants to maintain P/V Ratio at 25%. If variable cost of the product is 300, what will be the selling price?
Answer: (D) 400
Explanation
The inverse relationship between the variation in the price and the variation in the quantity demanded is not due to
Accepted answers: (A) Price effect, (B) Entry and exit of buyers, (C) Gossen's laws of consumption, (D) Law of substitution
Explanation
Cardinal utility analysis of consumer's behaviour is based on which combination of the following assumptions?
(i) Utility is measurable in terms of cardinal numbers.
(ii) Constancy of the marginal utility of money.
(iii) Utilities of different goods are interdependent.
(iv) Gossen's first law of consumption.
Answer: (B) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
Explanation
Match the elasticity characteristics in List I with the types of goods in List II.
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| (a) Income elasticity less than unity | (i) Competitive goods |
| (b) Cross elasticity less than unity | (ii) Inferior goods |
| (c) Cross elasticity less than zero | (iii) Superior goods |
| (d) Income elasticity less than zero | (iv) Complementary goods |
Answer: (C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
Explanation
Production function is based on which combination of the main characteristics of the inputs from the following?
(i) Substitutability
(ii) Complementarity
(iii) Flexibility
(iv) Specificity
Answer: (C) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
Explanation
Assertion (A): There exists excess capacity of the production for the firms if these incur losses.
Reason (R): Their production level has to remain below their economic capacity level.
Answer: (C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
Explanation
The monopoly involves a social cost mainly due to its emphasis on which one of the following?
Answer: (B) Lower output at a higher cost in a normal profit situation.
Explanation
Cost plus pricing is considered appropriate for which combination of the following?
(i) Product Tailoring
(ii) Public Utility Pricing
(iii) Refusal Pricing
(iv) Monopoly Pricing
Answer: (A) Only (i) and (ii)
Explanation
If a perpendicular on X-axis from the point of intersection of both 'less than' and 'more than' frequency curves is drawn, it gives the value of
Answer: (D) Median
Explanation
Statement I: If the value of $\beta_2$, i.e. $\mu_4 / \sigma^4$, of a distribution gives the value more than 3, its curve is platykurtic.
Statement II: In a moderately asymmetrical distribution, the standard deviation is 1.25 times of mean deviation.
Answer: (D) Statement II is correct, but I is incorrect.
Explanation
Which of the following statements relating to the sampling theory are correct?
(i) The values of the statistical measures based on the sampled units are called values of statistic.
(ii) In the simple random sampling technique, the element of the population and the unit of the sample are different.
(iii) Snow-ball sampling technique is a probability based sampling technique.
(iv) The law of statistical regularity and the law of inertia of large numbers are the main bases of the sample to become representative of the population.
Answer: (B) (i) and (iv)
Explanation
Which one of the following is not the correct property of normal distribution?
Answer: (C) Standard deviation is the sole parameter of the distribution
Explanation
The probable error of the coefficient of correlation (r) is calculated by which one of the following formulae?
Accepted answers: (B) 0.6745 \frac{(1-r^2)}{\sqrt{n}}, (C) 0.6745 \frac{1-r^2}{\sqrt{n}}
Explanation
Statement I: The geometric mean of the two regression coefficients of X and Y variables gives the value of the coefficient of correlation.
Statement II: If the population distribution is not normal and a sampling distribution of mean is prepared by taking small sized samples, the sampling distribution of mean is not normal.
Answer: (A) Both the statements I and II are correct.
Explanation
Which one of the following is not the advantage of database management system?
Answer: (B) High acquisition costs
Explanation
Statement I: An identifiable group of people contributing their efforts towards attainment of goals is called organization.
Statement II: In its broadest sense, organization refers to the relationship between the various factors present in a given endeavour.
Answer: (A) Both the statements I and II are correct.
Explanation
Match the management theorists in List I with their theories of motivation in List II.
| List I (Propounder of Theory) | List II (Theory of Motivation) |
|---|---|
| (a) Dr. William Ouchi | (i) X Theory |
| (b) Douglas McGregor | (ii) Need Hierarchy Theory |
| (c) Frederick Herzberg | (iii) Z Theory |
| (d) A.H. Maslow | (iv) Hygiene Theory |
Answer: (C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
Explanation
Arrange the following stages of staffing in correct sequence:
(i) Performance appraisal
(ii) Recruitment
(iii) Transfers
(iv) Selection
(v) Induction and orientation
Answer: (B) (ii), (iv), (v), (i), (iii)
Explanation
Assertion (A): Technological change and skill requirements have been made a subject of investigation in an organization.
Reason (R): The neo-classical economic theory stated that technological changes require a broader variety of skills and higher average skills from the workers.
Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
Explanation
Corporations are controlled and directed by which one of the following?
Answer: (C) Corporate governance
Explanation
Critical path indicates which one of the following?
Answer: (A) Longest route of completing a task
Explanation
Which one among the following is the oldest form of organization?
Answer: (D) Line Organization
Explanation
Which one of the following demands states consumers are adequately buying all the products put into the marketplace?
Answer: (B) Full demand
Explanation
Which one of the following is not true for introducing multiple brands in a category?
Answer: (C) Decreasing internal competition within the firm
Explanation
Match the defensive marketing strategies in List I with their descriptions in List II.
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| (a) Mobile defence | (i) Occupying the most desirable position in consumers' minds, making the brand almost impregnable. |
| (b) Contraction defence | (ii) The leader stretches its domain over new territories through market broadening and market diversification. |
| (c) Position defence | (iii) Large companies give up weaker markets and reassign resources to stronger ones. |
Answer: (B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i)
Explanation
Assertion (A): Purchase decisions are not based on how customers perceive prices but on the marketer's stated price.
Reason (R): Customers may have a lower price threshold, below which prices signal inferior or unacceptable quality, and an upper price threshold where the product appears not worth the money.
Answer: (D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
Explanation
In which one of the following modes of entry into foreign market are risk and profit potential the highest?
Answer: (C) Direct investment
Explanation
Which one of the following modes is not an example of Direct and Database marketing communication?
Answer: (A) Social media marketing
Explanation
To examine whether the company is pursuing its best opportunities with respect to markets, products, and channels is the purpose of which one of the following types of marketing control?
Answer: (D) Strategic control
Explanation
Combined leverage can be used to measure the relationship between
Answer: (B) Sales and EPS
Explanation
Sales of a firm are Rs. 40 lacs; variable costs Rs. 10 lacs; fixed costs Rs. 15 lacs; interest Rs. 5 lacs. Combined leverage of the firm will be
Answer: (B) 3
Explanation
A firm has inventory turnover of 3 and cost of goods sold is 2,70,000. With better inventory management, the inventory turnover is increased to 5. This would result in
Answer: (B) Decrease in inventory by 36,000
Explanation
Which of the following sources of finance has an implicit cost of capital?
Answer: (D) Retained earnings
Explanation
Which of the following variables is not known in Internal Rate of Return method of capital budgeting?
Answer: (D) Discount rate
Explanation
Which of the following statements is/are false?
(i) Capital profits can never be distributed as dividends to the shareholders.
(ii) Dividends are paid out of profits and, therefore, do not affect the liquidity position of the firm.
(iii) Every company should follow the policy of low dividend payment.
(iv) Walter's model suggests that dividend payment does not affect the market price of the share.
Answer: (B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Explanation
Which of the following is not a method of preparation of cash budget?
Answer: (D) Cash Cycle method
Explanation
Match the personnel and HRM dimensions in List I with their characteristics in List II.
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| (a) Behaviour referent | (i) Wide ranging cultural, structural and personnel strategies |
| (b) Focus of attention for interventions | (ii) Manage climate and culture |
| (c) Conflict handling | (iii) Few |
| (d) Job categories and grades | (iv) Values/mission |
Answer: (C) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Explanation
Which one of the following items is not a part of job specification?
Answer: (A) Location
Explanation
Match the interview types in List I with their primary applications in List II.
| List I (Type of Interview) | List II (Usual Application) |
|---|---|
| (a) Structured | (i) A realistic approach that yields comparable answers plus indepth insights |
| (b) Unstructured | (ii) Useful to understand applicant's reasoning and analytical abilities under modest stress |
| (c) Mixed | (iii) Useful for valid results, especially when dealing with large number of applicants |
| (d) Behavioural | (iv) Useful when the interviewer tries to probe personal details of the candidate to analyse why they are not fit for the job |
Answer: (D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
Explanation
According to Donald Kirkpatrick, training programmes can be evaluated at four levels. Indicate the code of correct sequence from the following:
(i) Result
(ii) Reaction
(iii) Learning
(iv) Behaviour
Answer: (C) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
Explanation
Match the compensation elements in List I with their corresponding benefits in List II.
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| (a) Claims | (i) Company car, club membership, paid holidays, furnished house |
| (b) Fringe benefits | (ii) Telephone/mobile allowance, internet allowance, medical allowance |
| (c) Perquisites | (iii) Canteen, uniform, accident relief |
Answer: (B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i)
Explanation
"Everyone benefits when the focus is on common interest and promotion of harmony" is the underlying assumption of which one of the following approaches to industrial relations?
Answer: (A) Unitary approach
Explanation
Statement I: Thousands of employees die every day in factories due to accidents.
Statement II: To make an accident-free plant adds to cost and decreases productivity.
Answer: (B) Both the statements I and II are incorrect.
Explanation
Which one of the following is not the fund based business of commercial banks?
Accepted answers: (B) Issuance of Letters of Credit, (D) RTGS/NEFT transactions
Explanation
Match the banking terms in List I with their descriptions in List II.
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| (a) NPA | (i) The percentage of deposits to be kept with RBI in the form of cash. |
| (b) SLR | (ii) The rate at which RBI lends money to commercial banks. |
| (c) Repo Rate | (iii) Loans and advances not paid for more than 90 days. |
| (d) CRR | (iv) The percentage of net demand and time liabilities to be kept in the form of liquid assets. |
Answer: (B) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Explanation
"Skimming" in e-banking is a method of
Answer: (C) stealing credit card information.
Explanation
When RBI reduces CRR, it results into
Answer: (A) Increase in lendable resources
Explanation
Banking Ombudsman Scheme was introduced by RBI with effect from
Answer: (B) 1995
Explanation
Banks are required to classify Non-Performing Assets into
Answer: (A) Sub-standard assets, doubtful assets, and loss assets
Explanation
Which one of the following is not the function of the Reserve Bank of India?
Answer: (C) Accepting deposits and advancing loans to public
Explanation
The theory suggesting that the patterns of international trade are determined by factor endowment rather than productivity was propounded by which one of the following?
Answer: (C) Heckscher and Bertil Ohlin
Explanation
Match the international trade and balance of payments accounts in List I with their descriptions in List II.
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| (a) Balance of trade | (i) Imports and exports of goods and services and unilateral transfer of goods and services |
| (b) Current account | (ii) Transactions leading to changes in the financial assets and liabilities of a country |
| (c) Balance of payments | (iii) All economic transactions between a country's residents and residents of other countries |
| (d) Capital account | (iv) Value of exports and imports of a country |
Answer: (A) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
Explanation
Which of the following are included in the international liquidity?
(i) Foreign exchange reserve
(ii) Borrowing capacity of the various countries
(iii) Gold reserves
Answer: (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Explanation
Bretton Woods Conference resulted into the establishment of which of the following?
Answer: (D) IMF and IBRD
Explanation
Which one of the following is not the basic function of WTO?
Answer: (C) To facilitate the expansion and balanced growth of international trade
Explanation
Finance for exporting companies as part of major programmes of the Exim Bank of India does not include
Answer: (B) Post-shipment credit
Explanation
Which one of the following is the main government agency responsible for development and monitoring international trade in India?
Answer: (C) Department of Commerce
Explanation
Match the Accounting Standards in List I with their titles in List II.
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| (a) AS-1 | (i) Accounting for fixed assets |
| (b) AS-3 | (ii) Disclosure of accounting policies |
| (c) AS-10 | (iii) Leases and its accounting |
| (d) AS-19 | (iv) Cash flow statements |
Accepted answers: (A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i), (B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv), (C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv), (D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
Explanation
Which of the following statements is/are true?
(i) Tax-shield on depreciation and interest is an important variable both for the lessor and the lessee.
(ii) Lease transactions in India are governed by the Lease Act.
(iii) A lessee should evaluate the lease options against the buying option.
(iv) As per AS - 19, financial lease is shown in the balance sheet of the lessee as an asset.
Answer: (B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Explanation
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Answer: (D) One of the objectives of setting up SEBI is to protect the interests of investors.
Explanation
Merger of two companies under the Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR) supervision is known as
Answer: (D) Arranged merger
Explanation
Statement I: An option which gives its holder the privilege of selling to other party a fixed amount of some stock at a stated price on or before a predetermined date is known as call option.
Statement II: In an option, the holder has the privilege of purchasing from other party a fixed amount of some stock at a stated price on or before a predetermined date is known as put option.
Answer: (B) Both the statements I and II are incorrect.
Explanation
Statement I: When the two securities returns are perfectly positively correlated, the risk of their portfolio is just a weighted average of the individual risks of the securities. In such case, diversification does not provide risk reduction but only risk averaging.
Statement II: Total risk of a portfolio of two risk securities can be completely eliminated when their returns are perfectly negatively correlated and their proportionate holdings in the portfolio are inversely related to the relative individual risks of the securities.
Answer: (A) Both the statements I and II are correct.
Explanation
Which among the following is not included in seven Ps of marketing mix given by Booms and Bitner?
Answer: (D) Politics
Explanation
Match the stages of market evolution in List I with their descriptions in List II.
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| (a) The economy was characterised by small regional suppliers who sold goods on a local basis | (i) Mass marketing |
| (b) Standardised, branded goods were sold at national level | (ii) Hyper-segmentation |
| (c) Era of market differentiation based on demographic, socio-economic and life style factors | (iii) Segmentation |
| (d) Technological advancements, especially in the area of digital communication, allow marketers to communicate with individual consumers or very small groups | (iv) Fragmentation |
Answer: (B) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
Explanation
Which among the following is not an internal factor of pricing decision?
Answer: (D) Consumer behaviour for given product
Explanation
Advertising method in which a commercial is broadcast simultaneously on several radio stations and/or television channels is known as
Answer: (D) Road block
Explanation
Statement I: A well-chosen marketing channel must be aligned to company's marketing strategy with respect to segmentation, targeting and positioning.
Statement II: Marketing channels are set of interdependent organizations participating in the process of making the product available for the use of consumption.
Answer: (A) Both the statements I and II are correct.
Explanation
Assertion (A): Databases assist in market segmentation, especially behavioural segmentation such as developing loyalty segments.
Reason (R): Customer Relationship Management (CRM) databases have become an asset for the analysis of customer behaviour.
Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
Explanation
Which one of the following initiatives is not the strategy for managing shortage of employees in an organisation?
Answer: (D) Employee training
Explanation
Match the job analysis components in List I with their descriptions in List II.
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| (a) Job context | (i) Procedures used |
| (b) Job-related tangibles and intangibles | (ii) Work schedule |
| (c) Work activities | (iii) Work standards |
| (d) Work performance | (iv) Services rendered |
Answer: (B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
Explanation
Which one of the following is not an advantage of external recruitment?
Answer: (A) Good performance is rewarded
Explanation
Assertion (A): Training aids in encouraging and achieving self-development and self-confidence.
Reason (R): It helps a person handle stress, tension, frustration and conflict.
Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
Explanation
For performance assessment of employees, "helping to meet legal requirements" is the application of which one of the following?
Answer: (D) Documentation purpose
Explanation
In which one of the following forms of worker's participation in management is the role of the workers council not just advisory but the management is under a moral obligation to acknowledge, accept and implement the unanimous decision of the council?
Answer: (B) Associative Participation
Explanation
Match the types of Foreign Direct Investment in List I with their descriptions in List II.
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| (a) Direct investment overseas aimed at manufacturing products not manufactured by the firm in the home country. | (i) Inward FDI |
| (b) Direct investment in a foreign country aimed to sell the output of the firm's domestic production. | (ii) Backward Vertical FDI |
| (c) Direct investment overseas aimed at providing inputs for the firms production process in the home country. | (iii) Conglomerate FDI |
| (d) Foreign firms investing overseas and taking control over foreign assets. | (iv) Forward Vertical FDI |
Answer: (C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Explanation
Assertion (A): The multilateral trading system is an attempt by governments to make the business environment stable and predictable.
Reason (R): Promising not to raise trade barriers can be as important as lowering one, because the promise gives businesses a clearer view of their future market opportunities.
Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
Explanation
Who among the following is not an observer country of the SAARC?
Answer: (D) Canada
Explanation
Foreign investment can be made through which of the following routes?
(i) Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
(ii) Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI)
(iii) Private Equity Investment (PEI)
(iv) Foreign Venture Capital Investors (FVCI)
Answer: (A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Explanation
Statement I: Intellectual Property (IP) is a category of property that includes intangible creations of the human intellect.
Statement II: IPR does not include trade secrets and moral rights.
Answer: (C) Statement I is correct, but II is incorrect.
Explanation
Statement I: FX Spot is an agreement between two parties to buy one currency against selling another currency at an agreed price for settlement on the spot date.
Statement II: The date of maturity of a forward contract is more than two business days in future.
Answer: (A) Both the statements I and II are correct.
Explanation
Assertion (A): Among all methods of charging depreciation on fixed assets, diminishing balance method is the best method.
Reason (R): Diminishing balance method of charging depreciation has been permitted under the Income Tax Act, 1961 for claiming deduction for depreciation.
Answer: (D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
Explanation
Match the income items in List I with their tax treatments in List II.
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| (a) Compensation received by an employee from his employer on termination of job | (i) Exemption upto specified limit |
| (b) Pension received by the widow of an employee | (ii) Profits in lieu of salary |
| (c) Foreign allowance for rendering services abroad | (iii) Income from other sources |
| (d) Children hostel allowance | (iv) Fully exempt from tax |
Answer: (B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
Explanation
Under Sec. 194 IB of the Income Tax Act, 1961 an individual or HUF (who is not required to get his accounts audited u/s 44 AB) who is responsible for paying to a resident any rent, shall deduct income tax, for the use of any land and building or both, if the rent exceeds
Answer: (A) Rs. 50,000 per month
Explanation
Which one of the following is agricultural income under Income Tax Act?
Answer: (D) Income from the sale of replanted trees where denuded parts of the forest are replanted and subsequent operations in forestry are carried out.
Explanation
On fulfilling certain conditions, for an undertaking set up in special economic zones, deduction under section 10 AA of the Income Tax Act is allowed for
Answer: (C) 15 years
Explanation
Given is the information related to a house:
Municipal Value (M.V.): Rs. 1,50,000
Fair Rent: Rs. 1,80,000
Standard Rent: Rs. 1,60,000
Actual Rent: Rs. 20,000 pm
Municipal tax paid by owner is 20% of M.V. Unrealised rent Rs. 40,000 (conditions of rule 4 satisfied).
What is the annual value of the house?
Answer: (C) Rs. 1,70,000
Explanation
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