UGC NET Computer Science & Applications November 2020 Question PaperPaper 1 & Paper 2 with Answer Key

50 questions with the answer key and explanations.

1. Question 1

   What is the respective ratio of the number of females in the Mechanical Department to the number of females in the Electronics Department?

   Department	Total students	Female (%)	Male (%)
   Computer	840	45	55
   Civil	220	35	65
   Mechanical	900	23	77
   Electrical	360	65	35
   Electronics	450	44	56
   Mining	540	40	60

   1. A4 : 3
   2. B23 : 22
   3. C24 : 21
   4. D23 : 21

   Answer: (B) 23 : 22

   Explanation

   Mechanical has 23% of 900 students, or 207 females. Electronics has 44% of 450 students, or 198 females. The ratio 207:198 simplifies to 23:22, so option B is correct; the other ratios do not reduce from these two female counts.

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2. Question 2

   What is the total number of students in all the Departments?

   Department	Total students	Female (%)	Male (%)
   Computer	840	45	55
   Civil	220	35	65
   Mechanical	900	23	77
   Electrical	360	65	35
   Electronics	450	44	56
   Mining	540	40	60

   1. A2210
   2. B3210
   3. C3400
   4. D3310

   Answer: (D) 3310

   Explanation

   Add every department total: 840 + 220 + 900 + 360 + 450 + 540 = 3310. Option D is therefore correct; each other option leaves out at least one department or misadds the totals.

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3. Question 3

   What is the total number of male students in the Computer and Mining Departments together?

   Department	Total students	Female (%)	Male (%)
   Computer	840	45	55
   Civil	220	35	65
   Mechanical	900	23	77
   Electrical	360	65	35
   Electronics	450	44	56
   Mining	540	40	60

   1. A266
   2. B886
   3. C786
   4. D686

   Answer: (C) 786

   Explanation

   Computer has 55% of 840, or 462 male students, and Mining has 60% of 540, or 324. Their sum is 786, making option C correct. Options A, B and D result from using a wrong percentage or omitting part of a department total.

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4. Question 4

   What is the ratio of the number of females in Civil and Electrical Departments together to the number of males in the same Departments together?

   Department	Total students	Female (%)	Male (%)
   Computer	840	45	55
   Civil	220	35	65
   Mechanical	900	23	77
   Electrical	360	65	35
   Electronics	450	44	56
   Mining	540	40	60

   1. A311 : 270
   2. B329 : 261
   3. C411 : 469
   4. D311 : 269

   Answer: (D) 311 : 269

   Explanation

   Civil has 77 females and 143 males; Electrical has 234 females and 126 males. The combined counts are 311 females and 269 males, so the ratio is 311:269. The other ratios do not use both female and male totals consistently.

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5. Question 5

   What is the average percentage of female students in the whole Institute?

   Department	Total students	Female (%)	Male (%)
   Computer	840	45	55
   Civil	220	35	65
   Mechanical	900	23	77
   Electrical	360	65	35
   Electronics	450	44	56
   Mining	540	40	60

   1. A42.0%
   2. B41.0%
   3. C43.0%
   4. D41.5%

   Answer: (A) 42.0%

   Explanation

   This asks for the average of the six departmental percentages: (45 + 35 + 23 + 65 + 44 + 40) / 6 = 42.0%. A weighted overall female percentage would be a different calculation, so option A is correct.

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6. Question 6

   Which teacher competency belongs to the domain of personality and attitude?

   1. ALocus of control and self-efficacy
   2. BManaging and monitoring
   3. CPlanning and instructing
   4. DPersonalising and contextualising

   Answer: (A) Locus of control and self-efficacy

   Explanation

   Locus of control and self-efficacy describe a teacher’s beliefs about agency and capability, so they belong to personality and attitude. The other choices describe instructional or managerial practices.

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7. Question 7

   Identify the teaching strategies employed during indirect instruction:

   A. Emphasising direct and indirect exemplars
   B. Presenting stimulus material
   C. Inquiry-based question-answer session
   D. Presenting, asking and providing feedback
   E. Promoting a problem-solving approach

   Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

   1. AA, B and C only
   2. BB, C and D only
   3. CC, D and E only
   4. DA, C and E only

   Answer: (D) A, C and E only

   Explanation

   Indirect instruction is learner-centred and relies on exemplars, inquiry, and problem solving. Merely presenting material or supplying feedback in a directive sequence is not its defining strategy, so A, C and E is the best set.

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8. Question 8

   In which level of teaching is the teacher’s role more active rather than interactive?

   1. AMemory level
   2. BUnderstanding level
   3. CReflective level
   4. DAutonomous development level

   Answer: (A) Memory level

   Explanation

   At the memory level, teaching chiefly involves presentation, recall, and reinforcement, so the teacher has the dominant role. Understanding and reflective levels call for progressively greater learner interaction and independence.

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9. Question 9

   Match List-I with List-II.

   List-I: Scale	List-II: Description
   A. Nominal	I. Classification and order
   B. Ordinal	II. Classification
   C. Interval	III. Classification, order and equal units
   D. Ratio	IV. Classification, order, equal units and absolute zero

   1. AA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
   2. BA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
   3. CA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
   4. DA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

   Answer: (B) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

   Explanation

   Nominal data classify only; ordinal data add order; interval data add equal units; ratio data additionally have a true zero. Thus the correct matching is A-II, B-I, C-III and D-IV.

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10. Question 10

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Indirect instruction is an approach to teaching and learning in which the process is inquiry, the content involves concepts, and the context is a problem.
    Statement II: In a norm-referenced test, data tell us about a student’s level of proficiency or mastery of skills.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

    Explanation

    Indirect instruction is inquiry-driven and problem-centred, so Statement I is true. Norm-referenced tests compare a learner with a reference group; mastery of specified skills is assessed by criterion-referenced tests, making Statement II false.

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11. Question 11

    In which of the following is there greater flexibility in both the methods and process of research?

    1. AEthnography and phenomenology
    2. BDescriptive survey and impact studies
    3. CExperimental and observation-based studies
    4. DEx post facto and historical studies

    Answer: (A) Ethnography and phenomenology

    Explanation

    Ethnography and phenomenology are qualitative approaches that adapt methods and inquiry as understanding develops. Experimental and survey designs usually require more pre-specified procedures, so option A is correct.

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12. Question 12

    In conducting an empirical study, a researcher uses a non-parametric test and finds the statistic significant at the .05 level. What decision is warranted?

    A. Reject the null hypothesis (H₀)
    B. Accept the null hypothesis (H₀)
    C. Accept the alternative hypothesis (H₁)
    D. Keep the decision in abeyance
    E. Reject the alternative hypothesis (H₁)

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CD only
    4. DA and C only

    Answer: (D) A and C only

    Explanation

    A result significant at .05 provides sufficient evidence to reject H₀ in favour of H₁. It does not support accepting the null hypothesis, so A and C is the appropriate combination.

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13. Question 13

    Which of the following are non-probability sampling methods?

    A. Cluster sampling
    B. Judgemental sampling
    C. Systematic sampling
    D. Snowball sampling
    E. Quota sampling

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, D and E only
    3. CB, C and D only
    4. DC, D and E only

    Answer: (B) B, D and E only

    Explanation

    Judgemental, snowball, and quota sampling do not give every population member a known probability of selection. Cluster and systematic sampling are probability methods when correctly implemented, so B, D and E is correct.

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14. Question 14

    Given below are two statements:

    Assertion (A): To bridge the gap between theory and practice, both fundamental and applied research formats have to be promoted.
    Reason (R): Fundamental research focuses on theory making, while applied research explores the applicability of theory in varied practical situations.

    Choose the most appropriate answer.

    1. ABoth A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is correct but R is not correct
    4. DA is not correct but R is correct

    Answer: (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

    Explanation

    Fundamental research develops or refines explanatory theory, while applied research tests and uses theory in practical settings. Because their complementary roles directly connect theory and practice, both statements are true and R explains A.

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15. Question 15

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Qualitative research is an umbrella term for strategies using rich, descriptive “soft” data.
    Statement II: Quantitative research is mainly hypothetico-deductive and mostly uses statistical techniques for analysis.

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

    Explanation

    Qualitative research commonly uses detailed descriptive data and interpretive strategies. Quantitative research typically tests hypotheses with numerical and statistical analysis, so both statements are true.

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16. Question 16

    Which of the following is considered an effective form of verbal communication?

    1. AStory-telling
    2. BSloganeering
    3. CUse of a high-pitched voice
    4. DMonologues

    Answer: (A) Story-telling

    Explanation

    Story-telling can organise ideas into a memorable, audience-oriented narrative and invite understanding. A slogan, a high pitch, or a one-way monologue may be useful in limited contexts but is not inherently effective communication.

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17. Question 17

    Which of the following are useful positive components of classroom communication?

    A. Restrictive actions
    B. Empathy
    C. Punctuality
    D. Follow-up
    E. Scattered reflections

    Choose the most appropriate answer.

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DA, D and E only

    Answer: (B) B, C and D only

    Explanation

    Empathy helps a teacher understand learners, punctuality supports a reliable learning environment, and follow-up checks understanding. Restrictive actions and scattered reflections work against open, coherent classroom communication.

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18. Question 18

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Interactive and multimedia systems provide for a new culture of teaching and learning.
    Statement II: Virtual classrooms convert students into senseless humanoids.

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

    Explanation

    Interactive and multimedia systems can support participatory, flexible learning, so Statement I is true. Virtual classrooms do not inherently dehumanise learners; their impact depends on design and use, making Statement II false.

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19. Question 19

    Identify the sequence of stages of message processing:

    A. Action
    B. Internalisation
    C. Selection
    D. Understanding
    E. Perception

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. AA, B, D, E, C
    2. BB, C, A, D, E
    3. CD, E, B, A, C
    4. DE, D, C, B, A

    Answer: (D) E, D, C, B, A

    Explanation

    Message processing begins with perception, followed by understanding and selection; internalisation precedes the eventual action. The sequence E, D, C, B, A is therefore correct.

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20. Question 20

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I: Medium	List-II: Example for description
    A. Newspaper	I. Networking
    B. Radio and television	II. Audio, video and graphics
    C. Social media	III. Broadsheet
    D. Multimedia	IV. Broadcasting

    1. AA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    2. BA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    3. CA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
    4. DA-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

    Answer: (A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    A newspaper can be a broadsheet, radio and television are broadcasting media, social media enable networking, and multimedia combine audio, video and graphics. This yields A-III, B-IV, C-I and D-II.

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21. Question 21

    In a park A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting. C is the brother of D’s husband and son of A. F is the daughter of D and sister of E.

    A. E is the grandson of A
    B. F is the daughter of C
    C. B is the father of F
    D. There are one son and one daughter in the group
    E. C is the uncle of E

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BA, C and E only
    3. CB, D and E only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (B) A, C and E only

    Explanation

    D’s husband is C’s brother, so C is E and F’s paternal uncle; B must be D’s husband and F’s father. Thus E is A’s grandson, B is F’s father, and C is E’s uncle; the other statements are false.

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22. Question 22

    The ratio of ages of A and B is 3:4 and that of B and C is 4:5. If the average age of all three is 40 years, what is B’s age?

    1. A20 years
    2. B30 years
    3. C40 years
    4. D50 years

    Answer: (C) 40 years

    Explanation

    The common ratio is A:B:C = 3:4:5. Their total is 12 parts and equals 120 years, so one part is 10 years; B is 4 × 10 = 40 years. The other choices do not preserve both given ratios and the stated average.

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23. Question 23

    If some pens are pencils but no pencil is a sharpener, then:

    A. All pencils are pens
    B. Some sharpeners are pencils
    C. Some pens are not sharpeners
    D. Some pencils are not pens

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. AA and C only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA and D only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (A) A and C only

    Explanation

    “Some pens are pencils” gives at least one object that is both a pen and pencil. Since no pencil is a sharpener, that object is a pen which is not a sharpener; the intended conclusion is A and C, whereas B contradicts the premise and D is not entailed.

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24. Question 24

    In a 100-metre race, A beats B by 10 metres or 2 seconds. What is the speed of A?

    1. A5 km/h
    2. B10 km/h
    3. C15 km/h
    4. D20 km/h

    Answer: (D) 20 km/h

    Explanation

    When A finishes 100 m, B has covered 90 m. B takes a further 2 seconds to cover 10 m, so B’s speed is 5 m/s and A’s is 100/18 = 5.56 m/s, or 20 km/h. This uses the stated time gap rather than treating 10 metres as A’s distance loss.

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25. Question 25

    Three pipes fill a tank in 4 hours. If two take 8 and 12 hours each to fill it, how long will the third pipe take?

    1. A6 hours
    2. B15 hours
    3. C18 hours
    4. D24 hours

    Answer: (D) 24 hours

    Explanation

    The combined rate is 1/4 tank per hour. The first two rates total 1/8 + 1/12 = 5/24, leaving 1/24 for the third pipe; it therefore takes 24 hours.

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26. Question 26

    Which school has not accepted anumana (inference) as a valid source of knowledge?

    1. AAdvaita Vedanta
    2. BVisistadvaita
    3. CCharvaka
    4. DSankhya

    Answer: (C) Charvaka

    Explanation

    Charvaka accepts direct perception as the only reliable pramana and rejects inference as independently valid. Vedanta and Sankhya schools accept inference among their sources of knowledge.

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27. Question 27

    Given below are two statements:

    Assertion (A): Substance is always the subject of all predicates.
    Reason (R): Substance is self-existent and self-conceived.

    Choose the most appropriate answer.

    1. ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is true but R is false
    4. DA is false but R is true

    Answer: (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

    Explanation

    In the relevant philosophical account, substance is the subject to which predicates are attributed, and it is conceived as self-existent. The second statement characterises substance but does not itself explain the grammatical or logical predicate relation in A.

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28. Question 28

    The water of a pond is muddy. It must have rained last night. What kind of anumana (inference) is used?

    A. Sheshavat anumana
    B. Comparison
    C. Purvavat anumana
    D. Both A and B

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. AA only
    2. BB only
    3. CC only
    4. DD only

    Answer: (A) A only

    Explanation

    The observed effect (muddy water) is used to infer an unobserved prior cause (rain). This is sheshavat inference; purvavat instead infers a future effect from a present cause.

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29. Question 29

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I: Doctrine	List-II: School
    A. Syadavada	I. Nyaya
    B. Anupalabdhi	II. Buddhism
    C. Apoha	III. Vedanta
    D. Abhava	IV. Jainism

    1. AA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    2. BA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    3. CA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
    4. DA-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

    Answer: (B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    Explanation

    Syadavada is Jain, anupalabdhi is accepted in Vedanta, apoha is a Buddhist account of exclusion, and abhava is associated with Nyaya. Therefore A-IV, B-III, C-II and D-I is correct.

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30. Question 30

    Which pramana has been accepted in Buddhism?

    1. AArthapatti
    2. BAnupalabdhi
    3. CSabda
    4. DPratyaksha

    Answer: (D) Pratyaksha

    Explanation

    Buddhist epistemology centrally accepts pratyaksha, or direct perception, together with inference in many traditions. Arthapatti and anupalabdhi are more characteristic of other Indian systems, and sabda is not the intended answer here.

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31. Question 31

    A type of memory that holds the computer startup routine is

    1. ACache
    2. BRAM
    3. CDRAM
    4. DROM

    Answer: (D) ROM

    Explanation

    The startup firmware is stored in non-volatile read-only memory so it remains available when power is off. RAM and cache are volatile working memories; DRAM is a kind of RAM.

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32. Question 32

    Cloud computing has the following distinct characteristics:

    A. The service is hosted on the internet.
    B. It is made available by a service provider.
    C. It computes and predicts rain when the weather is cloudy.
    D. The service is fully managed by the provider.

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA, B and C only
    3. CA and D only
    4. DA, B and D only

    Answer: (D) A, B and D only

    Explanation

    Cloud services are delivered over networks by providers who manage the underlying infrastructure or service. Predicting weather is not a defining cloud-computing characteristic, so A, B and D is correct.

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33. Question 33

    A firewall is a software tool that protects:

    A. Server
    B. Network
    C. Fire
    D. Individual computer

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. AA and C only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA, B and C only
    4. DA, B and D only

    Answer: (D) A, B and D only

    Explanation

    A firewall filters incoming and outgoing network traffic to protect hosts such as servers and individual computers, as well as the network boundary. It is unrelated to physical fire, so A, B and D is the valid set.

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34. Question 34

    The word “blog” is derived from the word

    1. AMy log
    2. BWeblog
    3. CE-blog
    4. DBlogger

    Answer: (B) Weblog

    Explanation

    “Blog” is a shortened form of “weblog,” originally referring to a regularly updated web log. The other options are not the source word.

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35. Question 35

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Input	I. Mouse
    B. Output	II. Monitor
    C. Memory	III. Cache
    D. Software	IV. Python

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
    2. BA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
    3. CA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    4. DA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

    Answer: (D) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

    Explanation

    A mouse is an input device, a monitor is an output device, cache is memory, and Python is software. Thus A-I, B-II, C-III and D-IV is the correct matching.

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36. Question 36

    Which of the International Agreements, Conventions, or Protocols are legally binding on member countries (parties)?

    A. Convention on Biological Diversity
    B. Kyoto Protocol
    C. Montreal Protocol
    D. Paris Agreement

    Choose the most appropriate answer.

    1. AC only
    2. BA and C only
    3. CA, B and C only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (B) A and C only

    Explanation

    The Convention on Biological Diversity and Montreal Protocol impose treaty obligations on their parties. The question’s official key treats A and C as the intended binding instruments; the other combinations do not match that classification.

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37. Question 37

    Given below are two statements:

    Assertion (A): Carbon dioxide emissions from bioenergy production have traditionally been excluded from most emission inventories and climate-impact studies.
    Reason (R): Carbon dioxide emissions associated with bioenergy production are significantly less than those from combustion of fossil fuels.

    Choose the most appropriate answer.

    1. ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is true but R is false
    4. DA is false but R is true

    Answer: (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

    Explanation

    Bioenergy is often treated as carbon-neutral in inventories, which has led to emissions from its production being undercounted or excluded. Lower emissions relative to fossil fuels does not logically explain that accounting exclusion, so both statements are treated as true but R is not the explanation.

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38. Question 38

    Wind energy is very sensitive to wind velocity because wind power is directly proportional to the

    1. AWind velocity
    2. BSquare of wind velocity
    3. CSquare root of wind velocity
    4. DCube of wind velocity

    Answer: (D) Cube of wind velocity

    Explanation

    The kinetic-energy flux in moving air varies with v³, so a small increase in wind speed produces a much larger increase in available wind power. Linear or square relationships underestimate this sensitivity.

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39. Question 39

    During physical treatment of wastewater, what is the correct order of operations?

    A. Flocculation
    B. Filtration
    C. Screening
    D. Sedimentation

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. AC, D, B, A
    2. BC, D, A, B
    3. CB, D, A, C
    4. DB, C, D, A

    Answer: (B) C, D, A, B

    Explanation

    Screening first removes large debris, sedimentation allows settleable solids to drop out, flocculation aggregates fine particles, and filtration removes the remaining suspended matter. Hence C, D, A, B is the correct process order.

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40. Question 40

    Given below are two statements:

    Assertion (A): Carbon monoxide is a serious asphyxiant; even a short exposure may have fatal health effects.
    Reason (R): Haemoglobin in blood has greater affinity for carbon monoxide than for oxygen.

    Choose the most appropriate answer.

    1. ABoth A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is correct but R is not correct
    4. DA is not correct but R is correct

    Answer: (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

    Explanation

    Carbon monoxide binds haemoglobin far more strongly than oxygen does, forming carboxyhaemoglobin and preventing oxygen transport. That mechanism directly explains why short, high exposures can cause severe hypoxia and death.

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41. Question 41

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I: Vedanga	List-II: Subject
    A. Nirukta	I. Phonetics
    B. Chhandas	II. Ritual
    C. Shiksha	III. Metrics
    D. Kalpa	IV. Etymology

    1. AA-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
    2. BA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    3. CA-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
    4. DA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Answer: (B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    Nirukta concerns etymology, Chhandas metrics, Shiksha phonetics, and Kalpa ritual procedure. Therefore A-IV, B-III, C-I and D-II is the correct matching.

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42. Question 42

    Which of the following explain the concept of values?

    A. Values are beliefs tied inextricably to human emotion and behaviour.
    B. Values refer to desirable goals people strive to attain.
    C. Values are conflict-free.
    D. Values are ordered by importance relative to one another.
    E. Values are utilized primarily to effect change in a person’s knowledge.

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BA, B and D only
    3. CB, C and D only
    4. DC, D and E only

    Answer: (B) A, B and D only

    Explanation

    Values are enduring beliefs linked to emotion and behaviour, express desirable goals, and are arranged in a personal hierarchy of importance. They may conflict, and they are not confined to changing knowledge, so A, B and D is correct.

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43. Question 43

    Which of the following come under the mandate of the University Grants Commission (UGC)?

    A. Promotion and coordination of university education
    B. Determining and monitoring standards of teaching, examination and research in universities
    C. Organising continuous professional-development programmes for college and university teachers
    D. Framing regulations on minimum standards of education
    E. Disbursing and regulating grants to universities and colleges

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. AA, B, C and D only
    2. BB, C, D and E only
    3. CA, C, D and E only
    4. DA, B, D and E only

    Answer: (D) A, B, D and E only

    Explanation

    The UGC promotes and coordinates university education, sets and monitors standards, frames regulations, and allocates grants. Professional-development programmes may be supported by various bodies, but are not stated as the core statutory mandate in this item; hence A, B, D and E.

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44. Question 44

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Equality of educational opportunities is a pre-condition for achieving equity in education.
    Statement II: Equity in education can be achieved without equality of educational opportunities.

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

    Explanation

    Equal access to educational opportunities is a necessary foundation for equitable educational outcomes. Statement II denies that foundation, so Statement I is true and Statement II is false.

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45. Question 45

    What are the advantages of the Choice Based Credit System (CBCS) introduced by the UGC for higher education institutions?

    A. Focuses on student-centric education
    B. Allows students to choose interdisciplinary and intra-disciplinary courses
    C. Makes education at par with global standards
    D. Makes it easy to estimate student performance in terms of marks
    E. Offers flexibility for students to undertake studies at different times and institutions

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. AA, B, C and D only
    2. BB, C, D and E only
    3. CA, B, C and E only
    4. DC, D, E and A only

    Answer: (C) A, B, C and E only

    Explanation

    CBCS is student-centred, permits course choice across disciplines, supports comparability with broader credit systems, and offers mobility and flexibility. It is not principally designed merely to estimate performance in terms of marks, so A, B, C and E is correct.

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46. Question 46

    In an MBO organisation, management is through the identification of

    Through their work and the efforts of others, managers in industrial, educational, governmental and military organisations attempt to run their organisations with management by objectives (MBO) as an underlying concept. In MBO, senior and junior managers jointly identify common goals and define each individual’s responsibilities in terms of expected results. These measures guide unit operations and assess each member’s contribution. The process can include hourly employees. It integrates external managerial control with employee self-control and can apply at any level or in any size organisation. Effective functioning requires agreement between a manager and an employee on the employee’s performance goals for a stated period. The jointly established goals may concern output variables, intervening variables, or both; performance is then jointly reviewed against the accepted goals.

    1. ACompeting goals
    2. BCommon objectives
    3. CIts specific characteristics
    4. DSenior and junior managers

    Answer: (B) Common objectives

    Explanation

    The passage defines MBO as senior and junior managers jointly identifying the organisation’s common goals. The managers are participants in the process, not the thing through which management is identified.

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47. Question 47

    The requisite for management by objectives is centred on

    Through their work and the efforts of others, managers in industrial, educational, governmental and military organisations attempt to run their organisations with management by objectives (MBO) as an underlying concept. In MBO, senior and junior managers jointly identify common goals and define each individual’s responsibilities in terms of expected results. These measures guide unit operations and assess each member’s contribution. The process can include hourly employees. It integrates external managerial control with employee self-control and can apply at any level or in any size organisation. Effective functioning requires agreement between a manager and an employee on the employee’s performance goals for a stated period. The jointly established goals may concern output variables, intervening variables, or both; performance is then jointly reviewed against the accepted goals.

    1. AControl by seniors
    2. BGuidance of juniors
    3. CThe participatory process
    4. DThe organisational settings

    Answer: (C) The participatory process

    Explanation

    MBO depends on managers and employees jointly setting goals and reviewing performance. That joint goal-setting makes participation—not one-sided senior control or a particular setting—the key requirement.

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48. Question 48

    The critical feature of this type of management is related to

    Through their work and the efforts of others, managers in industrial, educational, governmental and military organisations attempt to run their organisations with management by objectives (MBO) as an underlying concept. In MBO, senior and junior managers jointly identify common goals and define each individual’s responsibilities in terms of expected results. These measures guide unit operations and assess each member’s contribution. The process can include hourly employees. It integrates external managerial control with employee self-control and can apply at any level or in any size organisation. Effective functioning requires agreement between a manager and an employee on the employee’s performance goals for a stated period. The jointly established goals may concern output variables, intervening variables, or both; performance is then jointly reviewed against the accepted goals.

    1. AAssignment of responsibility to workers
    2. BDistinguishing operational roles between managers and workers
    3. CPromoting uniformity of work environment
    4. DSharing responsibility with an eye on results

    Answer: (D) Sharing responsibility with an eye on results

    Explanation

    MBO defines responsibility in terms of expected results and has managers and employees jointly agree on goals. Its central feature is therefore shared responsibility focused on outcomes, not rigid separation of roles.

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49. Question 49

    In this frame of reference, how does an organisation function effectively?

    Through their work and the efforts of others, managers in industrial, educational, governmental and military organisations attempt to run their organisations with management by objectives (MBO) as an underlying concept. In MBO, senior and junior managers jointly identify common goals and define each individual’s responsibilities in terms of expected results. These measures guide unit operations and assess each member’s contribution. The process can include hourly employees. It integrates external managerial control with employee self-control and can apply at any level or in any size organisation. Effective functioning requires agreement between a manager and an employee on the employee’s performance goals for a stated period. The jointly established goals may concern output variables, intervening variables, or both; performance is then jointly reviewed against the accepted goals.

    1. ABy including hourly employees in managerial positions
    2. BBy identifying and executing performance targets in a collaborative mode
    3. CBy imposing a rigid philosophy of management
    4. DBy providing separate work environments for managers and workers

    Answer: (B) By identifying and executing performance targets in a collaborative mode

    Explanation

    The passage says goals are jointly established in advance and performance is jointly reviewed. Collaborative identification and execution of targets, rather than rigid control or separate work environments, describes effective MBO functioning.

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50. Question 50

    The philosophy behind management by objectives is to

    Through their work and the efforts of others, managers in industrial, educational, governmental and military organisations attempt to run their organisations with management by objectives (MBO) as an underlying concept. In MBO, senior and junior managers jointly identify common goals and define each individual’s responsibilities in terms of expected results. These measures guide unit operations and assess each member’s contribution. The process can include hourly employees. It integrates external managerial control with employee self-control and can apply at any level or in any size organisation. Effective functioning requires agreement between a manager and an employee on the employee’s performance goals for a stated period. The jointly established goals may concern output variables, intervening variables, or both; performance is then jointly reviewed against the accepted goals.

    1. AEffect improvement through a joint review of achievement of performance goals within a given timeframe
    2. BIntegrate external and internal controls by managers
    3. CProvide managers scope to review accepted output variables
    4. DAgree upon different performance goals for managers and employees

    Answer: (A) Effect improvement through a joint review of achievement of performance goals within a given timeframe

    Explanation

    MBO sets mutually agreed performance goals for a stated period and ends with a joint review against those goals. That review is intended to improve performance; the other options omit the essential shared, goal-based review.

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100 questions with the answer key and explanations.

1. Question 1

   The number of positive integers not exceeding 100 that are either odd or the square of an integer is ____.

   1. A63
   2. B59
   3. C55
   4. D50

   Answer: (C) 55

   Explanation

   There are 50 odd integers through 100. Of the squares 1² through 10², the five even squares (2², 4², 6², 8² and 10²) are not already in the odd set, so the union has 50 + 5 = 55 integers. Counting all ten squares again would double-count the five odd squares.

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2. Question 2

   How many ways are there to pack six copies of the same book into four identical boxes, where a box can contain as many as six books?

   1. A4
   2. B6
   3. C7
   4. D9

   Answer: (D) 9

   Explanation

   Because both books and boxes are identical, each arrangement is a partition of 6 into at most four positive parts. The nine partitions are 6; 5+1; 4+2; 4+1+1; 3+3; 3+2+1; 3+1+1+1; 2+2+2; and 2+2+1+1.

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3. Question 3

   Which of the following pairs of propositions are not logically equivalent?

   1. A((p → r) ∧ (q → r)) and ((p ∨ q) → r)
   2. Bp ↔ q and (¬p ↔ ¬q)
   3. C((p ∧ q) ∨ (¬p ∧ ¬q)) and p ↔ q
   4. D((p ∧ q) → r) and ((p → r) ∧ (q → r))

   Answer: (D) ((p ∧ q) → r) and ((p → r) ∧ (q → r))

   Explanation

   The first expression in option D requires r only when both p and q are true. The second requires r whenever either p or q is true, so they differ when exactly one of p and q is true. The other pairs are standard equivalent rewritings.

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4. Question 4

   Consider the linear programming problem:

   Maximise Z = 2x₁ + 3x₂
   Subject to 2x₁ + x₂ ≤ 4; x₁ + 2x₂ ≤ 5; x₁, x₂ ≥ 0.

   The optimum value of the LP is

   1. A23
   2. B9.5
   3. C13
   4. D8

   Answer: (D) 8

   Explanation

   A linear-programming optimum occurs at a feasible corner. The two binding constraints give x₁ = 1 and x₂ = 2, so Z = 2(1) + 3(2) = 8. The other corners give smaller values.

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5. Question 5

   Consider a machine with byte-addressable main memory of 2¹⁶ bytes and block size 8 bytes. A direct-mapped cache has 32 lines. How many bits are in the tag, line, and word fields of a main-memory address?

   1. A8, 5, 3
   2. B8, 6, 2
   3. C7, 5, 4
   4. D7, 6, 3

   Answer: (A) 8, 5, 3

   Explanation

   A 2¹⁶-byte memory uses 16 address bits. An 8-byte block needs 3 word-offset bits and 32 cache lines need 5 line bits; the remaining 16 − 3 − 5 = 8 bits form the tag.

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6. Question 6

   The following basic-computer program is stored in memory. What is the accumulator content after execution?

   210 CLA
   211 ADD 217
   212 INC
   213 STA 217
   214 LDA 218
   215 CMA
   216 AND 217
   217 1234H
   218 9CE2H

   1. A1002H
   2. B2011H
   3. C2022H
   4. D0215H

   Answer: (D) 0215H

   Explanation

   CLA clears AC; ADD 217 and INC produce 1235H, which STA stores at 217. LDA 218 loads 9CE2H, CMA gives 631DH, and 631DH AND 1235H equals 0215H.

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7. Question 7

   A non-pipeline system takes 50 ns per task. The same task uses a six-segment pipeline with a 10 ns clock. Determine the approximate speedup for 500 tasks.

   1. A6
   2. B4.95
   3. C5.7
   4. D5.5

   Answer: (B) 4.95

   Explanation

   Non-pipelined time is 500 × 50 = 25,000 ns. Pipeline time is (6 + 500 − 1) × 10 = 5,050 ns, including fill time. The speedup is 25,000/5,050 ≈ 4.95. A speedup of 6 ignores pipeline fill and drain overhead.

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8. Question 8

   What is the radix of the numbers if the solution to x² − 10x + 26 = 0 is x = 4 and x = 7?

   1. A8
   2. B9
   3. C10
   4. D11

   Answer: (D) 11

   Explanation

   By Vieta’s rule, the sum of the roots is the value represented by 10 in that radix. Since 4 + 7 = 11 in decimal, 10 in the unknown base is 11, so the base is 11.

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9. Question 9

   Consider the pseudocode with integers a and b, where a > 1 and a < b:

   int x = 0; int p = 1;
   while (p < b) { p = p * a; x = x + 1; }

   When the loop terminates, what is x in terms of a and b?

   1. A⌊logₐ b⌋
   2. B⌈logₐ b⌉
   3. Clogₐ b
   4. Daᵇ

   Answer: (B) ⌈logₐ b⌉

   Explanation

   After x iterations, p = aˣ. The loop stops at the smallest integer x for which aˣ ≥ b, which is exactly ⌈logₐ b⌉. The floor is wrong whenever logₐ b is not an integer because it can leave p below b.

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10. Question 10

    In HTML, the <map> tag is used for

    1. Adefining a path between two nodes in an image
    2. Bdefining clickable regions in an image
    3. Chighlighting an area in an image
    4. Ddefining the site map of a website

    Answer: (B) defining clickable regions in an image

    Explanation

    The <map> element defines an image map, and its <area> elements specify clickable regions. It is unrelated to a navigation sitemap or visual highlighting.

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11. Question 11

    A compiler uses 1-byte chars, 2-byte shorts, 4-byte ints, and 8-byte doubles. Every primitive must begin at an address that is a multiple of its size; fields cannot be reordered. How much space is consumed by an array A[10] of this structure?

    struct { short s; char c; short t; char d; double r; int i; }

    1. A150 bytes
    2. B320 bytes
    3. C240 bytes
    4. D200 bytes

    Answer: (C) 240 bytes

    Explanation

    The layout is s at bytes 0–1, c at 2, padding at 3, t at 4–5, d at 6, then one byte of padding before double r at 8–15 and int i at 16–19. The structure is rounded to 24 bytes for 8-byte alignment, so ten elements occupy 240 bytes.

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12. Question 12

    Consider the recursive Java function:

    public static float f(long m, long n) {
    float result = (float)m / (float)n;
    if (m < 0 || n < 0) return 0.0f;
    else result -= f(m + 2, n * 3);
    return result;
    }

    Which real value best approximates f(1, 3)?

    1. A0.2
    2. B0.4
    3. C0.6
    4. D0.8

    Answer: (A) 0.2

    Explanation

    The recurrence alternates terms: 1/3 − 3/9 + 5/27 − 7/81 + …, stopping once m becomes negative in the recursive call chain. The partial sums settle near 0.2, whereas the larger choices ignore the alternating subtraction.

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13. Question 13

    The data node and name node in Hadoop are

    1. AWorker node and master node respectively
    2. BMaster node and worker node respectively
    3. CBoth worker nodes
    4. DBoth master nodes

    Answer: (A) Worker node and master node respectively

    Explanation

    DataNodes store and serve HDFS data blocks on worker machines. The NameNode maintains filesystem metadata and coordinates the cluster, so it is the master service.

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14. Question 14

    For S = (U, V, W, X, Y, Z), the functional dependencies are {U → V, VW → X, Y → W, X → U}. Which listed sets are candidate keys?

    1. AUY, VY
    2. BUY, VY, XY
    3. CUYZ, VYZ, VWZ
    4. DUYZ, VYZ, XYZ

    Answer: (D) UYZ, VYZ, XYZ

    Explanation

    Z never appears on the right-hand side, so every key must contain Z. UYZ gives V from U and W from Y, then X from VW; VYZ gives W from Y, then X and U; XYZ gives U from X and then V. Each is minimal, yielding option D.

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15. Question 15

    A machine has 3 page frames and the reference stream A, B, C, D, A, B, E, A, B, C, D, E, B, A, B. If P and Q are the page faults under FIFO and LRU respectively, what is (P, Q)?

    1. A(11, 10)
    2. B(12, 11)
    3. C(10, 11)
    4. D(11, 12)

    Answer: (D) (11, 12)

    Explanation

    Simulating FIFO replaces the oldest loaded page and produces 11 faults. Simulating LRU instead evicts the least recently used page, which produces 12 faults for this sequence; replacement policies need not rank the same on every reference string.

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16. Question 16

    A disk has 60 cylinders. Requests are 10, 22, 20, 2, 40, 6, 38; the head starts at 20. Movement by one cylinder takes 2 ms. Under SSTF, what is the total service time?

    1. A240 milliseconds
    2. B96 milliseconds
    3. C120 milliseconds
    4. D112 milliseconds

    Answer: (C) 120 milliseconds

    Explanation

    SSTF serves 20, 22, 10, 6, 2, 38, 40, always choosing the nearest pending cylinder. The movement is 0 + 2 + 12 + 4 + 4 + 36 + 2 = 60 cylinders, and at 2 ms per cylinder the total is 120 ms; other totals result from a different service order.

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17. Question 17

    A Linux filesystem has 2 KB blocks and 32-bit disk addresses. An i-node has 12 direct pointers, one single-indirect pointer, and one double-indirect pointer. Approximately what is the largest representable file?

    1. A513 Kbytes
    2. B513 Mbytes
    3. C537 Mbytes
    4. D537 Kbytes

    Answer: (B) 513 Mbytes

    Explanation

    A 2 KB indirect block contains 2,048/4 = 512 addresses. The i-node addresses 12 + 512 + 512² blocks, about 262,668 blocks, which at 2 KB each is approximately 513 MB.

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18. Question 18

    In a single-level page-table system with the page table in memory, TLB hit rate is 80%. TLB search takes 15 ns and a main-memory access takes 150 ns. What is the effective memory access time?

    1. A185
    2. B195
    3. C205
    4. D175

    Answer: (B) 195

    Explanation

    On a TLB hit, time is 15 + 150 = 165 ns. On a miss, it is 15 + 2(150) = 315 ns because both the page table and the data are accessed. The weighted average is 0.8(165) + 0.2(315) = 195 ns; treating every reference as a hit would wrongly give 165 ns.

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19. Question 19

    Which UML diagram has a static view?

    1. ACollaboration diagram
    2. BUse-case diagram
    3. CState-chart diagram
    4. DActivity diagram

    Answer: (B) Use-case diagram

    Explanation

    Use-case diagrams describe the actors and required system functionality without modelling a time-ordered execution. Collaboration, state-chart, and activity diagrams are behavioural or interaction views.

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20. Question 20

    Modifying software by restructuring is called

    1. AAdaptive maintenance
    2. BCorrective maintenance
    3. CPerfective maintenance
    4. DPreventive maintenance

    Answer: (C) Perfective maintenance

    Explanation

    Perfective maintenance improves internal design, maintainability, efficiency, or other quality attributes after delivery; restructuring is a typical perfective change. Corrective maintenance fixes faults, while adaptive maintenance responds to a changed environment.

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21. Question 21

    A company can use languages L₁ and L₂; an application needs three times as many LOC in L₂ as in L₁. The project has 10 years of maintenance. For what LOC in L₁ are the total development-plus-maintenance costs equal?

    Parameter	L₁	L₂
    Man-years for development	LOC/1000	LOC/1000
    Development cost	Rs. 70,000	Rs. 90,000
    Maintenance cost per year	Rs. 1,00,000	Rs. 40,000

    1. A2000
    2. B6000
    3. C3000
    4. D5000

    Answer: (C) 3000

    Explanation

    For x lines of L₁, development costs are 70x and 270x rupees for L₁ and L₂ respectively, since the rates are per 1,000 LOC and L₂ needs 3x lines. Ten-year maintenance costs are Rs. 10,00,000 and Rs. 4,00,000; equating totals gives 70x + 10,00,000 = 270x + 4,00,000, hence x = 3,000 LOC.

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22. Question 22

    A software project is estimated at 864 function points. A six-person team has one requirements gatherer (Rs. 50,000/month), one designer (Rs. 70,000/month), two programmers (Rs. 60,000/month each), and two testers (Rs. 60,000/month each). Team productivity is 12 FP per person-month. What is the projected cost?

    1. ARs. 33,20,000
    2. BRs. 43,20,000
    3. CRs. 33,10,000
    4. DRs. 22,10,000

    Answer: (B) Rs. 43,20,000

    Explanation

    The effort is 864/12 = 72 person-months, or 72/6 = 12 calendar months for six people. Monthly payroll is 50,000 + 70,000 + 2(60,000) + 2(60,000) = Rs. 3,60,000, so the project cost is 12 × 3,60,000 = Rs. 43,20,000; it is not based on treating 864 as calendar months.

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23. Question 23

    A complete n-ary tree has either n children or no children at each node. If it has I = 10 internal nodes and L = 41 leaves, what is n?

    1. A3
    2. B4
    3. C5
    4. D6

    Answer: (C) 5

    Explanation

    For a full n-ary tree, L = (n − 1)I + 1 because each internal node contributes n outgoing edges. Substitution gives 41 = 10(n − 1) + 1, so 40 = 10(n − 1) and n = 5; the other arities do not yield 41 leaves.

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24. Question 24

    In a binary max heap containing n numbers, the smallest element can be found in what time?

    1. AO(n)
    2. BO(log₂ n)
    3. CO(1)
    4. DO(log log n)

    Answer: (A) O(n)

    Explanation

    A max heap only guarantees that the largest element is at the root. The smallest can be anywhere among the leaves, which are Θ(n) in number, so finding it requires a linear scan in the worst case.

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25. Question 25

    Algorithm A takes log₂(n) microseconds and algorithm B takes √n microseconds. What are the largest problem sizes they can solve in one second?

    1. A2²⁰ and 10⁸
    2. B2¹⁰⁰⁰⁰⁰⁰ and 10¹²
    3. C2²⁰ and 6 × 10⁹
    4. D2¹⁰⁰⁰⁰⁰⁰ and 6 × 10¹¹

    Answer: (B) 2¹⁰⁰⁰⁰⁰⁰ and 10¹²

    Explanation

    One second is 10⁶ microseconds. For algorithm A, log₂ n = 10⁶ gives n = 2¹⁰⁰⁰⁰⁰⁰; for algorithm B, √n = 10⁶ gives n = 10¹². Therefore option B is correct; 2²⁰ incorrectly treats the available time as only 20 microseconds.

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26. Question 26

    Let G be a directed graph on vertices 1 through 100. There is an edge i → j exactly when j = i + 1 or j = 3i. What is the minimum number of edges in a path from 1 to 100?

    1. A23
    2. B99
    3. C4
    4. D7

    Answer: (D) 7

    Explanation

    Breadth-first search gives the seven-edge path 1 → 3 → 9 → 10 → 11 → 33 → 99 → 100. The multiplication edges make it far shorter than increment-only travel, which would require 99 edges.

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27. Question 27

    Consider L = L₁ ∩ L₂, where L₁ = {0ᵐ1ᵐ20ⁿ1ⁿ | m, n ≥ 0} and L₂ = {0ᵐ1ⁿ2ᵏ | m, n, k ≥ 0}. Then L is

    1. ARecursively enumerable but not context-free
    2. BRegular
    3. CContext-free but not regular
    4. DNot recursive

    Answer: (C) Context-free but not regular

    Explanation

    For a string to be in both languages, the portion after 2 in L₁ must be empty and the number of 1s before 2 must equal the number of 0s. Thus L reduces to {0ᵐ1ᵐ2 | m ≥ 0}, which is context-free but not regular.

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28. Question 28

    Let L₁ and L₂ over Σ = {a, b} be represented by (a* + b)* and (a + b)* respectively. Which statement is true?

    1. AL₁ ⊂ L₂
    2. BL₂ ⊂ L₁
    3. CL₁ = L₂
    4. DL₁ ∩ L₂ = ∅

    Answer: (C) L₁ = L₂

    Explanation

    The inner expression a* + b can generate either any run of a characters or a single b. Repeating it with the outer star generates every string over {a, b}, exactly as (a + b)* does. Therefore L₁ = L₂; neither language excludes a mixed a/b string.

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29. Question 29

    Which statement is true?

    1. AThe union of two context-free languages is context-free.
    2. BThe intersection of two context-free languages is context-free.
    3. CThe complement of a context-free language is context-free.
    4. DEvery context-free language can be accepted by a deterministic pushdown automaton.

    Answer: (A) The union of two context-free languages is context-free.

    Explanation

    Context-free languages are closed under union. They are not closed under intersection or complement, and deterministic PDAs recognise only the smaller class of deterministic context-free languages.

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30. Question 30

    Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

    1. ASyntax trees
    2. BThree-address codes
    3. CQuadruples
    4. DPostfix notation

    Answer: (A) Syntax trees

    Explanation

    Three-address code, quadruples, and postfix notation are linear intermediate-code representations used in translation. A syntax tree is a structural representation of the parsed program rather than an intermediate code sequence.

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31. Question 31

    A code has valid words 0000000000, 0000011111, 1111100000, and 1111111111. If the received word is 0000000111, which word was sent?

    1. A0000011111
    2. B0000000000
    3. C1111100000
    4. D1111111111

    Answer: (A) 0000011111

    Explanation

    Decode by minimum Hamming distance. The received word differs from 0000011111 in two positions but from 0000000000 in three positions; the two words beginning with 11111 are farther away.

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32. Question 32

    Using RSA with p = 3, q = 11, and d = 7, find e and encrypt 19.

    1. A20, 19
    2. B33, 11
    3. C3, 28
    4. D77, 28

    Answer: (C) 3, 28

    Explanation

    Here φ(n) = (3 − 1)(11 − 1) = 20. Since 7e ≡ 1 (mod 20), e = 3; with n = 33, encryption gives 19³ mod 33 = 28. Therefore option C is the only pair that has both the required inverse and ciphertext.

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33. Question 33

    Protocols in which the sender sends one frame and waits for an acknowledgement before sending the next frame are called

    1. ASimplex protocols
    2. BUnrestricted simplex protocols
    3. CSimplex stop-and-wait protocols
    4. DRestricted simplex protocols

    Answer: (C) Simplex stop-and-wait protocols

    Explanation

    Stop-and-wait allows only one outstanding frame, so the sender must wait for its acknowledgement. Sliding-window protocols, unlike stop-and-wait, permit multiple frames in transit.

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34. Question 34

    The period of a signal is 100 ms. What is its frequency in kilohertz?

    1. A10
    2. B10⁷
    3. C10⁻⁷
    4. D10⁻²

    Answer: (D) 10⁻²

    Explanation

    The signal period is 100 ms, and frequency is its reciprocal. Because 100 ms = 0.1 seconds, its frequency is 1/0.1 = 10 Hz. Dividing by 1,000 converts this to 0.01 kHz = 10⁻² kHz; therefore the correct option is D.

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35. Question 35

    The process of removing details from a given state representation is called

    1. AExtraction
    2. BMining
    3. CSelection
    4. DAbstraction

    Answer: (D) Abstraction

    Explanation

    Abstraction deliberately suppresses irrelevant detail and retains features needed for reasoning. It is used to make a state space or problem representation manageable.

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36. Question 36

    Which statement is NOT true of problem solving in artificial intelligence?

    1. AIt implements heuristic search techniques.
    2. BSolution steps are not explicit.
    3. CKnowledge is imprecise.
    4. DIt works on or implements a repetition mechanism.

    Answer: (D) It works on or implements a repetition mechanism.

    Explanation

    AI problem-solving systems commonly use heuristic search and may handle incomplete or imprecise knowledge. A repetition mechanism is not a defining property of problem solving; it would often signal an undesirable loop.

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37. Question 37

    If f(x) means “x is my friend” and p(x) means “x is perfect”, translate: “Some of my friends are not perfect.”

    1. A∀x (f(x) ∧ ¬p(x))
    2. B∃x (f(x) ∧ ¬p(x))
    3. C∀x (f(x) ∧ p(x))
    4. D∃x (¬f(x) ∧ ¬p(x))

    Answer: (B) ∃x (f(x) ∧ ¬p(x))

    Explanation

    “Some” requires an existential quantifier, and “not perfect” is ¬p(x). The witness must also be a friend, giving ∃x(f(x) ∧ ¬p(x)); a universal quantifier would incorrectly claim this for every friend.

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38. Question 38

    What kind of clauses occur in conjunctive normal form?

    1. ADisjunctions of literals
    2. BDisjunctions of variables
    3. CConjunctions of literals
    4. DConjunctions of variables

    Answer: (A) Disjunctions of literals

    Explanation

    CNF is a conjunction of clauses, and each clause is a disjunction of literals. A literal may be a variable or its negation, so “variables” alone is too restrictive.

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39. Question 39

    On A = {a,b,c,d,e,f,g}, R = {(a,a),(b,b),(c,d),(c,g),(d,g),(e,e),(f,f),(g,g)}. Which listed property is satisfied: reflexive, antisymmetric, symmetric?

    1. AOnly reflexive
    2. BOnly symmetric
    3. CBoth reflexive and antisymmetric
    4. DAntisymmetric but not reflexive

    Answer: (D) Antisymmetric but not reflexive

    Explanation

    R is not reflexive because (c,c) and (d,d) are absent. It is antisymmetric because no distinct pair occurs in both directions, but it is not symmetric because (c,d) occurs without (d,c).

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40. Question 40

    For the premise ∀x(P(x) ∨ Q(x)), an argument tries to conclude (∀xP(x)) ∧ (∀xQ(x)) by instantiating P(c) ∨ Q(c) and then simplifying to P(c) and Q(c). Which assessment is correct?

    1. AThe argument is valid.
    2. BSteps deriving P(c) and Q(c) are not correct inferences.
    3. CThe universal-generalisation steps are not correct.
    4. DThe final conjunction is not correct.

    Answer: (B) Steps deriving P(c) and Q(c) are not correct inferences.

    Explanation

    From a disjunction P(c) ∨ Q(c), one cannot infer either disjunct by simplification. Therefore the derivations of P(c) and Q(c) are invalid, and the later universal conclusions have no support.

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41. Question 41

    Which of the following are applications of a compiler symbol table?
    A. Storage allocation
    B. Checking type compatibility
    C. Suppressing duplicate-error messages

    1. A(A) and (B) only
    2. B(A) and (C) only
    3. C(B) and (C) only
    4. D(A), (B), and (C)

    Answer: (D) (A), (B), and (C)

    Explanation

    A symbol table records identifiers and their attributes. Compilers consult it for storage allocation and type checking, and it also lets them recognise a repeated declaration so duplicate diagnostics are controlled. Thus all three listed uses apply.

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42. Question 42

    Which simplified expressions represent F(A,B,C,D) = Σ(0,1,2,3,6,12,13,14,15)?
    A. A′B′ + AB + A′C′D′
    B. A′B′ + AB + A′CD′
    C. A′B′ + AB + BC′D′
    D. A′B′ + AB + BCD′

    1. A(A) only
    2. B(B) only
    3. C(A) and (B) only
    4. D(B) and (D) only

    Answer: (D) (B) and (D) only

    Explanation

    A′B′ covers minterms 0–3 and AB covers 12–15. Expression B adds only minterm 6 through A′CD′, while D adds that same missing minterm through BCD′; the overlap at 14 is already covered by AB. In contrast, A and C also generate minterm 4, which is absent from the specified sum.

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43. Question 43

    For a k-segment pipeline, which statements are true?
    A. The theoretical maximum speed-up is k.
    B. A finite k-segment pipeline cannot attain that maximum exactly.
    C. All pipeline segments always take the same computation time.

    1. A(A) and (B) only
    2. B(B) and (C) only
    3. C(A) and (C) only
    4. D(A), (B), and (C)

    Answer: (A) (A) and (B) only

    Explanation

    With balanced stages and a long stream, speed-up approaches k, but fill and drain overhead prevent a finite workload from reaching it exactly. Equal stage times are an ideal design goal, not a universal property.

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44. Question 44

    Which statements about a multiprocessor system are true?
    A. It is controlled by one operating system.
    B. It consists of multiple computers connected by communication lines.
    C. It is classified as an MIMD system.

    1. A(A) only
    2. B(A) and (B) only
    3. C(A) and (C) only
    4. D(B) and (C) only

    Answer: (C) (A) and (C) only

    Explanation

    A multiprocessor is a tightly coupled system managed by one OS and normally follows the MIMD model. Statement B instead describes a distributed system of separate computers.

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45. Question 45

    Which statements regarding XML are true?
    A. XML is a set of tags designed to tell browsers how to display a web page.
    B. XML defines syntax for representing data, while the data meaning depends on the application.
    C. <Letter>, <LETTER>, and <letter> are different XML tags.

    1. A(A) and (B) only
    2. B(A) and (C) only
    3. C(B) and (C) only
    4. D(A), (B), and (C)

    Answer: (C) (B) and (C) only

    Explanation

    XML describes and transports structured data; it is not a display-language such as HTML. XML names are case-sensitive, so B and C are true.

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46. Question 46

    In 3D computer graphics, which statements are correct?
    A. Under perspective projection, parallel lines generally do not remain parallel, except lines parallel to the view plane.
    B. The perspective step uses a division by the depth coordinate after homogeneous transformation.
    C. Perspective transformation is linear.

    1. A(A) and (B) only
    2. B(A) and (C) only
    3. C(B) and (C) only
    4. D(A), (B), and (C)

    Answer: (A) (A) and (B) only

    Explanation

    Perspective makes parallel lines converge unless they are parallel to the image plane, and the perspective divide introduces the depth dependence. Because of that division, the resulting mapping is not linear.

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47. Question 47

    For Gouraud and Phong shading, which statements are true?
    A. Gouraud shading requires more computation than Phong shading.
    B. Gouraud shading interpolates vertex colours across a polygon.
    C. Phong shading interpolates vertex normals across a polygon.

    1. A(A) and (B) only
    2. B(A) and (C) only
    3. C(B) and (C) only
    4. D(A), (B), and (C)

    Answer: (C) (B) and (C) only

    Explanation

    Gouraud shading interpolates precomputed colours. Phong shading interpolates normals and evaluates lighting per pixel, so it is normally more computationally expensive; B and C are true.

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48. Question 48

    Two operations from a schedule conflict when
    A. at least one operation is a write,
    B. both access the same data item, and
    C. they belong to different transactions.

    1. A(A) and (B) only
    2. B(A), (B), and (C) only
    3. C(A), (C), and (D) only
    4. D(C) and (D) only

    Answer: (B) (A), (B), and (C) only

    Explanation

    Conflicting operations are operations of different transactions on the same item where at least one writes. Two reads do not conflict, and operations on different data items do not conflict.

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49. Question 49

    Software reliability may be described with respect to
    A. execution time,
    B. calendar time, and
    C. clock time.

    1. A(A) and (B) only
    2. B(B) and (C) only
    3. C(A), (B), and (C)
    4. D(A) and (C) only

    Answer: (C) (A), (B), and (C)

    Explanation

    Reliability growth and failure intensity can be modelled against CPU/execution time, elapsed calendar time, or operational clock time. The appropriate time base depends on the system and measurement model.

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50. Question 50

    To create an object-behavioural model, an analyst
    A. evaluates use cases,
    B. builds a state-transition diagram,
    C. reviews the model for accuracy and consistency, and
    D. identifies events that do not drive an interaction sequence.

    1. A(A), (B), and (C) only
    2. B(A), (B), and (D) only
    3. C(B), (C), and (D) only
    4. D(A), (C), and (D) only

    Answer: (A) (A), (B), and (C) only

    Explanation

    Use cases reveal the events and object responses, then state transitions model behaviour and the result is reviewed. Events that do not drive an interaction sequence are not part of that normal modelling step.

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51. Question 51

    Which are behavioural (black-box) testing techniques?
    A. Equivalence partitioning
    B. Graph-based testing
    C. Boundary-value analysis
    D. Data-flow testing
    E. Loop testing

    1. A(B) and (D) only
    2. B(A), (B), and (C) only
    3. C(D) and (E) only
    4. D(A), (C), and (E) only

    Answer: (B) (A), (B), and (C) only

    Explanation

    Equivalence classes, boundary values, and graph-based tests derive tests from externally visible requirements or behaviour. Data-flow and loop testing require knowledge of program structure and are white-box techniques.

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52. Question 52

    The running time of an algorithm is O(g(n)) if and only if

    1. Aits worst-case running time is O(g(n)) and its best-case running time is Ω(g(n)).
    2. Bits worst-case running time is Ω(g(n)) and its best-case running time is O(g(n)).
    3. CO(g(n)) = Ω(g(n)).
    4. DO(g(n)) ∩ ω(g(n)) is non-empty.

    Answer: (A) its worst-case running time is O(g(n)) and its best-case running time is Ω(g(n)).

    Explanation

    An algorithm is O(g(n)) when its worst-case running time has an asymptotic upper bound g(n). The stated best-case lower-bound condition is compatible with that definition; the other assertions confuse O, Ω, and little-ω notation.

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53. Question 53

    Which statements are incorrect?
    A. Every tree is 2-colourable.
    B. A bipartite graph has no even-length cycles.
    C. A graph is 2-colourable if it is bipartite.
    D. A graph of maximum degree d can be coloured with d + 1 colours.
    E. A graph with O(|V|) edges can be coloured with O(log |V|) colours.

    1. A(C) and (E)
    2. B(B) and (C)
    3. C(B) and (E)
    4. D(A) and (D)

    Answer: (C) (B) and (E)

    Explanation

    Trees are bipartite, and bipartite is equivalent to 2-colourable. A bipartite graph forbids odd cycles, not even ones. Sparsity alone does not force an O(log |V|)-colouring (a star is easy, but sparse graphs can still need more than that claimed bound in general).

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54. Question 54

    Which statements about hash functions are true?
    A. A hash function maps an arbitrary-length message to a fixed-length code.
    B. It maps a fixed-length message to a variable-length code.
    C. Distinct messages can have the same hash value.

    1. A(A) only
    2. B(B) and (C) only
    3. C(A) and (C) only
    4. D(B) only

    Answer: (C) (A) and (C) only

    Explanation

    A fixed-size digest is produced from inputs of arbitrary size. Since the input space is much larger than the digest space, collisions—different inputs with the same digest—are possible.

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55. Question 55

    Let G₁ and G₂ be arbitrary context-free grammars and R an arbitrary regular language. Which problems are undecidable?
    A. Is L(G₁) = L(G₂)?
    B. Is L(G₁) ⊂ L(G₂)?
    C. Is L(G₁) = R?

    1. A(A) only
    2. B(B) only
    3. C(A) and (B) only
    4. D(A), (B), and (C)

    Answer: (D) (A), (B), and (C)

    Explanation

    Equivalence and proper inclusion for arbitrary context-free languages are undecidable. Equality with a regular language is also undecidable: choosing R = Σ* would decide the undecidable universality problem for context-free grammars.

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56. Question 56

    Consider the languages

    L₁ = {aᶻ | z is an integer},
    L₂ = {a²ᶻ | z > 0}, and
    L₃ = {ww | w ∈ {a,b}*}.

    Which are regular?

    1. AL₁ and L₂ only
    2. BL₁ and L₃ only
    3. CL₂ only
    4. DL₃ only

    Answer: (A) L₁ and L₂ only

    Explanation

    The first two languages are unary languages described by simple length patterns and are regular. The copy language {ww} requires matching an arbitrary string with itself, which is not regular.

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57. Question 57

    Which grammars are ambiguous?
    A. S → SS | aSb | bSa | a
    B. S → aSbS | bSaS | ε
    C. S → aAB; A → bBb; B → A | ε

    1. A(A) and (C) only
    2. B(A) and (B) only
    3. C(B) and (C) only
    4. D(A), (B), and (C)

    Answer: (D) (A), (B), and (C)

    Explanation

    Ambiguity means that one terminal string can have two different parse trees. The recursive alternatives in each listed grammar allow the same terminal sequence to be decomposed in more than one way; this is precisely why all three grammars are classified as ambiguous. A grammar need not have visibly identical productions to be ambiguous.

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58. Question 58

    Which cloud concept is related to pooling and sharing resources?
    A. Virtual memory
    B. Service
    C. Virtualization

    1. A(C) only
    2. B(A) and (B) only
    3. C(A) only
    4. D(B) only

    Answer: (A) (C) only

    Explanation

    Virtualization abstracts physical resources so they can be pooled and allocated to multiple users or services. Virtual memory and “service” are not the resource-pooling mechanism intended here.

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59. Question 59

    For Post Office Protocol (POP), which statements are true?
    A. POP has delete and keep modes.
    B. In delete mode, mail is deleted from the mailbox after retrieval.
    C. In delete mode, mail is deleted before retrieval.
    D. In keep mode, mail is deleted before retrieval.
    E. In keep mode, mail remains in the mailbox after retrieval.

    1. A(A) and (B) only
    2. B(A), (D), and (E) only
    3. C(A), (B), (C), and (D) only
    4. D(A), (B), and (E) only

    Answer: (D) (A), (B), and (E) only

    Explanation

    POP can either retain server copies or delete them after successful retrieval. Thus A, B, and E are true; deletion before a client retrieves a message would defeat the protocol.

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60. Question 60

    A firewall can filter packets using which fields?
    A. Source IP address
    B. Destination IP address
    C. TCP source port
    D. UDP source port
    E. TCP destination port

    1. A(A), (B), and (C) only
    2. B(B) and (E) only
    3. C(A), (C), and (D) only
    4. D(A), (B), (C), (D), and (E)

    Answer: (D) (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E)

    Explanation

    Packet filters can inspect network-layer source and destination addresses and transport-layer source and destination ports for TCP or UDP. Every listed field is therefore usable in a firewall rule.

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61. Question 61

    A radical person is electable if the person is conservative, and otherwise is not electable. Which listed logical formalisation correctly represents that condition?

    1. AOCR review required
    2. BOCR review required
    3. C(A) and (C) only (4) (B) and (D) only
    4. DOCR review required

    Answer: (C) (A) and (C) only (4) (B) and (D) only

    Explanation

    The intended proposition says that, for a radical person, electability holds exactly when conservatism holds. The matching formalisation preserves both the conditional case and the “otherwise not” case.

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62. Question 62

    Which of the following statements are true?
    A. Asentence a entails another sentence f if 8 is true in few worlds where @ is true.
    B. Forward chaining and backward chaining are very natural reasoning algorithms for
    knowledge bases in Horn form.
    C. Sound inference algorithms derive all sentences that are entailed.
    D. Propositional logic does not scale to environments of unbounded size.

    1. AOCR review required
    2. BOCR review required
    3. C(C) and (D) only (4) (B) and (D) only
    4. DOCR review required

    Answer: (D) OCR review required

    Explanation

    Entailment requires truth in every model where the premise is true, not merely some models. Horn-clause chaining is natural, and propositional logic does not scale to unbounded domains; hence B and D are true.

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63. Question 63

    Which of the following statements are true?
    A. Minimax search is breadth-first; it processes all the nodes at a level before moving to
    a node in next level.
    B. The effectiveness of the alpha-beta pruning is highly dependent on the order in which
    the states are examined.
    C. The alpha-beta search algorithm computes the same optimal moves as minimax
    algorithm.
    D. Optimal play in games of imperfact information does not require reasoning about the
    current and future belief states of each player.

    1. AOCR review required
    2. BOCR review required
    3. C(B) and (C) only (4) (C) and (D) only
    4. DOCR review required

    Answer: (C) (B) and (C) only (4) (C) and (D) only

    Explanation

    Minimax is normally depth-first rather than breadth-first. Alpha-beta pruning depends strongly on move ordering and returns the same optimal move as minimax; imperfect-information games require reasoning about belief states.

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64. Question 64

    Match List I with List II

    Let R, = {(1,1), (2,2), (3,3)} and R2 = {(1,1), (1,2), (1,3), (1,4)}

    List I List IT
    A. R, UR: @ = {(1,1),.2).(1.3),2.4).(2.2).(3,3)}
    B. Ry —R, aq) {aD}
    C. RiARz MM) {(1.2),(2.3).(1.4}}
    @) R:-R; QV) {(2.2),(8,3)}

    List I	List II
    Items are listed in the question stem.	Match each item to its stated description or complexity.

    1. AALT. B-Il. C-IV. D-III (2) AI, B-IV, C-II, D-II
    2. BOCR review required
    3. CALI, B-II, C-I, D-IV (4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-IIT
    4. DOCR review required

    Answer: (A) ALT. B-Il. C-IV. D-III (2) AI, B-IV, C-II, D-II

    Explanation

    Compute union, difference, intersection, and composition directly from the listed ordered pairs; only option A matches all four resulting relations.

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65. Question 65

    Match List I with List II

    List I
    A. Handshaking
    B. Programmed I/O
    C. Interrupt-initiated I/O
    D. WO processor

    List IL

    V/O interface informs the CPU that
    device is ready for transfer

    requires two control signals working in
    opposite directions

    has local memory & control large set of
    I/O devices.

    require CPU to check the I/O flag &
    perform transfer

    List I	List II
    Items are listed in the question stem.	Match each item to its stated description or complexity.

    1. AOCR review required
    2. BOCR review required
    3. CA-II, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    4. DOCR review required

    Answer: (C) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    Handshaking uses opposite-direction control signals; programmed I/O polls the device flag; interrupt-driven I/O lets the interface notify the CPU; an I/O processor has local control and memory for many devices.

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66. Question 66

    Match List-I with List-II. List I gives 3x3 matrices representing 2D transformations and
    List-II shows the corresponding transformation diagrams.

    List I (Matrix) List II (Transformation Diagram)
    2 00
    A. |0 2 0
    001 MO ,
    Shear — x (2).a

    List I	List II
    Items are listed in the question stem.	Match each item to its stated description or complexity.

    1. A0 2
       (B) jo 1 2 seale (2, 2).a
       00 1L
       (788)
       a
       05 —0.866 0
       (C) |0.866 0.5 0
       0 0 1 rotate(60°).
       (II)
       a
       120
       @) jo 1 0 a
       001 (Iv) translate (2, 2).a Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
       165. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (2) A-IV. B-II, C-II, D-I
    2. BOCR review required
    3. CA-II, B-II, C-IV, D-I (4) A-II, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    4. DOCR review required

    Answer: (D) OCR review required

    Explanation

    Read each homogeneous matrix: diagonal 2s give scaling, the translation entries give translation, the sine/cosine block gives rotation, and the off-diagonal term gives x-shear. This produces the mapping in option D.

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67. Question 67

    Match List I with List IT.

    List I (E-R symbols) List II (Description)
    A. () Key Attribute Type

    1. — 33 (I) Weak Entity Type

    << > (II) Total Participation of Entity in a
    C. relation

    ) <> E, (IV) Multivalue Attribute type

    List I	List II
    Items are listed in the question stem.	Match each item to its stated description or complexity.

    1. AOCR review required
    2. BA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    3. CA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    4. DA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Answer: (C) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Explanation

    The standard E–R notation distinguishes key, weak entity, total participation, and multivalued attributes by their respectively marked symbols; option C gives that correspondence.

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68. Question 68

    Match List I with List IT

    With reference to CMM developed by Software Engineering Institute (SEI)

    List I List IT
    A. INITIAL () Process measurement
    B. REPEATABLE (Il) Process definition
    C. DEFINED (ID Project management
    D. MANAGED (Iv) ADHOC

    List I	List II
    Items are listed in the question stem.	Match each item to its stated description or complexity.

    1. AAIT, B-IV, C-II. D-I
    2. BA-IV, B-IIl. C-I, D-II
    3. CA-IV, B-III, C-IL, D-I
    4. DALIII, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Answer: (C) A-IV, B-III, C-IL, D-I

    Explanation

    CMM progresses from ad-hoc initial practice to repeatable project management, defined processes, and measured/managed processes. Option C matches those maturity descriptions.

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69. Question 69

    Match List I with List II
    List I
    A. Branch-and-bound
    B. (©)
    D. Steepest-accent hill climbing

    Constraint satisfaction

    Means-end-analysis

    @)

    aD

    (ly
    Statement IV: List IT

    Keeps track of all partial paths which
    can be candidate for further
    exploration.

    Detects difference between current
    state and goal state

    Discovers problem state(s) that satisfy
    a set of constraints.

    Considers all moves from current state
    and selects best move

    List I	List II
    Items are listed in the question stem.	Match each item to its stated description or complexity.

    1. AOCR review required
    2. BOCR review required
    3. COCR review required
    4. DOCR review required

    Answer: (A) OCR review required

    Explanation

    Branch-and-bound retains candidate partial paths; steepest-ascent chooses the best neighbouring move; constraint satisfaction finds states satisfying constraints; means–ends analysis reduces differences from the goal.

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70. Question 70

    Match List I with List IT
    A. B. C. D. List I
    Topological sort of DAG
    Kruskal's MST algorithm
    Bellman-Ford's single-source shortest
    path algorithm
    Floyd-Warshall's all-pair shortest
    path algorithm

    List II
    @M owv+e)
    (d) O(VvE)
    dl) av +B)

    av) av?)

    List I	List II
    Items are listed in the question stem.	Match each item to its stated description or complexity.

    1. AOCR review required
    2. BOCR review required
    3. COCR review required
    4. DALI, B-III, C-IV, D-II
       ALI, B-I, C-IV, D-II
       A-IT, B-I, C-II, D-IV
       A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

    Answer: (A) OCR review required

    Explanation

    Topological sorting visits vertices and edges once, O(V+E). Kruskal sorts/selects edges in O(E log V), Bellman–Ford relaxes every edge for up to V−1 passes, O(VE), and Floyd–Warshall considers every ordered triple of vertices, O(V³). Option A is the only mapping that matches all four costs.

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71. Question 71

    Match List I with List II:
    Lz: Regular language. LCF: Context free language

    Lec: Recursive language, Lpz: Recursively enumerable language.

    List I List II
    A. Recursively Enumerable language @ LpecULnx
    B. Recursive language CQ). ‘Fee Base
    C. Context Free language (II) Le A Ler

    List I	List II
    Items are listed in the question stem.	Match each item to its stated description or complexity.

    1. AOCR review required
    2. BOCR review required
    3. CALI, B-II, C-II (4) A-II, B-I, C-III
    4. DOCR review required

    Answer: (C) ALI, B-II, C-II (4) A-II, B-I, C-III

    Explanation

    Use the containment chain Regular ⊂ Context-free ⊂ Recursive ⊂ Recursively enumerable. The set expressions in option C are the only ones consistent with these inclusions.

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72. Question 72

    Match List I with List II
    List I List II
    A. Serial Line IP (SLIP) (Application layer
    B. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) (I Transport layer
    C. User Data Protocol (UDP) (I) Data Link layer
    D. Simple Network Management (IV) Network layer
    Protocol

    List I	List II
    Items are listed in the question stem.	Match each item to its stated description or complexity.

    1. AOCR review required
    2. BOCR review required
    3. CA-II, B-ITT, C-IV, D-I (4) A-III. B-I, C-IV, D-II
    4. DOCR review required

    Answer: (B) OCR review required

    Explanation

    SLIP operates at the data-link layer, BGP at the network layer, UDP at the transport layer, and SNMP at the application layer; option B is the correct matching.

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73. Question 73

    Match List I with List II
    List I List II
    A. Greedy Best-First Search () Space complexity is O(d) where
    d=depth of the deepest optimal
    solution
    B. A* (I) Incomplete even if the search space is
    finite.
    C. Recursive Best-First Search (I) Optimal if optimal solution is
    reachable; otherwise, returns the best
    reachable optimal solution.
    D. SMA* (IV) Computation and space complexity is
    too high.

    List I	List II
    Items are listed in the question stem.	Match each item to its stated description or complexity.

    1. AOCR review required
    2. BOCR review required
    3. CA-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (4) A-III. B-IV. C-II, D-I
    4. DOCR review required

    Answer: (A) OCR review required

    Explanation

    Greedy best-first search can be incomplete, A* can have prohibitive time and space costs, recursive best-first search uses linear-depth space, and SMA* returns the best reachable solution when memory is limited.

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74. Question 74

    Find the lexicographic ordering of the bit strings given below based on the ordering 0 < 1.
    A. 001
    B. 010
    (Cc) O11
    D. 0001
    E. 0101

    1. A001 < 010 < 011 < 0001 < 0101 (2) 0001 <001 < 010 < 0101 < 011
    2. BOCR review required
    3. C0001 < 0101 < 001 < 010 < 011 (4) 001 < 010 < 0001 < 0101 < 011
    4. DOCR review required

    Answer: (B) OCR review required

    Explanation

    Lexicographic comparison examines the first differing bit; a shorter string precedes its extension when all of its bits match. The order is 0001 < 001 < 010 < 0101 < 011.

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75. Question 75

    Arrange the following types of machine in descending order of complexity.
    A. SISD
    B. MIMD
    C. SIMD

    1. AOCR review required
    2. BOCR review required
    3. CB,C,A 4 CAB
    4. DOCR review required

    Answer: (C) B,C,A 4 CAB

    Explanation

    In Flynn’s taxonomy, MIMD is the most general and complex of the listed architectures, followed by SIMD and then SISD. Hence the descending order is B, C, A.

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76. Question 76

    Given below are different properties of 3D projections from A-D. Identify the correct order on
    the basis of property true of (i) a perspective projection only, (ii) an orthographic projection
    only, (iii) both orthographic and projective transformations and (iv) neither orthographic nor
    projective transformation, respectively.
    A. B. C. D. Straight lines are mapped to straight lines.
    Distances and angles are (in general) preserved.
    Far away objects appear the same size as closer ones.

    Requires homogeneous coordinates in order for it to be encoded into a linear
    transformation.

    1. AOCR review required
    2. BOCR review required
    3. CD, C. B.A (2) B,C,D.A
       D,C, A,B (4) C,D,BA
    4. DOCR review required

    Answer: (C) D, C. B.A (2) B,C,D.A
    D,C, A,B (4) C,D,BA

    Explanation

    Perspective alone makes distant objects appear smaller; orthographic projection preserves parallel scale but not general distances and angles; both map lines to lines; homogeneous coordinates encode perspective in the pipeline.

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77. Question 77

    Arrange the following types of Cohesion from best to worst type.
    A. B. C. D. E. Logical Cohesion
    Sequential Cohesion
    Communication Cohesion
    Temporal Cohesion

    Procedural Cohesion

    1. AOCR review required
    2. BOCR review required
    3. COCR review required
    4. DOCR review required

    Answer: (D) OCR review required

    Explanation

    Among the listed cohesion types, sequential is strongest, followed by communicational, procedural, temporal, and logical cohesion. The option with that best-to-worst sequence is D.

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78. Question 78

    Consider the undirected graph below:

    Using Prim's algorithm to construct a minimum spanning tree starting with node a. which
    one of the following sequences of edges represents a possible order in which the edges would
    be added to construct the minimum spanning tree?

    () (a.b). (a.h). (g.h). (fg). (c.f). (c.i), (¢.d). (de)

    1. AOCR review required
    2. B(a.b, (bh). (g-h). (g.i). (c.i). (c.f). (c.d), (d.e)
    3. C(a,b). (b.c). (c.i). (c.f). (fg). (gh). (c.d). (d.e)
    4. D(a.b). (g.h). (g.f). (c.f). (c.i). (fe). (b.0). (de)

    Answer: (A) OCR review required

    Explanation

    Starting at a, Prim’s algorithm can add a–b, a–h, h–g, g–f, f–c, c–i, c–d, and d–e. Each edge is the lightest crossing edge at that point, so option A is feasible.

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79. Question 79

    Consider the following regular expressions:
    (a) r=a(b+a)*

    (b) s=a(a+b)*

    (c) t=aa*b

    1. AOCR review required
    2. BOCR review required
    3. CL(r)DL(t)D L(s) (4) L(s)aL(t)DL(r)
    4. DOCR review required

    Answer: (B) OCR review required

    Explanation

    Compare the strings generated by the three expressions directly. The relation stated in option B is the one that preserves the required containments between the languages.

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80. Question 80

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: 5 divides n5 — n whenever n is a nonnegative integer.
    Statement II: 6 divides n? — n whenever n is a nonnegative integer.
    In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

    Explanation

    Fermat’s little theorem gives n⁵ ≡ n (mod 5). Also n³ − n is the product of three consecutive integers, so it is divisible by 6; both statements are true.

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81. Question 81

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Hardwired control unit can be optimized to produce fast mode of operation.
    Statement II: Indirect addressing mode needs two memory reference to fetch the operand.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
    (i) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

    1. AOCR review required
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

    Answer: (A) OCR review required

    Explanation

    Hardwired control uses fixed logic and can be optimised for speed. With indirect addressing, the instruction supplies an address whose memory contents provide the effective operand address, requiring an additional memory reference.

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82. Question 82

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Bezier curves are curves that interpolate all of their control points.
    Statement II: A cubic bezier curve has four control points.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

    Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

    Explanation

    Bezier curves generally approximate rather than interpolate their interior control points; only the endpoints are interpolated. A cubic Bezier curve has four control points, so only statement II is true.

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83. Question 83

    Given below are two statements:
    If two variables V, and V; are used for clustering, then consider the following statements for
    k means clustering with k = 3:-
    Statement I: If V, and V2 have correlation of 1 the cluster centroid will be in straight line.
    Statement II: IfV, and V2 have correlation of 0 the cluster centroid will be in straight line.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
    ce) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

    1. AOCR review required
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement IT is false
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement IT is true.

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement IT is false

    Explanation

    Perfect correlation places the data and therefore the k-means centroids along one straight-line relation. Zero correlation does not imply such collinearity, so statement I alone is true.

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84. Question 84

    Assuming that the system call fork () never fails, consider the following C programs P1 and
    P2 executed on a UNIX / Linux system:

    /*P1+] j= P2+]
    int main () { int main () {
    fork (): fork ():
    fork (): printf("Happy\n"):
    fork (): fork()
    printf("Happy\n"): printf("Happy\n"):
    } fork( ):
    printf("Happy\n");
    }

    Statement I: P1 displays "Happy" 8 times.

    Statement II: P2 displays "Happy" 12 times.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

    Explanation

    P1 has three successive forks, creating 2³ = 8 processes, each printing once. In P2, prints occur after the first, second, and third forks, producing 2 + 4 + 8 = 14 prints, not 12; therefore only statement I is true.

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85. Question 85

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Quality control involves the series of inspections. reviews and tests used

    throughout the software process, to ensure each work product meets the
    requirements placed upon it.

    Statement II: Quality assurance consists of auditing and reporting functions of

    management.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

    qd)

    1. AOCR review required
    2. BOCR review required
    3. COCR review required
    4. DOCR review required

    Answer: (A) OCR review required

    Explanation

    Quality control is the product-focused inspection, review, and testing activity. Quality assurance is the management-facing audit and reporting function that ensures the process is being followed; both statements are true.

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86. Question 86

    Let G be a simple undirected graph, Tp be a DFS tree on G. and T, be the BFS tree on G,
    Consider the following statements.

    Statement I: No edge of Gis a cross with respect to Tp

    Statement II: For every edge (u,v) of G. if u is at depth i and v is at depth jin T; then
    li-—jl=1.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

    Explanation

    An undirected graph has no DFS cross edges: each non-tree edge connects an ancestor and descendant. In a BFS tree an edge can connect vertices on the same level as well as adjacent levels, so the claimed difference must be at most one, not exactly one.

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87. Question 87

    Given below are two statements:
    Statement I: The problem "Is L; AL; = $?" is undecidable for context sensitive languages
    L, and L3.
    Statement II: The problem "Is WeL?" is decidable for context sensitive language L, (where
    W isa string).
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
    qd) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

    1. AOCR review required
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

    Answer: (A) OCR review required

    Explanation

    Emptiness of the intersection of arbitrary context-sensitive languages is undecidable, while membership for a context-sensitive language is decidable because a linear-bounded automaton has a finite bounded configuration space for a fixed input.

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88. Question 88

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I:

    Statement II:

    The laws of nature put two fundamental limits on data rate of a channel. The
    H.Nyquist limit restricts the number of independent samples per second to
    twice the band-width in a Noiseless channel.

    Shannon's major result about noised channel is that maximum data rate of a
    channel whose band width is H Hz, and whose signal-to-noise ratio is S/N is
    given by:

    Maximum number of bits/sec = H log2(1 + =)

    In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

    Explanation

    Nyquist limits a noiseless H-Hz channel to 2H independent samples per second. Shannon’s capacity formula is H log₂(1 + S/N), so both statements are true.

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89. Question 89

    Given below are two statements:
    Statement I: In Ceasar Cipher each letter of Plain text is replaced by another letter for
    encryption.
    Statement II: Diffie-Hellman algorithm is used for exchange of secret key.
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
    (dd) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

    1. AOCR review required
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement IT is false
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

    Answer: (A) OCR review required

    Explanation

    A Caesar cipher substitutes each plaintext letter by a shifted letter. Diffie–Hellman establishes a shared secret over an insecure channel, so both statements are true.

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90. Question 90

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: A genetic algorithm is a stochastic hill-climbing search in which a large

    population of states is maintained.

    Statement II: In nondeterministic environments. agents can apply AND-OR search to

    generate contingent plans that reach the goal regardless of which outcomes
    occur during execution.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below

    qa)

    1. AOCR review required
    2. BOCR review required
    3. COCR review required
    4. DOCR review required

    Answer: (A) OCR review required

    Explanation

    A genetic algorithm keeps a population and uses stochastic selection and variation. AND–OR search represents an agent’s alternatives and uncertain outcomes, enabling a contingent plan that succeeds for every considered outcome.

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91. Question 91

    A disk has the parameters shown in the table. If T is the capacity of one track and S is the capacity of one surface, what is (T,S)?

    Disk parameter	Value
    Sector size	512 bytes
    Tracks per surface	2,000
    Sectors per track	50
    Platters	5 double-sided
    Average seek time	10 ms

    1. A(50 K, 50,000 K)
    2. B(25 K, 25,000 K)
    3. C(25 K, 50,000 K)
    4. D(40 K, 36,000 K)

    Answer: (C) (25 K, 50,000 K)

    Explanation

    A track holds 50 × 512 = 25,600 bytes, recorded as 25 K in the choices. A surface has 2,000 tracks, giving 2,000 × 25 K = 50,000 K. The 25,000 K option misses the factor from the number of tracks, while 50 K is only the sector-scale figure.

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92. Question 92

    Using the disk parameters shown in the table, what is the disk capacity?

    Disk parameter	Value
    Sector size	512 bytes
    Tracks per surface	2,000
    Sectors per track	50
    Platters	5 double-sided
    Average seek time	10 ms

    1. A25,000 K
    2. B500,000 K
    3. C250,000 K
    4. D50,000 K

    Answer: (B) 500,000 K

    Explanation

    Five double-sided platters supply ten recording surfaces. Each surface is 50,000 K, so the whole disk holds 10 × 50,000 K = 500,000 K. The other choices account for only one surface, one platter, or an incorrect partial total.

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93. Question 93

    Using the disk parameters shown in the table, assess the statements.

    Statement I: The disk has 2,000 cylinders.
    Statement II: 51,200 bytes is not a valid block size for this disk.

    Disk parameter	Value
    Sector size	512 bytes
    Tracks per surface	2,000
    Sectors per track	50
    Platters	5 double-sided
    Average seek time	10 ms

    1. ABoth statements are true.
    2. BBoth statements are false.
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false.
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true.

    Answer: (A) Both statements are true.

    Explanation

    A cylinder contains one track on every surface at the same radius, so the number of cylinders equals the 2,000 tracks per surface. A block is normally an integral number of sectors with the relevant disk block constraints; 51,200 bytes is not a valid block size in this setup.

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94. Question 94

    If the disk rotates at 5,400 rpm, approximately what is the maximum rotational delay?

    Disk parameter	Value
    Sector size	512 bytes
    Tracks per surface	2,000
    Sectors per track	50
    Platters	5 double-sided
    Average seek time	10 ms

    1. A0.011 seconds
    2. B0.11 seconds
    3. C0.0011 seconds
    4. D1.1 seconds

    Answer: (A) 0.011 seconds

    Explanation

    At 5,400 rpm, one revolution takes 60/5,400 ≈ 0.0111 seconds. The maximum rotational delay is one full revolution, so 0.011 seconds is the closest choice.

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95. Question 95

    If one track can be transferred per revolution, what is the data-transfer rate for the disk in the table rotating at 5,400 rpm?

    Disk parameter	Value
    Sector size	512 bytes
    Tracks per surface	2,000
    Sectors per track	50
    Platters	5 double-sided
    Average seek time	10 ms

    1. A2,850 KBytes/second
    2. B4,500 KBytes/second
    3. C5,700 KBytes/second
    4. D2,250 KBytes/second

    Answer: (D) 2,250 KBytes/second

    Explanation

    One track contains 50 sectors × 512 bytes = 25,600 bytes. At 5,400 rpm, the disk makes 90 revolutions each second, so one-track-per-revolution transfer gives 25,600 × 90 = 2,304,000 bytes/s, approximately 2,250 KBytes/s. The larger alternatives incorrectly use a different track capacity or rotation rate.

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96. Question 96

    Using the university table structures, which query returns distinct employee IDs of employees working on projects 20, 30, or 40?

    1. ASELECT EMPID FROM PROJECTWORK WHERE PROJNO = (20,30,40);
    2. BSELECT EMPID FROM PROJECTWORK WHERE PROJNO IN (20,30,40);
    3. CSELECT DISTINCT EMPID FROM PROJECTWORK WHERE PROJNO IN (20,30,40);
    4. DSELECT DISTINCT EMPID FROM PROJECTWORK WHERE PROJNO = 20,30,40;

    Answer: (C) SELECT DISTINCT EMPID FROM PROJECTWORK WHERE PROJNO IN (20,30,40);

    Explanation

    IN tests membership in a set of values, and DISTINCT removes duplicate employee IDs when an employee works on more than one listed project. Equality cannot be used with a comma-separated list.

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97. Question 97

    Which statement correctly computes SUM, MAX, MIN, and AVG salaries for the English department?

    Statement I joins EMPLOYEE and DEPARTMENT on DEPTNO = DID and filters DNAME = 'ENGLISH'.
    Statement II filters DNAME = 'ENGLISH' without joining the two tables.

    1. ABoth statements are true.
    2. BBoth statements are false.
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false.
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true.

    Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

    Explanation

    Statement I supplies the join predicate that relates an employee to a department before filtering by department name. Statement II has no join condition, so it forms an unrelated Cartesian product and is not a correct department-salary query.

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98. Question 98

    Which query returns employee ID and name for employees whose salary is greater than the salary of every employee in department 20, ordered by employee ID?
    A. uses SALARY > (subquery) with ORDER BY.
    B. uses SALARY > (subquery) without ORDER BY.
    C. uses SALARY > ALL (subquery) with ORDER BY.

    1. A(A) and (B) only
    2. B(A) and (C) only
    3. C(B) only
    4. D(C) only

    Answer: (D) (C) only

    Explanation

    A scalar comparison with a subquery returning several salaries is not the required “greater than every” test and can be invalid. > ALL (...) expresses the requirement exactly, and only C also provides the requested ordering.

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99. Question 99

    Which SQL statement(s) can drop the SALARY column from EMPLOYEE?
    A. ALTER TABLE EMPLOYEE DROP SALARY CASCADE;
    B. ALTER TABLE EMPLOYEE DROP SALARY RESTRICT;
    C. ALTER EMPLOYEE DROP SALARY;

    1. A(A) and (B) only
    2. B(A) and (C) only
    3. C(B) and (C) only
    4. D(A) only

    Answer: (A) (A) and (B) only

    Explanation

    The supported form is ALTER TABLE ... DROP .... CASCADE permits dependent objects to be removed; the other choices either use a restrictive dependency rule or omit the required TABLE keyword in the form expected here.

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100. Question 100

     Using the university table structures, the university wants to give every employee in the SCIENCE department a 20% salary rise. Which query is correct?
     A. UPDATE EMPLOYEE SET SALARY = SALARY * 1.20 WHERE DEPTNO IN (SELECT DID FROM DEPARTMENT WHERE DNAME = 'SCIENCE');
     B. UPDATE TABLE EMPLOYEE SET SALARY = SALARY * 1.20 WHERE DNAME = 'SCIENCE';
     C. ALTER TABLE EMPLOYEE SET SALARY = SALARY * 1.20 WHERE DEPTNO IN (SELECT DNAME FROM DEPARTMENT WHERE DNAME = 'SCIENCE');

     1. A(A) and (B) only
     2. B(A) only
     3. C(B) and (C) only
     4. D(C) only

     Answer: (B) (A) only

     Explanation

     A is valid: it updates EMPLOYEE rows whose department number belongs to the SCIENCE department. B uses invalid UPDATE syntax and a column absent from EMPLOYEE; C uses ALTER TABLE rather than UPDATE and compares DEPTNO to a department name.

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