|English Literature · December 2021

UGC NET English Literature December 2021 Question PaperPaper 1 & Paper 2 with Answer Key

The complete UGC NET December 2021 question paper for English Literature, covering Paper 1 (General Aptitude) and Paper 2 (English Literature). Every question below is shown with its options and the correct answer, and a detailed explanation you can unlock by signing in. All 300 questions are free to practise.

UGC NET December 2021 at a glance

ExamUGC NET December 2021
PapersPaper 1 (General Aptitude) and Paper 2 (English Literature)
Exam date(s)December 1, 2021
Shift(s)Shift 1 · Shift 2
Paper 1 questions100 questions · 60 minutes · 100 marks
Paper 2 questions200 questions · 120 minutes · 200 marks
Total300 questions
Marking scheme+2 per correct answer · No negative marking
Paper 1

General Aptitude

UGC NET December 2021 · Shift 1 · English Literature sitting

50 questions60 min100 marks
Practice Now
Paper 2

English Literature

UGC NET December 2021 · Shift 1

100 questions120 min200 marks
Practice Now
Paper 1

General Aptitude

UGC NET December 2021 · Shift 2 · English Literature sitting

50 questions60 min100 marks
Practice Now
Paper 2

English Literature

UGC NET December 2021 · Shift 2

100 questions120 min200 marks
Practice Now

Paper 1 — General Aptitude · Shift 1

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50 questions with the answer key and explanations.

  1. Question 1

    As students mature, the study of social issues at the community, state, national and international levels can be made available to them. Which model is designed for this purpose?

    1. ARole playing
    2. BJurisprudential inquiry
    3. CStructured inquiry
    4. DGroup investigation

    Answer: (B) Jurisprudential inquiry

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  2. Question 2

    Arrange the phases for syntax of Group Investigation Model in correct sequence:

    A. Students formulate study task and organise for study
    B. Students analyse progress and process
    C. Students encounter puzzling situation
    D. Independent and Group study
    E. Students explore reactions to the situation

    1. AA, C, B, E, D
    2. BB, A, D, E, C
    3. CC, E, A, D, B
    4. DD, E, B, A, C

    Answer: (C) C, E, A, D, B

    Explanation

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  3. Question 3

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: The core of the teaching process is the arrangement of environments within which students can interact and study how to learn.

    Statement II: A model of teaching is not a description of a learning environment.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    Explanation

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  4. Question 4

    The 4Rs approach to conflict resolution comprises:

    A. Reading
    B. Writing
    C. Respect
    D. Reprimand
    E. Resolution

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C and D only
    2. BA, B, C and E only
    3. CB, C, D and E only
    4. DA, B, D and E only

    Answer: (B) A, B, C and E only

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  5. Question 5

    Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    List I: Piaget's Stages of Cognitive DevelopmentList II: Approximate age
    A. SensorimotorI. Begins about the first grade to early adolescent, around 11 years old
    B. PreoperationalII. Adolescent to adulthood
    C. Concrete operationalIII. 0-2 years
    D. Formal operationalIV. Begins about the time the child starts talking to about 7 years old

    Piaget's stages of cognitive development and approximate ages

    1. AA - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
    2. BA - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
    3. CA - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
    4. DA - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

    Answer: (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

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  6. Question 6

    Discourse analysis in historical research is associated with

    1. AHobsbawm
    2. BCarr
    3. CSkinner
    4. DFoucault

    Answer: (D) Foucault

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  7. Question 7

    Which of the following are examples of violation of research ethics?

    A. Violating participant confidentiality
    B. Making recommendations beyond the scope of data collected
    C. Using an inappropriate research design
    D. Changing data to meet a desired outcome
    E. Using a quantitative method in place of a qualitative method

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C and D only
    2. BB, C, D and E only
    3. CA, B and D only
    4. DB, D and E only

    Answer: (C) A, B and D only

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  8. Question 8

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Experimenter effects are errors introduced during the collection or analysis of experimental data due to the behaviour of the experimenter.

    Statement II: Due to the presence of certain cues in the experimental setting, the participants form an interpretation of the experiment's purpose and subconsciously change their behaviour to fit that interpretation.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

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  9. Question 9

    Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:

    Assertion A: The major deficiency of pre-experimental design is that they fail to provide comparison groups.

    Reason R: Equivalence can be achieved through matching and random assignment.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is true but R is false
    4. DA is false but R is true

    Answer: (B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

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  10. Question 10

    Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:

    Assertion A: In the case study method, the researcher collects detailed information from a limited number of participants.

    Reason R: Findings based on case study research can be used to develop research hypotheses/questions for subsequent studies.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is true but R is false
    4. DA is false but R is true

    Answer: (B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

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  11. Question 11

    The Gandhian method of communication is known as:

    1. ANon-technological
    2. BMassive
    3. CPersonal
    4. DMassline

    Answer: (D) Massline

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  12. Question 12

    Modern mass communication has the characteristics of being:

    A. Sporadic
    B. Continuous
    C. Based on a schedule
    D. Not much dependent on technology
    E. Dependent on the use of media

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and E only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DA, D and E only

    Answer: (B) B, C and E only

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  13. Question 13

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: The primary act of communication begins when an individual decides to use a particular language symbol, susceptible to standardised interpretation, resulting in common meaning.

    Statement II: Meaning refers to inner, subjective reactions to images, interpretations, emotions and feelings as given out by the words used.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

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  14. Question 14

    Find out the sequence of elements of effective communication as listed by Cutlip et al.

    A. Promise of reward
    B. Message clarity
    C. Consistency
    D. Climate of belief
    E. Participatory context

    1. AA, B, D, E, C
    2. BC, D, E, A, B
    3. CD, E, A, B, C
    4. DE, A, C, D, B

    Answer: (C) D, E, A, B, C

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  15. Question 15

    Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    List I: Communication function/IssueList II: Area of Operation
    A. GatekeepingI. Time-binding capacity
    B. PersuasionII. News
    C. EntropyIII. Advertising
    D. MemoryIV. Chaos in communication

    Communication functions/issues and areas of operation

    1. AA - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
    2. BA - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
    3. CA - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
    4. DA - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

    Answer: (A) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

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  16. Question 16

    The angle between hour hand and the minute hand at 3:40 pm is

    1. A130°
    2. B150°
    3. C120°
    4. D125°

    Answer: (A) 130°

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  17. Question 17

    A sum of money on simple interest doubles itself in 10 years. It will triple itself in

    1. A15 years
    2. B20 years
    3. C30 years
    4. D32 years

    Answer: (B) 20 years

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  18. Question 18

    Find the missing term in the following series:

    2, 9, 37, 149, ?

    1. A594
    2. B298
    3. C299
    4. D597

    Answer: (D) 597

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  19. Question 19

    Average of ten positive numbers is X. If each number is increased by 10%, then new average increases by:

    1. A12%
    2. B11%
    3. C10%
    4. D8%

    Answer: (C) 10%

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  20. Question 20

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: The average of first twenty multiples of 9 is 92.5.

    Statement II: The average of first ten multiples of 11 is 60.5.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

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  21. Question 21

    Which of the following statements is/are true?

    A. The terms 'true' and 'false' apply to arguments.
    B. The terms 'true' and 'false' apply to statements.
    C. The terms 'valid' and 'invalid' apply to arguments.
    D. The terms 'cogent' and 'non-cogent' apply to statements.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and C only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DA and D only

    Answer: (B) B and C only

    Explanation

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  22. Question 22

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Two contrary statements cannot both be false.

    Statement II: Two contrary statements cannot both be true.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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  23. Question 23

    Identify the fallacy committed in the argument:

    No tragic actors are happy men.

    Some comedians are not happy men.

    Therefore, some comedians are not tragic actors.

    1. AFallacy of Undistributed Middle
    2. BFallacy of Illicit Major
    3. CFallacy of Exclusive Premises
    4. DExistential fallacy

    Answer: (C) Fallacy of Exclusive Premises

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  24. Question 24

    Identify the correct sequence of inference from beginning to end, according to the Nyāya system.

    A. Udaharana
    B. Hetu
    C. Pratijñā
    D. Nigamana
    E. Upanaya

    1. AC, A, B, E, D
    2. BB, A, D, C, E
    3. CB, A, C, D, E
    4. DC, B, A, E, D

    Answer: (D) C, B, A, E, D

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  25. Question 25

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: In the Nyāya system, inference is made from the particular to the particular through the Universal.

    Statement II: In the Nyāya system, inference is made from the Universal to the Universal through the Particular.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

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  26. Question 26

    A device driver is

    1. AA port that connects a device and a system
    2. BA software that performs disk compression
    3. CA software that performs disk defragmentation
    4. DA software that communicates with the operating system and translates data into a format understood by the device

    Answer: (D) A software that communicates with the operating system and translates data into a format understood by the device

    Explanation

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  27. Question 27

    What is Anti-spyware software?

    1. AChecks files before they are loaded on a computer
    2. BManages the data traffic
    3. CIt detects and removes programs installed illegally on a user's computer system
    4. DMakes the files non-readable

    Answer: (C) It detects and removes programs installed illegally on a user's computer system

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  28. Question 28

    Given below are two statements regarding the address bus in a computer system:

    Statement I: Address bus carries signals relating to addresses between the processor and memory.

    Statement II: It is bi-directional.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

    Explanation

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  29. Question 29

    Which of the following statements about Anti-virus software are correct?

    A. Problem files/programs are quarantined and can be automatically removed
    B. Check all files before being loaded or run
    C. Use a database to identify potential risks
    D. Used for data authenticity

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AB, C and D only
    2. BA, B and C only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DA, B and D only

    Answer: (B) A, B and C only

    Explanation

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  30. Question 30

    Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    List I: ICT ApplicationsList II: Example
    A. Measurement applicationsI. Simulating car crashes
    B. Control applicationsII. River pollution
    C. Modelling applicationsIII. Automatic oven
    D. Expert systemsIV. Medical diagnosis

    ICT applications matched with examples

    1. AA - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
    2. BA - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
    3. CA - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
    4. DA - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV

    Answer: (D) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV

    Explanation

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  31. Question 31

    Convention on Biodiversity was signed during

    1. AMontreal Protocol, 1987
    2. BEarth Summit at Rio de Janeiro, 1992
    3. CKyoto Protocol, 1997
    4. DHuman Environment Conference, Stockholm, 1972

    Answer: (B) Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro, 1992

    Explanation

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  32. Question 32

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Aerobic digestion of sewage sludge requires lots of energy.

    Statement II: Aerobic digestion of sewage sludge produces huge amount of methane.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

    Explanation

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  33. Question 33

    Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:

    Assertion A: Ground level concentration of ozone decreases at night.

    Reason R: Ultraviolet radiation photolyses the ozone into other components.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is true but R is false
    4. DA is false but R is true

    Answer: (B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

    Explanation

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  34. Question 34

    Targets of Goal 7 are:

    A. Control global warming
    B. Universal access to modern energy
    C. Increase global percentage of renewable energy
    D. Mitigating air pollution
    E. Double the improvement in energy efficiency

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C and D only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CB, C and E only
    4. DA, C, D and E only

    Answer: (C) B, C and E only

    Explanation

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  35. Question 35

    'Solar water still' is a device to

    1. APump water using solar energy
    2. BConvert saline water to potable water using solar energy
    3. CHeat water using solar energy
    4. DGenerate electricity using solar energy

    Answer: (B) Convert saline water to potable water using solar energy

    Explanation

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  36. Question 36

    As per NEP-2020, the responsibility to develop Adult Educator Framework has been given to which one of the following organisations?

    1. AMHRD
    2. BNCTE
    3. CNIEPA
    4. DNCERT

    Answer: (D) NCERT

    Explanation

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  37. Question 37

    Which one of the following led to the formulation of 10+2+3 system of education?

    1. AMacaulay's Minute
    2. BHunter Commission
    3. CElphinstone report
    4. DWood's despatch

    Answer: (D) Wood's despatch

    Explanation

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  38. Question 38

    ERIC is a unit in which one of the following organisations?

    1. ANCTE
    2. BNCERT
    3. CNIEPA
    4. DNRF

    Answer: (B) NCERT

    Explanation

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  39. Question 39

    Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:

    Assertion A: To make it easier for government as well as non-government philanthropic organisations to build schools, regulations on inputs should be limited to certain areas only.

    Reason R: Government should provide effective, enabling and sufficient infrastructure so that all schools have access to safe and engaging school education.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is correct but R is not correct
    4. DA is not correct but R is correct

    Answer: (B) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

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  40. Question 40

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: It is obvious that if higher education is not radically improved, our administration and technical progress, our intellectual standards and social advance will be most seriously handicapped. This is a major recommendation of the University Education Commission.

    Statement II: The University Grants Commission was established in accordance with the recommendation of the National Education Commission.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    Explanation

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  41. Question 41

    The demand inelasticity of articles in terms of non-varying prices is due to

    There is a question whether advertising induces demand for an individual company's product more or less elastic. The evidence indicates that the advertising of brands tends to make their demands relatively inelastic for varying periods of time. The data which support this condition are found in the relatively rigid prices of many advertised articles. That brand advertising would have this effect is natural, for an objective of brand advertising is to build consumer preferences. Some consumers will stick by a brand even though its price relationship with competing brands are disturbed. Clearly, the establishment of strong brand preference has led some manufacturers to act as though these preferences made the demand for their brands relatively inelastic. Rarely have they tested the inelasticity of their brands by raising and holding up their prices when competitors have failed to follow similar procedures. Yet, numerous examples were found in which manufacturers in periods of depression held their prices rigid while prices generally and the prices of some competitors were being lowered. In all such instances price competition was found to come into play sooner or later, and either demand shifted to sellers with lower prices or a reduction in price was forced. The quickness with which price competition comes into play varies in different product fields. In the fields of proprietary remedies, the highly individualised nature of the branded products and the tendency of consumers to build strong attachments to brands has given these brands an inelastic demand over relatively long periods of time. Even in these instances, however, price competition has eventually developed.

    1. AConsumer ignorance
    2. BVarying time factor
    3. CDifferences in products
    4. DAdvertising of branded products

    Answer: (D) Advertising of branded products

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  42. Question 42

    Why do some manufacturers make their brands of products demand inelastic? It is because of

    There is a question whether advertising induces demand for an individual company's product more or less elastic. The evidence indicates that the advertising of brands tends to make their demands relatively inelastic for varying periods of time. The data which support this condition are found in the relatively rigid prices of many advertised articles. That brand advertising would have this effect is natural, for an objective of brand advertising is to build consumer preferences. Some consumers will stick by a brand even though its price relationship with competing brands are disturbed. Clearly, the establishment of strong brand preference has led some manufacturers to act as though these preferences made the demand for their brands relatively inelastic. Rarely have they tested the inelasticity of their brands by raising and holding up their prices when competitors have failed to follow similar procedures. Yet, numerous examples were found in which manufacturers in periods of depression held their prices rigid while prices generally and the prices of some competitors were being lowered. In all such instances price competition was found to come into play sooner or later, and either demand shifted to sellers with lower prices or a reduction in price was forced. The quickness with which price competition comes into play varies in different product fields. In the fields of proprietary remedies, the highly individualised nature of the branded products and the tendency of consumers to build strong attachments to brands has given these brands an inelastic demand over relatively long periods of time. Even in these instances, however, price competition has eventually developed.

    1. AHolding price line
    2. BMarket trend
    3. CStrong consumer preference
    4. DCompetitors increasing the priceline

    Answer: (C) Strong consumer preference

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  43. Question 43

    What was the post-depression development as regards product pricing?

    There is a question whether advertising induces demand for an individual company's product more or less elastic. The evidence indicates that the advertising of brands tends to make their demands relatively inelastic for varying periods of time. The data which support this condition are found in the relatively rigid prices of many advertised articles. That brand advertising would have this effect is natural, for an objective of brand advertising is to build consumer preferences. Some consumers will stick by a brand even though its price relationship with competing brands are disturbed. Clearly, the establishment of strong brand preference has led some manufacturers to act as though these preferences made the demand for their brands relatively inelastic. Rarely have they tested the inelasticity of their brands by raising and holding up their prices when competitors have failed to follow similar procedures. Yet, numerous examples were found in which manufacturers in periods of depression held their prices rigid while prices generally and the prices of some competitors were being lowered. In all such instances price competition was found to come into play sooner or later, and either demand shifted to sellers with lower prices or a reduction in price was forced. The quickness with which price competition comes into play varies in different product fields. In the fields of proprietary remedies, the highly individualised nature of the branded products and the tendency of consumers to build strong attachments to brands has given these brands an inelastic demand over relatively long periods of time. Even in these instances, however, price competition has eventually developed.

    1. AStabilisation of prices
    2. BPrice competition, resulting in reduction
    3. CShift in demand to consumers
    4. DIncreased market for branded products

    Answer: (B) Price competition, resulting in reduction

    Explanation

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  44. Question 44

    Strong consumer attachment for branded products eventually led to

    There is a question whether advertising induces demand for an individual company's product more or less elastic. The evidence indicates that the advertising of brands tends to make their demands relatively inelastic for varying periods of time. The data which support this condition are found in the relatively rigid prices of many advertised articles. That brand advertising would have this effect is natural, for an objective of brand advertising is to build consumer preferences. Some consumers will stick by a brand even though its price relationship with competing brands are disturbed. Clearly, the establishment of strong brand preference has led some manufacturers to act as though these preferences made the demand for their brands relatively inelastic. Rarely have they tested the inelasticity of their brands by raising and holding up their prices when competitors have failed to follow similar procedures. Yet, numerous examples were found in which manufacturers in periods of depression held their prices rigid while prices generally and the prices of some competitors were being lowered. In all such instances price competition was found to come into play sooner or later, and either demand shifted to sellers with lower prices or a reduction in price was forced. The quickness with which price competition comes into play varies in different product fields. In the fields of proprietary remedies, the highly individualised nature of the branded products and the tendency of consumers to build strong attachments to brands has given these brands an inelastic demand over relatively long periods of time. Even in these instances, however, price competition has eventually developed.

    1. ALasting demand inelasticity
    2. BUniform pricing
    3. CCartelisation of manufacturers
    4. DBranded products falling in line

    Answer: (A) Lasting demand inelasticity

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  45. Question 45

    The passage focuses upon

    There is a question whether advertising induces demand for an individual company's product more or less elastic. The evidence indicates that the advertising of brands tends to make their demands relatively inelastic for varying periods of time. The data which support this condition are found in the relatively rigid prices of many advertised articles. That brand advertising would have this effect is natural, for an objective of brand advertising is to build consumer preferences. Some consumers will stick by a brand even though its price relationship with competing brands are disturbed. Clearly, the establishment of strong brand preference has led some manufacturers to act as though these preferences made the demand for their brands relatively inelastic. Rarely have they tested the inelasticity of their brands by raising and holding up their prices when competitors have failed to follow similar procedures. Yet, numerous examples were found in which manufacturers in periods of depression held their prices rigid while prices generally and the prices of some competitors were being lowered. In all such instances price competition was found to come into play sooner or later, and either demand shifted to sellers with lower prices or a reduction in price was forced. The quickness with which price competition comes into play varies in different product fields. In the fields of proprietary remedies, the highly individualised nature of the branded products and the tendency of consumers to build strong attachments to brands has given these brands an inelastic demand over relatively long periods of time. Even in these instances, however, price competition has eventually developed.

    1. APrice competition and branded products
    2. BImpact of advertising on product pricing
    3. CProprietary remedies for branded articles
    4. DPromotion of branded products in the sellers' market

    Answer: (B) Impact of advertising on product pricing

    Explanation

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  46. Question 46

    Using the data in the table, find the total number of male students in the college.

    Study the table carefully and answer the question that follows. It shows the total number of students in different courses of a college, together with the percentage of male and female students in each course.

    CourseTotal number of studentsMale students (%)Female students (%)
    B.Sc.4006535
    B.A.6505446
    M.Sc.2807525
    M.A.3405545
    PhD1806535
    1. A1120
    2. B1125
    3. C1130
    4. D1135

    Answer: (B) 1125

    Explanation

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  47. Question 47

    Using the data in the table, find the difference between the total number of male students and the total number of female students in the college.

    Study the table carefully and answer the question that follows. It shows the total number of students in different courses of a college, together with the percentage of male and female students in each course.

    CourseTotal number of studentsMale students (%)Female students (%)
    B.Sc.4006535
    B.A.6505446
    M.Sc.2807525
    M.A.3405545
    PhD1806535
    1. A380
    2. B390
    3. C400
    4. D410

    Answer: (C) 400

    Explanation

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  48. Question 48

    From the table, find the ratio of female students in graduation (B.Sc. + B.A.) to female students in post-graduation (M.Sc. + M.A.).

    Study the table carefully and answer the question that follows. It shows the total number of students in different courses of a college, together with the percentage of male and female students in each course.

    CourseTotal number of studentsMale students (%)Female students (%)
    B.Sc.4006535
    B.A.6505446
    M.Sc.2807525
    M.A.3405545
    PhD1806535
    1. A435 : 217
    2. B438 : 219
    3. C437 : 223
    4. D439 : 223

    Answer: (D) 439 : 223

    Explanation

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  49. Question 49

    From the table, find the ratio of male students in post-graduation (M.Sc. + M.A.) to male students in the PhD programme.

    Study the table carefully and answer the question that follows. It shows the total number of students in different courses of a college, together with the percentage of male and female students in each course.

    CourseTotal number of studentsMale students (%)Female students (%)
    B.Sc.4006535
    B.A.6505446
    M.Sc.2807525
    M.A.3405545
    PhD1806535
    1. A397 : 117
    2. B395 : 117
    3. C396 : 117
    4. D394 : 117

    Answer: (A) 397 : 117

    Explanation

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  50. Question 50

    From the table, find the difference between the number of male students in graduation (B.Sc. + B.A.) and the number of male students in post-graduation (M.A. + M.Sc.).

    Study the table carefully and answer the question that follows. It shows the total number of students in different courses of a college, together with the percentage of male and female students in each course.

    CourseTotal number of studentsMale students (%)Female students (%)
    B.Sc.4006535
    B.A.6505446
    M.Sc.2807525
    M.A.3405545
    PhD1806535
    1. A213
    2. B214
    3. C215
    4. D216

    Answer: (B) 214

    Explanation

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Spotted a shift or questions missing from this paper?

Paper 2 — English Literature · Shift 1

Attempt this paper

100 questions with the answer key and explanations.

  1. Question 1

    In the context of the passage, which is closest to being true?

    What can be the use of a poetry that has no true subject except the poet's own selfhood? The traditional use of poetry in the Western world has been instruction through delight, where teaching has meant the common truths or common deceptions of societal tradition, and where esthetic pleasure has meant a fulfillment of expectations founded upon past joys of the same design.

    But an individual psyche has its own accidents, which it needs to call truths, and its own necessity for self-recognition, which requires the pleasures of originality, even if those pleasures depend upon a kind of lying against time, and against the achievements of the past. The use of such poetry demands to be seen in a deidealized way, if it is to be seen more truly.

    — Harold Bloom, "The Use of Poetry"

    1. AThere can be no use of poetry.
    2. BPoetry can have no true subject.
    3. CMan may be the true subject of poetry.
    4. DThe poet himself may be the subject.

    Answer: (D) The poet himself may be the subject.

    Explanation

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  2. Question 2

    What is meant by the 'traditional use of poetry'?

    What can be the use of a poetry that has no true subject except the poet's own selfhood? The traditional use of poetry in the Western world has been instruction through delight, where teaching has meant the common truths or common deceptions of societal tradition, and where esthetic pleasure has meant a fulfillment of expectations founded upon past joys of the same design.

    But an individual psyche has its own accidents, which it needs to call truths, and its own necessity for self-recognition, which requires the pleasures of originality, even if those pleasures depend upon a kind of lying against time, and against the achievements of the past. The use of such poetry demands to be seen in a deidealized way, if it is to be seen more truly.

    — Harold Bloom, "The Use of Poetry"

    1. APromoting serious ideas
    2. BPromoting doubtful pleasure
    3. CPromoting joyous expectations
    4. DPromoting social honesty in life

    Answer: (A) Promoting serious ideas

    Explanation

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  3. Question 3

    If the 'selfhood' of a poet is the subject of poetry, then 'originality' shall spring from:

    What can be the use of a poetry that has no true subject except the poet's own selfhood? The traditional use of poetry in the Western world has been instruction through delight, where teaching has meant the common truths or common deceptions of societal tradition, and where esthetic pleasure has meant a fulfillment of expectations founded upon past joys of the same design.

    But an individual psyche has its own accidents, which it needs to call truths, and its own necessity for self-recognition, which requires the pleasures of originality, even if those pleasures depend upon a kind of lying against time, and against the achievements of the past. The use of such poetry demands to be seen in a deidealized way, if it is to be seen more truly.

    — Harold Bloom, "The Use of Poetry"

    1. Asome truth of untruths.
    2. Btruth of self-recognition.
    3. Ccreating ideal pleasures.
    4. Dre-living the past joys.

    Answer: (A) some truth of untruths.

    Explanation

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  4. Question 4

    Which of the following best describes the meaning of the title of the poem, 'No worst, there is none.'?

    No worst, there is none. Pitched past pitch of grief,
    More pangs will, schooled at forepangs, wilder wring.
    Comforter, where, where is your comforting?
    Mary, mother of us, where is your relief?
    My cries heave, herds-long; huddle in a main, a chief
    Woe, wórld-sorrow; on an áge-old anvil wince and sing—
    Then lull, then leave off. Fury had shrieked 'No lingering!
    Let me be fell: force I must be brief.'

    O the mind, mind has mountains; cliffs of fall
    Frightful, sheer, no-man-fathomed. Hold them cheap
    May who ne'er hung there. Nor does long our small
    Durance deal with that steep or deep. Here! creep,
    Wretch, under a comfort serves in a whirlwind: all
    Life death does end and each day dies with sleep.

    — Gerard Manley Hopkins

    1. AIt is not worst because there is nothing.
    2. BNothing can be so much bad as this.
    3. CNo, it is worst as nothing is there.
    4. DIt is very bad as no one is there.

    Answer: (A) It is not worst because there is nothing.

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  5. Question 5

    Beyond the intensity of known grief, there can be:

    No worst, there is none. Pitched past pitch of grief,
    More pangs will, schooled at forepangs, wilder wring.
    Comforter, where, where is your comforting?
    Mary, mother of us, where is your relief?
    My cries heave, herds-long; huddle in a main, a chief
    Woe, wórld-sorrow; on an áge-old anvil wince and sing—
    Then lull, then leave off. Fury had shrieked 'No lingering!
    Let me be fell: force I must be brief.'

    O the mind, mind has mountains; cliffs of fall
    Frightful, sheer, no-man-fathomed. Hold them cheap
    May who ne'er hung there. Nor does long our small
    Durance deal with that steep or deep. Here! creep,
    Wretch, under a comfort serves in a whirlwind: all
    Life death does end and each day dies with sleep.

    — Gerard Manley Hopkins

    1. Ano grief than being experienced.
    2. Bonly a new pain more painful.
    3. Conly the twisted known pains.
    4. Dthe griefs beyond limits of pain.

    Answer: (B) only a new pain more painful.

    Explanation

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  6. Question 6

    Which two of the following are true?

    A. Not all know the intensity or depth of suffering.
    B. Death does not put an end to our sufferings.
    C. Suffering is seen as winds that hinder comfort.
    D. Suffering's intensity or depth is in the mind.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given.

    No worst, there is none. Pitched past pitch of grief,
    More pangs will, schooled at forepangs, wilder wring.
    Comforter, where, where is your comforting?
    Mary, mother of us, where is your relief?
    My cries heave, herds-long; huddle in a main, a chief
    Woe, wórld-sorrow; on an áge-old anvil wince and sing—
    Then lull, then leave off. Fury had shrieked 'No lingering!
    Let me be fell: force I must be brief.'

    O the mind, mind has mountains; cliffs of fall
    Frightful, sheer, no-man-fathomed. Hold them cheap
    May who ne'er hung there. Nor does long our small
    Durance deal with that steep or deep. Here! creep,
    Wretch, under a comfort serves in a whirlwind: all
    Life death does end and each day dies with sleep.

    — Gerard Manley Hopkins

    1. AA and B only
    2. BC and D only
    3. CA and D only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (C) A and D only

    Explanation

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  7. Question 7

    How did the 'sport with Tess' end?

    'Justice' was done, and the President of the Immortals, in Aeschylean phrase, had ended his sport with Tess. And the D'Urberville knights and dames slept on in their tombs unknowing. The two speechless gazers bent themselves down to the earth, as if in prayer, and remained thus a long time, absolutely motionless; the flag continued to wave silently. As soon as they had enough strength they arose, joined hands again, and went on.

    — Thomas Hardy, Tess of the D'Urbervilles

    1. AShe was hanged.
    2. BShe was expelled from Wintoncester.
    3. CThe tormentor married her.
    4. DShe died an untimely death.

    Answer: (A) She was hanged.

    Explanation

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  8. Question 8

    Who are the 'two speechless gazers'?

    'Justice' was done, and the President of the Immortals, in Aeschylean phrase, had ended his sport with Tess. And the D'Urberville knights and dames slept on in their tombs unknowing. The two speechless gazers bent themselves down to the earth, as if in prayer, and remained thus a long time, absolutely motionless; the flag continued to wave silently. As soon as they had enough strength they arose, joined hands again, and went on.

    — Thomas Hardy, Tess of the D'Urbervilles

    1. AReverend James Clare and Mrs. Brooks
    2. B'Liza-Lu and Angel Clare
    3. CTess's two parents
    4. DParson Tringham and Mrs. d'Urberville

    Answer: (B) 'Liza-Lu and Angel Clare

    Explanation

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  9. Question 9

    '[T]his insubstantial pageant' refers to:

    The solemn temples, the great globe itself,
    Yea, all which it inherit, shall dissolve
    And, like this insubstantial pageant faded,
    Leave not a rack behind. We are such stuff
    As dreams are made on, and our little life
    Is rounded with a sleep.

    — Shakespeare, The Tempest

    1. Athe shutdown of Globe theatre.
    2. Ba non-real performance.
    3. Cthe destroyed mother earth.
    4. Denactment with support structure.

    Answer: (B) a non-real performance.

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  10. Question 10

    'We are such stuff as dreams are made on' means:

    The solemn temples, the great globe itself,
    Yea, all which it inherit, shall dissolve
    And, like this insubstantial pageant faded,
    Leave not a rack behind. We are such stuff
    As dreams are made on, and our little life
    Is rounded with a sleep.

    — Shakespeare, The Tempest

    1. AHuman life is full of imaginary colours.
    2. BOur life is a text of what happened.
    3. CWe are a bundle of past reality.
    4. DThere is no substance to human life.

    Answer: (D) There is no substance to human life.

    Explanation

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  11. Question 11

    In "An Apology for Poetry" Sidney discusses the didactic function of poetry by comparing it to philosophy and:

    1. Areligion.
    2. Baesthetics.
    3. Chistory.
    4. Dethics.

    Answer: (C) history.

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  12. Question 12

    According to Longinus, which two of the following qualities apply to 'great poetry'?

    A. It must be the work of genius, an inspired person.
    B. It must cause a feeling of melancholy in the reader.
    C. It must employ devices of rhetoric.
    D. It must please selectively and on special occasions.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA and C only
    3. CB and D only
    4. DC and D only

    Answer: (B) A and C only

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  13. Question 13

    In "The Function of Criticism" T. S. Eliot attacked J. Middleton Murry and similar critics for being devotees of what he called:

    1. A"the Inner Voice".
    2. B"the Romantic Impulse".
    3. C"the Symbol Hunt".
    4. D"the Muse's Mystery".

    Answer: (A) "the Inner Voice".

    Explanation

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  14. Question 14

    Who among the following compared 'the mind in creation' to 'a fading coal'?

    1. AWordsworth
    2. BColeridge
    3. CShelley
    4. DKeats

    Answer: (C) Shelley

    Explanation

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  15. Question 15

    Who among the following considered paraphrase as 'a heresy'?

    1. APercy Lubbock
    2. BEdmund Wilson
    3. CI. A. Richards
    4. DCleanth Brooks

    Answer: (D) Cleanth Brooks

    Explanation

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  16. Question 16

    Empiricist linguistics is concerned with:

    1. Ainvestigation of the human mind.
    2. Bdirectly observable sense-data.
    3. Creason as a determinant of enquiry.
    4. Dinnate language knowledge.

    Answer: (B) directly observable sense-data.

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  17. Question 17

    In Noam Chomsky's definition of grammar, which two features are drawn from mathematics?

    A. complexity
    B. abstraction
    C. transformation
    D. generation

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA and C only
    3. CB and D only
    4. DC and D only

    Answer: (D) C and D only

    Explanation

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  18. Question 18

    'Potato' is a sixteenth-century borrowing into English from:

    1. ASpanish.
    2. BFrench.
    3. CGerman.
    4. DNorwegian.

    Answer: (A) Spanish.

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  19. Question 19

    Who among the following represents the global spread of English diagrammatically as three concentric circles?

    1. ADavid Crystal
    2. BJenny Cheshire
    3. CBraj B. Kachru
    4. DSalikoko Mufwene

    Answer: (C) Braj B. Kachru

    Explanation

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  20. Question 20

    Who among the following is the founder of the Survey of English Usage (SEU)?

    1. ARandolph Quirk
    2. BHenry Watson Fowler
    3. CMichael Swan
    4. DBryan Garner

    Answer: (A) Randolph Quirk

    Explanation

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  21. Question 21

    Who is the author of the short story, "Beethoven Was One-Sixteenth Black"?

    1. AJ. M. Coetzee
    2. BNadine Gordimer
    3. CAndre Brink
    4. DBessie Head

    Answer: (B) Nadine Gordimer

    Explanation

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  22. Question 22

    Arrange the following texts in the chronological order of publication.

    A. This Bridge Called My Back
    B. Sexual Politics
    C. Gender Trouble
    D. The Feminine Mystique

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AB, D, A, C
    2. BD, B, A, C
    3. CD, A, B, C
    4. DB, D, C, A

    Answer: (B) D, B, A, C

    Explanation

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  23. Question 23

    Who is the author of the essay "Lear, Tolstoy and the Fool"?

    1. AAldous Huxley
    2. BGeorge Orwell
    3. CVirginia Woolf
    4. DSomerset Maugham

    Answer: (B) George Orwell

    Explanation

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  24. Question 24

    Which of the following poems by Robert Browning contains the lines, "Our interest's on the dangerous edge of things. / The honest thief, the tender murderer, / The superstitious atheist..."?

    1. A"A Death in the Desert"
    2. B"Count Gismond"
    3. C"Bishop Blougram's Apology"
    4. D"Love Among the Ruins"

    Answer: (C) "Bishop Blougram's Apology"

    Explanation

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  25. Question 25

    Who among the following edited The Cornhill Magazine?

    1. ACharles Dickens
    2. BLewis Carroll
    3. CWilliam Makepeace Thackeray
    4. DAnthony Trollope

    Answer: (C) William Makepeace Thackeray

    Explanation

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  26. Question 26

    Which of the following novels has its epigraph taken from the Katha Upanishad?

    1. AThe Island of Doctor Moreau by H. G. Wells
    2. BThe Razor's Edge by Somerset Maugham
    3. CPoint Counter Point by Aldous Huxley
    4. DA Room with a View by E. M. Forster

    Answer: (B) The Razor's Edge by Somerset Maugham

    Explanation

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  27. Question 27

    Who is the author of the essay, "What Isn't Literature?"?

    1. AE. D. Hirsch Jr.
    2. BPaul Ricoeur
    3. CHans-Georg Gadamer
    4. DTerry Eagleton

    Answer: (A) E. D. Hirsch Jr.

    Explanation

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  28. Question 28

    Erich Auerbach's Mimesis (1946) ends with a chapter on:

    1. AVirginia Woolf's To the Lighthouse.
    2. BWyndham Lewis's The Apes of God.
    3. CJames Joyce's Ulysses.
    4. DGeorge Eliot's Middlemarch.

    Answer: (A) Virginia Woolf's To the Lighthouse.

    Explanation

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  29. Question 29

    Which of the following clusters is associated with what Julia Kristeva terms the 'semiotic'?

    1. AAuthority, order and patriarchy
    2. BDisplacement, slippage and condensation
    3. CRepression, control and normalcy
    4. DLogic, reason and power

    Answer: (B) Displacement, slippage and condensation

    Explanation

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  30. Question 30

    Which two works in the following list are written by Aphra Behn?

    A. Rover
    B. Oroonoko
    C. Soldier's Fortune
    D. The Princess of Cleve

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CB and D only
    4. DA and C only

    Answer: (A) A and B only

    Explanation

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  31. Question 31

    Which two of the following are works by Gustave Flaubert?

    A. The Temptation of Saint Anthony
    B. Old Goriot
    C. Therese Raquin
    D. Sentimental Education

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and C only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA and D only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (C) A and D only

    Explanation

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  32. Question 32

    Which two of the following conform to liberal humanist thought?

    A. Literature transcends the limits of the age of its origin and so is timeless.
    B. Literature is untouched by the essential human nature which is unchanging.
    C. Literature is devoid of any purpose to enhance life or promote human values.
    D. Identity is a unique essence unaffected by environment and society.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and C only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA and D only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (C) A and D only

    Explanation

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  33. Question 33

    Which two of the following conform to Northrop Frye's typology of literature?

    A. Mythos of spring: Comedy
    B. Mythos of summer: Satire
    C. Mythos of autumn: Tragedy
    D. Mythos of winter: Romance

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and D only
    3. CA and C only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (C) A and C only

    Explanation

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  34. Question 34

    Which two of the following writers does A. D. Hope address through his poetic responses in A Book of Answers?

    A. Tolstoy
    B. Dostoevsky
    C. Mallarme
    D. Goethe

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and D only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CB and D only
    4. DA and C only

    Answer: (D) A and C only

    Explanation

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  35. Question 35

    Which two of the following are true according to the documentation style prescribed by the eighth edition of the MLA Handbook?

    A. If the title page of a book contains an imprint as well as the publisher's name, omit the imprint and use the publisher's name.
    B. While giving a URL copy it from the Web browser but omit http:// or https://.
    C. If a quotation extends to more than five lines set it off from the text as block indented an inch from the left margin.
    D. Long titles should be abbreviated using the first letter of key words typed in upper case without intervening space.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA and C only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (A) A and B only

    Explanation

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  36. Question 36

    Which two of the following are highlighted in relation to specific historical moments by Stephen Greenblatt?

    A. crisis of meaning
    B. circulation of meaning
    C. production of meaning
    D. deferral of meaning

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (A) A and B only

    Explanation

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  37. Question 37

    Who among the following belong to the Chicago School of critics?

    A. R. S. Crane
    B. E. M. W. Tillyard
    C. Elder Olson
    D. Allen Tate

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and C only
    2. BA and D only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (A) A and C only

    Explanation

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  38. Question 38

    Which of the following poems contains John Donne's famous conceit bringing a parallel between lovers and the hands of a compass?

    1. A"Negative Love"
    2. B"Lovers Infinitenesse"
    3. C"A Valediction: Forbidding Mourning"
    4. D"A Valediction: Of Weeping"

    Answer: (C) "A Valediction: Forbidding Mourning"

    Explanation

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  39. Question 39

    Arrange the following essays in the chronological order of publication.

    A. T. S. Eliot, "The Function of Criticism"
    B. Edgar Allan Poe, "The Philosophy of Composition"
    C. Henry James, "The Art of Fiction"
    D. Virginia Woolf, "Modern Fiction"

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AC, B, A, D
    2. BC, B, D, A
    3. CB, C, D, A
    4. DB, C, A, D

    Answer: (C) B, C, D, A

    Explanation

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  40. Question 40

    Arrange the following journals in the chronological order in which they started publication.

    A. The Tatler
    B. The Examiner
    C. The Review
    D. The Spectator

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, D, C, B
    2. BB, A, D, C
    3. CC, A, B, D
    4. DC, A, D, B

    Answer: (C) C, A, B, D

    Explanation

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  41. Question 41

    Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

    Assertion (A): Postmodern narratives focus on the indeterminate and unstable nature of textuality and subjectivity.
    Reason (R): Postmodern narrative acts regard narratives and characters as tentative representations of writing and identity.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is true but R is false
    4. DA is false but R is true

    Answer: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

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  42. Question 42

    Given below are two statements.

    Statement I: In Waiting for Godot, it is Vladimir who questions the Boy who comes from Godot towards the end of the two Acts.
    Statement II: In Waiting for Godot, it is Estragon who says, "Nothing happens, nobody comes, nobody goes, it's awful."

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

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  43. Question 43

    Given below are two statements.

    Statement I: New Historicism stipulates that teleological connotations of history have to be eschewed.
    Statement II: New Historicism neither denies nor accepts totalizing explanations of historical events.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

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  44. Question 44

    What was poor Yorick in Hamlet?

    1. AJester
    2. BActor
    3. CSoldier
    4. DGravedigger

    Answer: (A) Jester

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  45. Question 45

    Which of the following words refers to a sound that is associated with a particular meaning?

    1. Aphoneme
    2. Bphonic substance
    3. Cphonestheme
    4. Dphonemoid

    Answer: (C) phonestheme

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  46. Question 46

    Who among the following Dickens characters appears as a ghost?

    1. ADaniel Quilp
    2. BDora Spenlow
    3. CEsther Summerson
    4. DJacob Marley

    Answer: (D) Jacob Marley

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  47. Question 47

    Virginia Woolf's Orlando opens in 1588 and Orlando, a sixteen-year-old boy, writes a poem called:

    1. A"The Evergreen Tree".
    2. B"The Poison Tree".
    3. C"The Oak Tree".
    4. D"The Magic Tree".

    Answer: (C) "The Oak Tree".

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  48. Question 48

    What function of English is exemplified by the use of English in India as a "link language" along with a first language by stable bilinguals in well-defined social contexts?

    1. Acomplementary
    2. Bsupplementary
    3. Cauxiliary
    4. Dequative

    Answer: (A) complementary

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  49. Question 49

    Who among the following is said to have believed that the Persian Gulf War (1990-91) never happened?

    1. AZygmunt Bauman
    2. BJean Baudrillard
    3. CJacques Derrida
    4. DJurgen Habermas

    Answer: (B) Jean Baudrillard

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  50. Question 50

    What 19th-century philosophical term of Russian origin did Friedrich Nietzsche use to describe the disintegration of traditional morality in western society?

    1. Aabsolutism
    2. Bcynicism
    3. Cnihilism
    4. Danarchism

    Answer: (C) nihilism

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  51. Question 51

    Which of the following statements is true of the working group set up by the University Grants Commission in 1978 to study the medium of instruction in higher education?

    1. AIt recommended a quicker switchover of the medium of instruction from English to Indian languages.
    2. BIt observed that English need not be displaced as the medium of instruction although regional languages were quite ready to take over its functions.
    3. CIt argued that English as a highly developed language was best suited for India's industrial and scientific progress.
    4. DIt asserted that English had the potential to further polarize an already-divided nation along socio-economic and intellectual fault lines.

    Answer: (A) It recommended a quicker switchover of the medium of instruction from English to Indian languages.

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  52. Question 52

    In comparative philology and sometimes in modern phonology, what is the term used to refer to the deletion of a vowel within a word?

    1. AAphaeresis
    2. BEqui-deletion
    3. CParadigm
    4. DSyncope

    Answer: (D) Syncope

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  53. Question 53

    Which of the following statements best describes Terry Eagleton's views on literature?

    1. AIt is involved in the reproduction of the dominant social order.
    2. BIts raison d'etre is to reflect social reality directly.
    3. CIts primary purpose is to produce beauty and pleasure.
    4. DIt is closely allied to religion in its significance and seriousness.

    Answer: (A) It is involved in the reproduction of the dominant social order.

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  54. Question 54

    Which of the following are true of 'performance', as used in linguistic theory?

    A. It is analogous to the Saussurean concept of langue.
    B. It refers to the specific utterances of individual native speakers in actual situations.
    C. It is an innate grammar that suggests humans' universal ability to use language.
    D. It includes hesitations and unfinished structures arising out of psychological difficulties acting upon the speaker.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA and C only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (D) B and D only

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  55. Question 55

    Which among the following are the works of George Gissing?

    A. New Grub Street
    B. Agnes Grey
    C. The Odd Women
    D. Mary Barton

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and C only
    2. BB and D only
    3. CA and B only
    4. DC and D only

    Answer: (A) A and C only

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  56. Question 56

    Which of the following are novels by Ian McEwan?

    A. Atonement
    B. The Man with Two Left Feet
    C. The Child in Time
    D. The Rachel Papers

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and C only
    2. BB and D only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DD and A only

    Answer: (A) A and C only

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  57. Question 57

    Which of the following are poems by Nissim Ezekiel that make fun of Indians' use of English?

    A. "Goodbye Party for Miss Pushpa T.S."
    B. "Philosophy"
    C. "Very Indian Poem in Indian English"
    D. "Jewish Wedding in Bombay"
    E. "Poet, Lover, Birdwatcher"

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and C only
    2. BB and D only
    3. CA, B and D only
    4. DA, C and E only

    Answer: (A) A and C only

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  58. Question 58

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Author)List-II (Text)
    A. Sean O'CaseyI. I'm Talking About Jerusalem
    B. Dylan ThomasII. The Winslow Boy
    C. Terence RattiganIII. Juno and the Paycock
    D. Arnold WeskerIV. In the Shadow of the Glen
    E. J. M. SyngeV. Under Milk Wood
    1. AA-II, B-I, C-III, D-V, E-IV
    2. BA-V, B-IV, C-II, D-I, E-III
    3. CA-III, B-V, C-II, D-I, E-IV
    4. DA-IV, B-II, C-III, D-V, E-I

    Answer: (C) A-III, B-V, C-II, D-I, E-IV

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  59. Question 59

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (First line)List-II (Poet)
    A. "Courage!" he said, and pointed toward the land...I. G. M. Hopkins
    B. I am poor brother Lippo, by your leave!II. Alfred Tennyson
    C. I caught this morning morning's minion...III. D. G. Rossetti
    D. Look in my face; my name is Might-have-been...IV. Matthew Arnold
    E. The sea is calm tonight...V. Robert Browning
    1. AA-II, B-III, C-I, D-V, E-IV
    2. BA-IV, B-V, C-I, D-III, E-II
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-V, D-I, E-II
    4. DA-II, B-V, C-I, D-III, E-IV

    Answer: (D) A-II, B-V, C-I, D-III, E-IV

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  60. Question 60

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Character)List-II (Novel)
    A. Winston SmithI. Sons and Lovers
    B. Paul MorelII. Ulysses
    C. 'whiskey priest'III. Nineteen Eighty-four
    D. Leopold BloomIV. Decline and Fall
    E. Paul PennyfeatherV. The Power and the Glory
    1. AA-III, B-I, C-V, D-II, E-IV
    2. BA-I, B-V, C-II, D-III, E-IV
    3. CA-IV, B-III, C-V, D-II, E-I
    4. DA-V, B-I, C-IV, D-II, E-III

    Answer: (A) A-III, B-I, C-V, D-II, E-IV

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  61. Question 61

    Arrange the following language areas of the human brain in the order in which they are involved in hearing, understanding and saying a word:

    A. arcuate fasciculus
    B. anterior speech cortex
    C. motor cortex
    D. posterior speech cortex

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C, D, B
    2. BB, A, D, C
    3. CC, B, A, D
    4. DD, A, B, C

    Answer: (D) D, A, B, C

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  62. Question 62

    Choose the right chronological sequence of the publication of the following books:

    A. Margaret Atwood, The Handmaid's Tale
    B. Alice Walker, The Color Purple
    C. Doris Lessing, The Golden Notebook
    D. Toni Morrison, The Bluest Eye

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, D, C
    2. BB, A, D, C
    3. CC, D, B, A
    4. DD, C, B, A

    Answer: (C) C, D, B, A

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  63. Question 63

    Arrange the following terms in the chronological order of their use in literary theory:

    A. gynesis
    B. scriptible
    C. negritude
    D. paratext

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AD, A, C, B
    2. BA, B, C, D
    3. CC, A, D, B
    4. DB, C, D, A

    Answer: (C) C, A, D, B

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  64. Question 64

    Given below are two statements.

    Statement I: Unlike scientific research, literary research does not have specific materials for investigation and scientific tools for reaching a conclusion and formulating a theory.
    Statement II: Literary research consists of critical interpretations of an author's work to the exclusion of biography and editing of texts.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct.
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

    Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

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  65. Question 65

    Given below are two statements.

    Statement I: Linguists, being primarily interested in the scientific study of language, approach language dispassionately.
    Statement II: Linguists are necessarily polyglots who bring their own biases to language study.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct.
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

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  66. Question 66

    Which of the following are features of the 'Theatre of the Absurd'?

    A. emphasis on the central role of God in the universe
    B. presentation of futile actions devoid of any goal
    C. portrayal of situations that point to the meaningfulness of life
    D. lacking in conflicts and dramatic tensions
    E. presenting players in a stasis or drift without definite roles

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C and E only
    2. BB, D and E only
    3. CA, B and D only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (B) B, D and E only

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  67. Question 67

    Who, among the following, is known to have used elements from the Yakshagana tradition in his theatre?

    1. ABadal Sircar
    2. BGirish Karnad
    3. CMohan Rakesh
    4. DMahesh Dattani

    Answer: (B) Girish Karnad

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  68. Question 68

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Writer)List-II (Book)
    A. Bankimchandra ChatterjeeI. Untouchable
    B. Mulk Raj AnandII. Rajmohan's Wife
    C. Panchkouree KhanIII. Stories from Indian Christian Life
    D. Kamala SathianadhanIV. The Revelations of an Orderly
    1. AA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    2. BA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

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  69. Question 69

    Which of these UK universities saw the first institutional incorporation of Cultural Studies?

    1. ABath Spa University
    2. BOxford University
    3. CUniversity of Birmingham
    4. DCambridge University

    Answer: (C) University of Birmingham

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  70. Question 70

    Which of these poets wrote a poem that served to inspire W. B. Yeats to write his own poem, "When You Are Old"?

    1. AFrancois Villon
    2. BPierre de Ronsard
    3. CEdmund Spenser
    4. DHeinrich Heine

    Answer: (B) Pierre de Ronsard

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  71. Question 71

    Which of these does Meenakshi Mukherjee propose as the possible target readership of the early Indian English novel?

    A. A pan-Indian readership
    B. A localized Indian readership
    C. A British readership
    D. The colonial administrator in India

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DA and D only

    Answer: (C) C and D only

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  72. Question 72

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Poet)List-II (Language)
    A. Charles BaudelaireI. French
    B. Heinrich HeineII. German
    C. Sylvia PlathIII. English
    D. Jose MartiIV. Spanish
    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

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  73. Question 73

    Which of these constitute the preoccupations of the protagonist of Upamanyu Chatterjee's English, August?

    A. Marijuana
    B. Magic
    C. Monotheism
    D. Marcus Aurelius

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA and D only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (B) A and D only

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  74. Question 74

    What was the name of the journal published from Bowling Green University beginning 1969, which carried essays on amusement parks, comics and detective films?

    1. AJournal of Mass Culture
    2. BJournal of Popular Culture
    3. CJournal of Public Culture
    4. DJournal of Culture Studies

    Answer: (B) Journal of Popular Culture

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  75. Question 75

    Which of these best describes Shyam Selvadurai's novel, Funny Boy?

    1. ANovel of manners
    2. BSentimental novel
    3. CComing-of-age novel
    4. DPicaresque novel

    Answer: (C) Coming-of-age novel

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  76. Question 76

    Which of these questions would Cultural Studies be most interested in asking?

    A. Who decides what is to be produced?
    B. Who can afford the artifact?
    C. How is the artifact marketed?
    D. What is the register of speech in the artifact?

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BA, C and D only
    3. CB, C and D only
    4. DA, B and D only

    Answer: (A) A, B and C only

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  77. Question 77

    Who, among the following, played the most significant role in mobilizing the concept of 'cultural intermediaries'?

    1. ALouis Althusser
    2. BKarl Marx
    3. CPierre Bourdieu
    4. DJurgen Habermas

    Answer: (C) Pierre Bourdieu

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  78. Question 78

    From whom does Gayatri Chakravorty Spivak borrow the term 'subaltern'?

    1. AKarl Marx
    2. BFriedrich Engels
    3. CLouis Althusser
    4. DAntonio Gramsci

    Answer: (D) Antonio Gramsci

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  79. Question 79

    Which of the following does the Subaltern Studies project contend?

    A. Traditional historiography celebrated the role of the subalterns.
    B. Traditional history of India's freedom movement celebrates the contribution of select icons.
    C. Traditional historiography highlights the dominant strands of India's freedom struggle.
    D. Subaltern Studies historiography highlights the dominant strands of India's freedom struggle.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA and C only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (B) B and C only

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  80. Question 80

    Which of these did the Wood's Despatch (1854) seek to propagate?

    A. Impart Western knowledge to Indians
    B. Restrict access to English learning in India
    C. Educate British officers in Sanskrit and Persian
    D. Create a class of public servants

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA and C only
    4. DA and D only

    Answer: (D) A and D only

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  81. Question 81

    Arrange the following periodicals in the chronological order in which they started publication:

    A. The Spectator
    B. The Tatler
    C. The Rambler
    D. The Critical Review

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C, D
    2. BB, A, C, D
    3. CB, C, D, A
    4. DA, D, B, C

    Answer: (B) B, A, C, D

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  82. Question 82

    Who, among these, does Gabriel Garcia Marquez name right in the beginning of his Nobel Prize address?

    A. Ferdinand Magellan
    B. Christopher Columbus
    C. Marco Polo
    D. Antonio Pigafetta

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DA and D only

    Answer: (D) A and D only

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  83. Question 83

    Which of these constitutes the only extant trilogy from ancient Greek tragedy?

    1. AKing Oedipus, Oedipus at Colonus, Antigone
    2. BAgamemnon, Choephori, The Eumenides
    3. CAgamemnon, Orestes, The Eumenides
    4. DKing Oedipus, Orestes, Antigone

    Answer: (B) Agamemnon, Choephori, The Eumenides

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  84. Question 84

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Author)List-II (Form)
    A. PindarI. Epinicia
    B. MenanderII. Old Comedy
    C. SapphoIII. Lyric poetry
    D. AristophanesIV. New Comedy
    1. AA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
    2. BA-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
    3. CA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    4. DA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Answer: (B) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

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  85. Question 85

    Which of these does the book How to Read Donald Duck identify as an important element in its analysis of imperialist ideology in the Walt Disney comic book?

    1. Aimpoverished royalty
    2. Bnoble savage
    3. Cscientific magic
    4. Dheartless civilisation

    Answer: (B) noble savage

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  86. Question 86

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Playwright)List-II (Play)
    A. Bertolt BrechtI. Cat on a Hot Tin Roof
    B. Tennessee WilliamsII. Life of Galileo
    C. Vaclav HavelIII. Miss Julie
    D. August StrindbergIV. Temptation
    1. AA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
    2. BA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    3. CA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    4. DA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Answer: (D) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

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  87. Question 87

    Which of these plays by Girish Karnad shares its theme with Thomas Mann's The Transposed Heads?

    1. AHayavadana
    2. BYayati
    3. CNagamandala
    4. DTale Danda

    Answer: (A) Hayavadana

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  88. Question 88

    With which of these is Ngugi wa Thiong'o generally associated?

    1. ADecolonising the State
    2. BDecolonising the Mind
    3. CDecolonising the Body
    4. DDecolonising the Polity

    Answer: (B) Decolonising the Mind

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  89. Question 89

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Novel)List-II (Author)
    A. Don QuixoteI. Machado de Assis
    B. Sorrows of Young WertherII. Honore de Balzac
    C. Lost IllusionsIII. Goethe
    D. Epitaph of a Small WinnerIV. Miguel de Cervantes
    1. AA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
    3. CA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    4. DA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    Answer: (C) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

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  90. Question 90

    Charles Lamb used the pseudonym Elia for writing in which of the following periodicals?

    1. ALondon Magazine
    2. BThe Edinburgh Review
    3. CThe Quarterly Review
    4. DAthenaeum

    Answer: (A) London Magazine

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  91. Question 91

    In "Mr Bennett and Mrs Brown" Virginia Woolf:

    1. Aresponds to E. M. Forster's remarks on character in fiction.
    2. Bcriticises book buying preferences of the educated English class.
    3. Canalyses the state of modern fiction by contrasting two generations of writers.
    4. Dpresents modernity as a stable and coherent project uniting all artists.

    Answer: (C) analyses the state of modern fiction by contrasting two generations of writers.

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  92. Question 92

    In "Politics and the English Language" which two of the following 'tricks' are mentioned by George Orwell as 'bad habits' of English use?

    A. obsolete words
    B. pretentious diction
    C. dying metaphors
    D. false modifiers

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CB and D only
    4. DC and D only

    Answer: (B) B and C only

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  93. Question 93

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Essay)List-II (Essayist)
    A. "The Tory Fox-Hunter"I. Francis Bacon
    B. "What I Believe"II. Joseph Addison
    C. "The Death of the Moth"III. E. M. Forster
    D. "Of Ambition"IV. Virginia Woolf
    1. AA-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
    2. BA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    3. CA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (C) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

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  94. Question 94

    Arrange the following characters in their chronological sequence of appearance:

    A. Mirabell
    B. Shylock
    C. Jimmy Porter
    D. Sir Epicure Mammon

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AD, B, A, C
    2. BB, D, A, C
    3. CD, B, C, A
    4. DB, D, C, A

    Answer: (B) B, D, A, C

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  95. Question 95

    Which two of the following concepts are deployed in the work of Frederic Jameson?

    A. Pastiche
    B. Hyperreal
    C. Schizophrenia
    D. Habitus

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BC and D only
    3. CB and D only
    4. DA and C only

    Answer: (D) A and C only

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  96. Question 96

    Arrange the following plays in their chronological sequence:

    A. Sergeant Musgrave's Dance
    B. The Playboy of the Western World
    C. Look Back in Anger
    D. Man and Superman

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AD, B, A, C
    2. BB, D, A, C
    3. CD, B, C, A
    4. DB, D, C, A

    Answer: (C) D, B, C, A

    Explanation

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  97. Question 97

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Text)List-II (Author)
    A. Modernity at LargeI. J. Urry
    B. The Tourist GazeII. E. W. Said
    C. Culture and ImperialismIII. C. L. R. James
    D. The Black JacobinsIV. A. Appadurai
    1. AA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    2. BA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    3. CA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (D) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Explanation

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  98. Question 98

    What might the speaker mean when he addresses 'Time' in a Shakespearean sonnet and declares that "I will be true, despite thy scythe and thee"?

    A. Time preserves human life.
    B. With time comes change.
    C. Time creates opportunities.
    D. Time removes human life.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BC and D only
    3. CB and D only
    4. DA and C only

    Answer: (C) B and D only

    Explanation

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  99. Question 99

    Which two of the following stage directions are from Harold Pinter's The Birthday Party?

    A. The living-room of a house on a seaside town.
    B. A garbage pail on the ground next to the porch steps.
    C. A light shows from upstairs bedroom, lower floor windows being dark.
    D. He hangs the drum around his neck, taps it gently with the sticks, then marches round the table, beating it regularly.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and D only
    2. BC and D only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DA and C only

    Answer: (A) A and D only

    Explanation

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  100. Question 100

    Arrange the following lines of poetry in their chronological sequence:

    A. "An aged man is but a paltry thing."
    B. "The world is too much with us."
    C. "Daddy, I have had to kill you."
    D. "After great pain, a formal feeling comes -"

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AB, D, A, C
    2. BD, B, A, C
    3. CD, B, C, A
    4. DB, D, C, A

    Answer: (A) B, D, A, C

    Explanation

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Spotted a shift or questions missing from this paper?

Paper 1 — General Aptitude · Shift 2

Attempt this paper

50 questions with the answer key and explanations.

  1. Question 1

    Find out the total number of male students in the college during 2018-2020.

    Study the given table carefully and answer the questions that follow.

    The given table has the number of students enrolled for different courses in 5 different years along with their male and female categorization.

    YearBScBABCom
    MFMFMF
    201638022052040520080
    201739023052541721085
    201839523553542721287
    201940525053843021591
    202041527554343822197

    Students enrolled in BSc, BA and BCom by year and gender

    1. A3479
    2. B3480
    3. C3481
    4. D3482

    Answer: (A) 3479

    Explanation

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  2. Question 2

    Find out the ratio between female students of BA and BCom during 2016-2020.

    Study the given table carefully and answer the questions that follow.

    The given table has the number of students enrolled for different courses in 5 different years along with their male and female categorization.

    YearBScBABCom
    MFMFMF
    201638022052040520080
    201739023052541721085
    201839523553542721287
    201940525053843021591
    202041527554343822197

    Students enrolled in BSc, BA and BCom by year and gender

    1. A2115/442
    2. B2115/440
    3. C2117/442
    4. D2117/440

    Answer: (D) 2117/440

    Explanation

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  3. Question 3

    Find out the ratio between the percentage increase of male students and the percentage increase of female students from 2016 to 2017.

    Study the given table carefully and answer the questions that follow.

    The given table has the number of students enrolled for different courses in 5 different years along with their male and female categorization.

    YearBScBABCom
    MFMFMF
    201638022052040520080
    201739023052541721085
    201839523553542721287
    201940525053843021591
    202041527554343822197

    Students enrolled in BSc, BA and BCom by year and gender

    1. A2.5/3.6
    2. B2.2/3.6
    3. C2.5/3.8
    4. D2.2/3.8

    Answer: (D) 2.2/3.8

    Explanation

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  4. Question 4

    Find out the average of difference between male and female students for the BA course during 2016-2020.

    Study the given table carefully and answer the questions that follow.

    The given table has the number of students enrolled for different courses in 5 different years along with their male and female categorization.

    YearBScBABCom
    MFMFMF
    201638022052040520080
    201739023052541721085
    201839523553542721287
    201940525053843021591
    202041527554343822197

    Students enrolled in BSc, BA and BCom by year and gender

    1. A105.3
    2. B109.2
    3. C108.8
    4. D107.4

    Answer: (C) 108.8

    Explanation

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  5. Question 5

    Which year has the minimum percentage increase of male students in the college (including all courses)?

    Study the given table carefully and answer the questions that follow.

    The given table has the number of students enrolled for different courses in 5 different years along with their male and female categorization.

    YearBScBABCom
    MFMFMF
    201638022052040520080
    201739023052541721085
    201839523553542721287
    201940525053843021591
    202041527554343822197

    Students enrolled in BSc, BA and BCom by year and gender

    1. A2017
    2. B2018
    3. C2019
    4. D2020

    Answer: (C) 2019

    Explanation

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  6. Question 6

    What is the name of the concept to describe the magnitude of gains from any given change in an educational practice and thus to predict what we can hope to accomplish by using that practice?

    1. APluralism
    2. BArgumentation
    3. CEffect size
    4. DEmpathy

    Answer: (C) Effect size

    Explanation

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  7. Question 7

    Identify the correct sequence for phases of personal growth in the non-directive interview process.

    A. Develops insight
    B. Integration
    C. Release of feelings
    D. Action
    E. New orientation

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    A. Develops insight

    B. Integration

    C. Release of feelings

    D. Action

    E. New orientation

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. AA, B, C, D, E
    2. BB, E, D, A, C
    3. CC, A, D, B, E
    4. DC, E, B, A, D

    Answer: (C) C, A, D, B, E

    Explanation

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  8. Question 8

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Behaviour theory does not concentrate on observable behaviour.

    Statement II: Behaviour theory approach involves continuous inquiry.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Explanation

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  9. Question 9

    Which of the following are popular software (apps) used for conducting online conferences?

    A. Big Blue Button
    B. ZOOM
    C. KOHA
    D. Microsoft Teams
    E. Moodle

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BA, C and E only
    3. CA, B and D only
    4. DC, D and E only

    Answer: (C) A, B and D only

    Explanation

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  10. Question 10

    Match List I with List II:

    List I (Erikson's stages of psychological development)
    A. Basic trust versus basic mistrust
    B. Industry versus inferiority
    C. Intimacy versus isolation
    D. Generativity versus stagnation

    List II (Relevant illustrations)
    I. Parenting / mentoring
    II. Love relationships
    III. School
    IV. Feeding

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Match List I with List II

    List I: Erikson's Stages of Psychological DevelopmentList II: Relevant Illustrations
    A. Basic trust versus Basic mistrustI. Parenting/mentoring
    B. Industry versus inferiorityII. Love relationships
    C. Intimacy versus isolationIII. School
    D. Generativity versus stagnationIV. Feeding

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    Erikson's stages of psychological development and relevant illustrations

    1. AA - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
    2. BA - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
    3. CA - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
    4. DA - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

    Answer: (C) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

    Explanation

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  11. Question 11

    If the research is to be conducted on very young children or inarticulate persons, which one of the following methods will be appropriate in this situation?

    1. AExperiment
    2. BSurvey
    3. CObservation
    4. DCase history

    Answer: (C) Observation

    Explanation

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  12. Question 12

    The objective of exploring the existing literature should be to identify which of the following issues?

    A. What is already known about this area?
    B. What concepts and theories are relevant to this area?
    C. How to get funding for the research?
    D. What are the significant controversies in this area?
    E. Are there any inconsistencies in the findings of this area?

    1. AA, B, C and D only
    2. BB, C, D and E only
    3. CA, B, D and E only
    4. DA, B, C and E only

    Answer: (C) A, B, D and E only

    Explanation

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  13. Question 13

    Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:

    Assertion A: A proposition is a statement about observable phenomena (concepts) that may be judged as true or false.

    Reason R: When a proposition is formulated for empirical testing, it is called a hypothesis.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is correct but R is not correct
    4. DA is not correct but R is correct

    Answer: (B) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

    Explanation

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  14. Question 14

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Context of discovery involves non-rational, intuitive processes while context of justification is based on logical processes.

    Statement II: The process of hypothesis generation doesn't strictly follow rigorous logical reasoning.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

    Explanation

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  15. Question 15

    Match List I with List II:

    List I (Contexts)
    A. Context of discovery
    B. Inductive reasoning
    C. Abductive reasoning
    D. Context of justification

    List II (Examples)
    I. From the particular to a generalisation
    II. Testing or verifying the hypothesis
    III. Hypothesis generation
    IV. Inference based on some observations

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Match List I with List II

    List I: ContextsList II: Examples
    A. Context of discoveryI. From the particular to a generalisation
    B. Inductive reasoningII. Testing or verifying the hypothesis
    C. Abductive reasoningIII. Hypothesis generation
    D. Context of justificationIV. Inference based on some observations

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    Contexts/reasoning types and examples

    1. AA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    2. BA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    3. CA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
    4. DA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    Answer: (D) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    Explanation

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  16. Question 16

    Colour, as a means of communication, has meanings that mostly emanate from one's own _____.

    1. AChoices
    2. BEducational background
    3. CSocial status
    4. DCulture

    Answer: (D) Culture

    Explanation

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  17. Question 17

    Human communication involves:

    A. Patterned social interactions
    B. Use of abstract meanings only
    C. Conflict-oriented actions only
    D. Neural activities of the brain
    E. Psychological activities

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    A. Patterned social interactions

    B. Use of abstract meanings only

    C. Conflict-oriented actions only

    D. Neural activities of the brain

    E. Psychological activities

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CA, D and E only
    4. DC, D and E only

    Answer: (C) A, D and E only

    Explanation

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  18. Question 18

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: A two-way communication takes place when the encoding and decoding are in operation with equal frequency by two or more individuals.

    Statement II: The communicator and the communicatee are related by the communication circuits and the success of communication depends upon the level of reciprocity between them.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

    Explanation

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  19. Question 19

    Identify the correct sequence of the following types of visual communication.

    A. Objects
    B. Maps
    C. Graphs
    D. Photographs
    E. Models

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    A. Objects

    B. Maps

    C. Graphs

    D. Photographs

    E. Models

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, D, C, E
    2. BA, E, C, B, D
    3. CB, D, E, C, A
    4. DC, A, D, B, E

    Answer: (B) A, E, C, B, D

    Explanation

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  20. Question 20

    Match List I with List II:

    List I (Communication components)
    A. Medium
    B. Channel
    C. Codes
    D. Content information

    List II (Description)
    I. Facts
    II. Verbal and non-verbal signs
    III. Route by which the message travels
    IV. Physical means to transmit the message

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Match List I with List II

    List I: Communication ComponentsList II: Description
    A. MediumI. Facts
    B. ChannelII. Verbal and non-verbal signs
    C. CodesIII. Route by which the message travels
    D. Content informationIV. Physical means to transmit the message

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    Communication components and descriptions

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    4. DA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    Answer: (D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    Explanation

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  21. Question 21

    Analogies have been used for which of the following purposes?

    A. Inductive reasoning
    B. Deductive reasoning
    C. Description
    D. Explanation

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    A. Inductive reasoning

    B. Deductive reasoning

    C. Description

    D. Explanation

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BA, B and D only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (C) A, C and D only

    Explanation

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  22. Question 22

    Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:

    Assertion A: Naiyāyikas do not accept non-apprehension (anupalabdhi) as a distinct source of knowledge (pramāna).

    Reason R: According to Naiyāyikas, non-apprehension can be covered under inference (anumāna).

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is true but R is false
    4. DA is false but R is true

    Answer: (C) A is true but R is false

    Explanation

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  23. Question 23

    Match List I with List II (traditional square of opposition):

    List I
    A. If 'Some flowers are pink' is false
    B. If 'No girls are birds' is true
    C. If 'Some boys are not tall' is false
    D. If 'All chocolates are sweet' is true

    List II (Resultant)
    I. 'I' is false; 'O' is true
    II. 'A' is false; 'E' is true
    III. 'I' is true; 'O' is false
    IV. 'E' is false; 'I' is true

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Match List I with List II

    List I: In Square of oppositionList II: Resultant
    A. If 'Some flowers are pink' is FalseI. 'I' is False; 'O' is True
    B. If 'No girls are birds' is TrueII. 'A' is False; 'E' is True
    C. If 'Some boys are not tall' is FalseIII. 'I' is True; 'O' is False
    D. If 'All chocolates are sweet' is TrueIV. 'E' is False; 'I' is true

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    Square of opposition statements and resultants

    1. AA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    2. BA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    3. CA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    4. DA-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

    Answer: (C) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Explanation

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  24. Question 24

    Identify the fallacy committed in the argument below.

    Some good actors are not strong men.

    All professional wrestlers are strong men.

    Therefore, all professional wrestlers are good actors.

    1. AFallacy of Undistributed Middle
    2. BFallacy of Illicit Major
    3. CFallacy of Illicit Minor
    4. DFallacy of drawing affirmative conclusions from negative premise

    Answer: (D) Fallacy of drawing affirmative conclusions from negative premise

    Explanation

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  25. Question 25

    Anumāna has been accepted as an independent source of valid knowledge (pramāna) by which of the following schools?

    A. Buddhists
    B. Naiyāyikas
    C. Cārvākas
    D. Mīmāmsakas
    E. Advaitins

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    A. Buddhists

    B. Naiyāyikas

    C. Cārvākas

    D. Mīmāmsakas

    E. Advaitins

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA, B and C only
    3. CB, C, D and E only
    4. DA, B, D and E only

    Answer: (D) A, B, D and E only

    Explanation

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  26. Question 26

    Which one of the following is a part of the processor?

    1. AAddress bus
    2. BData bus
    3. CCache memory
    4. DControl unit

    Answer: (D) Control unit

    Explanation

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  27. Question 27

    What is a disk defragmenter?

    1. ARearrange blocks of data to store files in contiguous sectors
    2. BCheck disk drives for empty space
    3. CCompress data before writing it on the hard disk
    4. DCarry out a backup procedure

    Answer: (A) Rearrange blocks of data to store files in contiguous sectors

    Explanation

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  28. Question 28

    Given below are two statements regarding the Hard Disk Drive (HDD):

    Statement I: HDD use circular platters coated in magnetic material.

    Statement II: Access to data is faster than with RAM.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

    Explanation

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  29. Question 29

    Which of the following statements regarding modems are correct?

    A. It is used to convert digital data into analogue.
    B. It also converts analogue data into digital data.
    C. It sends the data packet to specific addresses.
    D. It inspects data packets received over the internet.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    A. It is used to convert digital data into analogue

    B. It also converts analogue data into digital data

    C. Sends the data packet to specific addresses

    D. Inspects data packets received over the internet

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DA and B only

    Answer: (D) A and B only

    Explanation

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  30. Question 30

    Match List I with List II:

    List I (Network addresses)
    A. IP address
    B. MAC address
    C. Socket address
    D. URL address

    List II (Respective layers)
    I. Application layer
    II. Network layer
    III. Transport layer
    IV. Data link layer

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Match List I with List II

    List I: Network AddressesList II: Respective Layers
    A. IP AddressI. Application Layer
    B. MAC AddressII. Network Layer
    C. Socket AddressIII. Transport Layer
    D. URL AddressIV. Data Link Layer

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    Network addresses and respective layers

    1. AA-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
    2. BA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    3. CA-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
    4. DA-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

    Answer: (A) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

    Explanation

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  31. Question 31

    Eutrophication in a water body leads to which of the following?

    A. Bloom of algae
    B. Increase in the level of dissolved oxygen (DO)
    C. Increase in turbidity and odour of the water body
    D. Difficulty in sustaining normal aquatic life
    E. Deficiency of nutrients

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    A. Bloom of algae

    B. Increase in the level of dissolved oxygen (DO)

    C. Increase in turbidity and odor of the water body

    D. Difficulty in sustaining normal aquatic life

    E. Deficiency of nutrients

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DC, D and E only

    Answer: (C) A, C and D only

    Explanation

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  32. Question 32

    Which of the following has positive radiative forcing or warming effect in the global climate?

    1. ATropospheric Ozone
    2. BStratospheric Ozone
    3. CSulphate Aerosol
    4. DSulphur dioxide

    Answer: (A) Tropospheric Ozone

    Explanation

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  33. Question 33

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Methanol (CH₃OH), also known as wood alcohol, has a much higher octane rating than gasoline.

    Statement II: Methanol burns with a higher flame temperature than gasoline or diesel. Thus, it produces a higher amount of NOx.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

    Explanation

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  34. Question 34

    Who is the Executive Head of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)?

    1. APresident of India
    2. BPrime Minister of India
    3. CChief of the Army Staff
    4. DA member of Parliament appointed by the President

    Answer: (B) Prime Minister of India

    Explanation

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  35. Question 35

    The primary treatment of wastewater involves removal of

    1. ASolids
    2. BColloids
    3. COrganic water
    4. DMicroorganisms

    Answer: (A) Solids

    Explanation

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  36. Question 36

    The NSQF (National Skills Qualifications Framework) organises qualifications according to a series of levels of

    1. AKnowledge, Skills, Experience
    2. BSkills, Experience, Aptitude
    3. CKnowledge, Skills, Aptitude
    4. DSkills, Achievement, Aptitude

    Answer: (C) Knowledge, Skills, Aptitude

    Explanation

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  37. Question 37

    Which one of the following is not an objective of higher education?

    1. ATeaching
    2. BResearch
    3. CImproving literacy levels
    4. DCareer Development

    Answer: (C) Improving literacy levels

    Explanation

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  38. Question 38

    "Destiny of India is being shaped in her classrooms." This is stated in

    1. ANPE - 1986
    2. BNKC report
    3. CEducation Commission
    4. DUniversity Education Commission

    Answer: (C) Education Commission

    Explanation

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  39. Question 39

    Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:

    Assertion A: Environmental education makes individuals aware of environmental issues, explore and analyse the causes and effectiveness of the issues, and promotes environmental sustainability.

    Reason R: It is very essential to think and act creatively to become technically capable and trained to approach environmental issues in a proactive manner.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is correct but R is not correct
    4. DA is not correct but R is correct

    Answer: (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

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  40. Question 40

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: The Hansa Mehta committee made a recommendation that there is a need to make differentiation in curriculum on the basis of sex.

    Statement II: The Bhaktavatsalam committee recommended that the government and public should both act jointly, realise their responsibilities and proceed in a planned manner with regard to the education of girls in future.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Explanation

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  41. Question 41

    Internet is considered as a prime medium for its

    Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow

    Besides being hailed as a technology which can deliver the 'global village', the Internet is also promoted as a singular medium which allows for democratised processes which were not previously possible in the era of broadcast. But what kinds of democracy are being postulated here? Traditionally, and more than ever now, democracy is heavily aligned with the nation-state. Because of this, no sense is made of the claim that the Internet enables universal participation in the democratic process. The point here is the practices of communication afforded by computer-mediated communication may be able to substitute some of the functions of the mass media - for example, in the formation of pre-institutional public opinion. But these practices do not necessarily exert pressure on the institutional apparatuses of politics. Of course, the mass media themselves, as a means of electronically mediated communication, can never replace the institutional apparatuses of politics, and as found out by numerous studies, have been just as much used by politicians as they have influenced them. The internet can be classified as a global technology, which enables connections with individuals and institutions overseas just as easily as it does nationally, regionally or locally. If there is an imagined community on the Internet, it is definitely not the nation-state. State bounded kinds of citizenship cannot be considered coterminous with the kinds of citizenship which are achieved on the Internet. However, this is not to argue that a global sense of citizenship, even if it too is an 'imagined one', cannot exist. Recent protests against international financial institutions such as the World Bank were organised almost entirely through Internet media - a case of not-so-visible electronic assemblies producing very visible embodied assemblies. But even that the experience of community on the Internet is not limited to national boundaries, it is also important to consider the shape and structure of virtual communities.

    1. AFar-reaching accessibility
    2. BPromotion of a new type of democratisation
    3. CPosition as a technological medium
    4. DBetter than the broadcast medium

    Answer: (A) Far-reaching accessibility

    Explanation

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  42. Question 42

    Even now the nation-state influences

    Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow

    Besides being hailed as a technology which can deliver the 'global village', the Internet is also promoted as a singular medium which allows for democratised processes which were not previously possible in the era of broadcast. But what kinds of democracy are being postulated here? Traditionally, and more than ever now, democracy is heavily aligned with the nation-state. Because of this, no sense is made of the claim that the Internet enables universal participation in the democratic process. The point here is the practices of communication afforded by computer-mediated communication may be able to substitute some of the functions of the mass media - for example, in the formation of pre-institutional public opinion. But these practices do not necessarily exert pressure on the institutional apparatuses of politics. Of course, the mass media themselves, as a means of electronically mediated communication, can never replace the institutional apparatuses of politics, and as found out by numerous studies, have been just as much used by politicians as they have influenced them. The internet can be classified as a global technology, which enables connections with individuals and institutions overseas just as easily as it does nationally, regionally or locally. If there is an imagined community on the Internet, it is definitely not the nation-state. State bounded kinds of citizenship cannot be considered coterminous with the kinds of citizenship which are achieved on the Internet. However, this is not to argue that a global sense of citizenship, even if it too is an 'imagined one', cannot exist. Recent protests against international financial institutions such as the World Bank were organised almost entirely through Internet media - a case of not-so-visible electronic assemblies producing very visible embodied assemblies. But even that the experience of community on the Internet is not limited to national boundaries, it is also important to consider the shape and structure of virtual communities.

    1. AIts citizens
    2. BIts imagined communities
    3. CThe democratic process
    4. DThe globalisation concept

    Answer: (C) The democratic process

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  43. Question 43

    In what way can the internet play a role in modern society?

    Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow

    Besides being hailed as a technology which can deliver the 'global village', the Internet is also promoted as a singular medium which allows for democratised processes which were not previously possible in the era of broadcast. But what kinds of democracy are being postulated here? Traditionally, and more than ever now, democracy is heavily aligned with the nation-state. Because of this, no sense is made of the claim that the Internet enables universal participation in the democratic process. The point here is the practices of communication afforded by computer-mediated communication may be able to substitute some of the functions of the mass media - for example, in the formation of pre-institutional public opinion. But these practices do not necessarily exert pressure on the institutional apparatuses of politics. Of course, the mass media themselves, as a means of electronically mediated communication, can never replace the institutional apparatuses of politics, and as found out by numerous studies, have been just as much used by politicians as they have influenced them. The internet can be classified as a global technology, which enables connections with individuals and institutions overseas just as easily as it does nationally, regionally or locally. If there is an imagined community on the Internet, it is definitely not the nation-state. State bounded kinds of citizenship cannot be considered coterminous with the kinds of citizenship which are achieved on the Internet. However, this is not to argue that a global sense of citizenship, even if it too is an 'imagined one', cannot exist. Recent protests against international financial institutions such as the World Bank were organised almost entirely through Internet media - a case of not-so-visible electronic assemblies producing very visible embodied assemblies. But even that the experience of community on the Internet is not limited to national boundaries, it is also important to consider the shape and structure of virtual communities.

    1. ABy shaping institutional public opinion
    2. BBeing a substitute to traditional broadcast media
    3. CBy taking an active part as a political institution
    4. DBy playing a supportive role to conventional media

    Answer: (A) By shaping institutional public opinion

    Explanation

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  44. Question 44

    What is the main weakness of the Internet?

    Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow

    Besides being hailed as a technology which can deliver the 'global village', the Internet is also promoted as a singular medium which allows for democratised processes which were not previously possible in the era of broadcast. But what kinds of democracy are being postulated here? Traditionally, and more than ever now, democracy is heavily aligned with the nation-state. Because of this, no sense is made of the claim that the Internet enables universal participation in the democratic process. The point here is the practices of communication afforded by computer-mediated communication may be able to substitute some of the functions of the mass media - for example, in the formation of pre-institutional public opinion. But these practices do not necessarily exert pressure on the institutional apparatuses of politics. Of course, the mass media themselves, as a means of electronically mediated communication, can never replace the institutional apparatuses of politics, and as found out by numerous studies, have been just as much used by politicians as they have influenced them. The internet can be classified as a global technology, which enables connections with individuals and institutions overseas just as easily as it does nationally, regionally or locally. If there is an imagined community on the Internet, it is definitely not the nation-state. State bounded kinds of citizenship cannot be considered coterminous with the kinds of citizenship which are achieved on the Internet. However, this is not to argue that a global sense of citizenship, even if it too is an 'imagined one', cannot exist. Recent protests against international financial institutions such as the World Bank were organised almost entirely through Internet media - a case of not-so-visible electronic assemblies producing very visible embodied assemblies. But even that the experience of community on the Internet is not limited to national boundaries, it is also important to consider the shape and structure of virtual communities.

    1. AIt cannot produce a global sense of citizenship
    2. BVirtual citizenship is coterminous with national citizenship
    3. CElectronic media is more powerful than the Internet
    4. DIt cannot substitute political institutions

    Answer: (D) It cannot substitute political institutions

    Explanation

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  45. Question 45

    The crux of the passage is that the Internet:

    Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow

    Besides being hailed as a technology which can deliver the 'global village', the Internet is also promoted as a singular medium which allows for democratised processes which were not previously possible in the era of broadcast. But what kinds of democracy are being postulated here? Traditionally, and more than ever now, democracy is heavily aligned with the nation-state. Because of this, no sense is made of the claim that the Internet enables universal participation in the democratic process. The point here is the practices of communication afforded by computer-mediated communication may be able to substitute some of the functions of the mass media - for example, in the formation of pre-institutional public opinion. But these practices do not necessarily exert pressure on the institutional apparatuses of politics. Of course, the mass media themselves, as a means of electronically mediated communication, can never replace the institutional apparatuses of politics, and as found out by numerous studies, have been just as much used by politicians as they have influenced them. The internet can be classified as a global technology, which enables connections with individuals and institutions overseas just as easily as it does nationally, regionally or locally. If there is an imagined community on the Internet, it is definitely not the nation-state. State bounded kinds of citizenship cannot be considered coterminous with the kinds of citizenship which are achieved on the Internet. However, this is not to argue that a global sense of citizenship, even if it too is an 'imagined one', cannot exist. Recent protests against international financial institutions such as the World Bank were organised almost entirely through Internet media - a case of not-so-visible electronic assemblies producing very visible embodied assemblies. But even that the experience of community on the Internet is not limited to national boundaries, it is also important to consider the shape and structure of virtual communities.

    1. Ais an all-powerful medium
    2. Bcan provide segmented experience of the world
    3. Chas limited use in politics
    4. Dcan help organise people's assemblies

    Answer: (D) can help organise people's assemblies

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  46. Question 46

    What comes next in the following sequence?

    1, 2, 3, 7, 16, 65, ?

    1. A225
    2. B321
    3. C228
    4. D287

    Answer: (B) 321

    Explanation

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  47. Question 47

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: A culture of bacteria quadruples every hour. If a bottle with these bacteria was half-full at 7 am, then at 6 am on the same day, the bottle was one-eighth full.

    Statement II: The average of the first 31 natural numbers is 16.5.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

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  48. Question 48

    Two trains are moving in the same direction at 60 km/hr and 45 km/hr. The faster train passes a girl sitting in the slower train in 15 seconds. The length of the faster train is

    1. A22.5 m
    2. B225 m
    3. C62.5 m
    4. D165 m

    Answer: (C) 62.5 m

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  49. Question 49

    Six years ago, the ratio of the ages of Ravi and Laxmi was 6 : 5. Four years hence, the ratio will be 11 : 10. Ravi's age at present is

    1. A10 years
    2. B18 years
    3. C12 years
    4. D16 years

    Answer: (B) 18 years

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  50. Question 50

    A vendor marks all his goods at 50% above the cost price and then offers a discount of 25% on the marked price. What is his profit on the sales?

    1. A25%
    2. B12.50%
    3. C22.50%
    4. D20.50%

    Answer: (B) 12.50%

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Spotted a shift or questions missing from this paper?

Paper 2 — English Literature · Shift 2

Attempt this paper

100 questions with the answer key and explanations.

  1. Question 1

    Which of the following best captures the theme of the passage?

    The aim of all solitude is the same: to live more at leisure and at one's ease. But people do not always look for the right way. Often they think they have left business, and they have only changed it. There is scarcely less trouble in governing a family than in governing an entire state: whatever the mind is wrapped up in, it is all wrapped up in it, and domestic occupations are no less importunate for being less important. Furthermore, by getting rid of the court and the marketplace we do not get rid of the principal worries of our life. Ambition, avarice, irresolution, fear and lust do not leave us when we change our country. They often follow us even into the cloisters and schools of philosophy. Neither deserts, nor rocky caves, nor hair shirts, nor fastings will free us of them.

    — Michel de Montaigne, "Of Solitude"

    1. AThe court and the marketplace must be got rid of.
    2. BTry what one may, no one can ever be at ease.
    3. CRuling a state is easier than managing a family.
    4. DSolitude is one condition of peace with one self.

    Answer: (D) Solitude is one condition of peace with one self.

    Explanation

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  2. Question 2

    The mistake human beings make is to:

    The aim of all solitude is the same: to live more at leisure and at one's ease. But people do not always look for the right way. Often they think they have left business, and they have only changed it. There is scarcely less trouble in governing a family than in governing an entire state: whatever the mind is wrapped up in, it is all wrapped up in it, and domestic occupations are no less importunate for being less important. Furthermore, by getting rid of the court and the marketplace we do not get rid of the principal worries of our life. Ambition, avarice, irresolution, fear and lust do not leave us when we change our country. They often follow us even into the cloisters and schools of philosophy. Neither deserts, nor rocky caves, nor hair shirts, nor fastings will free us of them.

    — Michel de Montaigne, "Of Solitude"

    1. Aabjure solitude when desirable.
    2. Babstain from the love of leisure.
    3. Cexaggerate the value of family.
    4. Dabstain from restraining the mind.

    Answer: (D) abstain from restraining the mind.

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  3. Question 3

    The "principal worries of our life" follow us if we:

    A. detach ourselves from family life.
    B. are deep into buying and selling.
    C. mentally abstain from the hustle and bustle.
    D. are in to schools of philosophy.

    Choose the correct combination from the options.

    The aim of all solitude is the same: to live more at leisure and at one's ease. But people do not always look for the right way. Often they think they have left business, and they have only changed it. There is scarcely less trouble in governing a family than in governing an entire state: whatever the mind is wrapped up in, it is all wrapped up in it, and domestic occupations are no less importunate for being less important. Furthermore, by getting rid of the court and the marketplace we do not get rid of the principal worries of our life. Ambition, avarice, irresolution, fear and lust do not leave us when we change our country. They often follow us even into the cloisters and schools of philosophy. Neither deserts, nor rocky caves, nor hair shirts, nor fastings will free us of them.

    — Michel de Montaigne, "Of Solitude"

    1. AB and D only
    2. BA and C only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DB and C only

    Answer: (B) A and C only

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  4. Question 4

    Thoughts true for all time are:

    A Prayer for Old Age

    God guard me from those thoughts men think
    In the mind alone;
    He that sings a lasting song
    Thinks in a marrow-bone;

    From all that makes a wise old man
    That can be praised of all;
    O what am I that I should not seem
    For the song's sake a fool?

    I pray — for fashion's word is out
    And prayer comes round again —
    That I may seem, though I die old,
    A foolish, passionate man.

    — W. B. Yeats

    1. Aborn of God's care.
    2. Bfor all human hearts.
    3. Cimbued with logic of mind.
    4. Dfelt deep inside the self.

    Answer: (D) felt deep inside the self.

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  5. Question 5

    In the second stanza the poet thinks of:

    A Prayer for Old Age

    God guard me from those thoughts men think
    In the mind alone;
    He that sings a lasting song
    Thinks in a marrow-bone;

    From all that makes a wise old man
    That can be praised of all;
    O what am I that I should not seem
    For the song's sake a fool?

    I pray — for fashion's word is out
    And prayer comes round again —
    That I may seem, though I die old,
    A foolish, passionate man.

    — W. B. Yeats

    1. Awhat all makes a wise old man.
    2. Bwhat all earns all others' praise.
    3. Cwhat he does not want to appear.
    4. Dwhat he thinks he is, a fool.

    Answer: (A) what all makes a wise old man.

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  6. Question 6

    Which one of the following best captures what we infer about the poet?

    A Prayer for Old Age

    God guard me from those thoughts men think
    In the mind alone;
    He that sings a lasting song
    Thinks in a marrow-bone;

    From all that makes a wise old man
    That can be praised of all;
    O what am I that I should not seem
    For the song's sake a fool?

    I pray — for fashion's word is out
    And prayer comes round again —
    That I may seem, though I die old,
    A foolish, passionate man.

    — W. B. Yeats

    1. AHe believes in the efficacy of prayer.
    2. BHe is an old man wise as old are.
    3. CHe is old but happy in not being wise.
    4. DHe is a foolish young man who thinks wisely.

    Answer: (C) He is old but happy in not being wise.

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  7. Question 7

    The whole description is an example of:

    The earth was made for Dombey and Son to trade in, and the sun and moon were made to give them light. Rivers and seas were formed to float their ships; rainbows gave them promise of fair weather; winds blew for or against their enterprises; stars and planets circled in their orbits, to preserve inviolate a system of which they were the centre. Common abbreviations took new meanings in his eyes, and had sole reference to them: A. D. had no concern with anno Domini, but stood for anno Dombey — and Son.

    — Charles Dickens, Dombey and Son

    1. Aaporia.
    2. Bimage.
    3. Canalogy.
    4. Dsarcasm.

    Answer: (C) analogy.

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  8. Question 8

    What is the 'system' of which Dombey and Son were the centre?

    The earth was made for Dombey and Son to trade in, and the sun and moon were made to give them light. Rivers and seas were formed to float their ships; rainbows gave them promise of fair weather; winds blew for or against their enterprises; stars and planets circled in their orbits, to preserve inviolate a system of which they were the centre. Common abbreviations took new meanings in his eyes, and had sole reference to them: A. D. had no concern with anno Domini, but stood for anno Dombey — and Son.

    — Charles Dickens, Dombey and Son

    1. AThe British political system
    2. BThe country's commerce
    3. CThe family business
    4. DThe workings of nature

    Answer: (D) The workings of nature

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  9. Question 9

    'Is man no more than this?' means:

    Is man no more than this? Consider him well. Thou ow'st the worm no silk, the beast no hide, the sheep no wool, the cat no perfume. Ha! here's three on's are sophisticated. Thou art the thing itself; unaccommodated man is no more than such a poor, bare, forked animal as thou art.

    — Shakespeare, King Lear

    1. AMan is far more than what he seems to be.
    2. BMan is not as well endowed as some other animals.
    3. CAccomodated man is well endowed.
    4. DAs an animal, man is a superior animal.

    Answer: (B) Man is not as well endowed as some other animals.

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  10. Question 10

    Which one of the following best captures what Shakespeare means?

    Is man no more than this? Consider him well. Thou ow'st the worm no silk, the beast no hide, the sheep no wool, the cat no perfume. Ha! here's three on's are sophisticated. Thou art the thing itself; unaccommodated man is no more than such a poor, bare, forked animal as thou art.

    — Shakespeare, King Lear

    1. AMan just uses what animals possess.
    2. BAnimals' attributes are external.
    3. CMan can accommodate same properties.
    4. DAnimals unlike man are more complex.

    Answer: (C) Man can accommodate same properties.

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  11. Question 11

    Who among the following was of the view that poetry was only an imitation of an imitation and therefore trivial?

    1. APlato
    2. BXenocrates
    3. CPhaedo
    4. DAristotle

    Answer: (A) Plato

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  12. Question 12

    In "The Life of Cowley" which two of the following criticisms were made by Samuel Johnson against a group of writers he termed the 'metaphysical poets'?

    A. They made an inappropriate combination of wit and imagination.
    B. Instead of writing poetry, they only wrote verses.
    C. They neither copied nature nor life.
    D. They never tried to be singular in their thoughts.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CB and D only
    4. DC and D only

    Answer: (B) B and C only

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  13. Question 13

    In "The Function of Criticism at the Present Time" what is proposed by Matthew Arnold as the essence of criticism?

    1. Aaffirmation
    2. Bjudiciousness
    3. Cdisinterestedness
    4. Dcohesiveness

    Answer: (C) disinterestedness

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  14. Question 14

    How does T.S. Eliot sum up the peculiar quality of Marvell's "Horatian Ode"?

    1. A'telescoping of images and multiplied associations'
    2. B'a tough reasonableness beneath a slight lyric grace'
    3. C'a contrast of ideas, different in degree but the same in principle'
    4. D'heterogeneity of materials compelled into unity'

    Answer: (B) 'a tough reasonableness beneath a slight lyric grace'

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  15. Question 15

    In his recasting the canon of English poetry in New Bearings in English Poetry which of the following pairs was downgraded by F.R. Leavis?

    1. ABrowning and Arnold
    2. BTennyson and Swinburne
    3. CPound and Hopkins
    4. DMilton and Shelley

    Answer: (D) Milton and Shelley

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  16. Question 16

    Words with the same pronunciation and different meanings are:

    1. Ahomonyms.
    2. Bhomophones.
    3. Chomologues.
    4. Dhomografts.

    Answer: (B) homophones.

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  17. Question 17

    According to Ferdinand de Saussure, language is:

    A. an interlocking structure.
    B. a system of constant change.
    C. a system of signs.
    D. a self-standing formation.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA and C only
    3. CB and D only
    4. DC and D only

    Answer: (B) A and C only

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  18. Question 18

    The set of inflected forms taken by a single word is:

    1. Aphoneme.
    2. Bmorpheme.
    3. Csememe.
    4. Dlexeme.

    Answer: (D) lexeme.

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  19. Question 19

    Which pair of linguists in the following list is associated with 'speech acts'?

    1. ANoam Chomsky and Steven Pinker
    2. BJ.L. Austin and John Searle
    3. CPaul Grice and Michael Devitt
    4. DFranz Boas and Rudolf Carnap

    Answer: (B) J.L. Austin and John Searle

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  20. Question 20

    Usage in "You have hissed the mystery lectures." is an example of:

    1. Aerror of lexical choice.
    2. Binadvertent mistake.
    3. Cspoonerism.
    4. Dmetathesis.

    Answer: (C) spoonerism.

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  21. Question 21

    Who wrote the short story, "The Voter"?

    1. ANgugi wa Thiong'o
    2. BWole Soyinka
    3. CChinua Achebe
    4. DChimamanda Ngozi Adichie

    Answer: (C) Chinua Achebe

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  22. Question 22

    Which character in Hamlet utters the line: "Something is rotten in the state of Denmark"?

    1. AMarcellus
    2. BBernardo
    3. CGhost
    4. DHoratio

    Answer: (A) Marcellus

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  23. Question 23

    Who wrote the essay "My First Acquaintance with Poets"?

    1. ACharles Lamb
    2. BWilliam Hazlitt
    3. CThomas De Quincey
    4. DJohn Ruskin

    Answer: (B) William Hazlitt

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  24. Question 24

    Who wrote a postmodern reworking of Charles Dickens's Great Expectations without altering the original title?

    1. AShirley Jackson
    2. BKathy Acker
    3. CAngela Carter
    4. DPeter Carey

    Answer: (B) Kathy Acker

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  25. Question 25

    Who, in "The World as India," argues that English can be the only common "unifying language" of India?

    1. ASusan Sontag
    2. BNoam Chomsky
    3. CAnthony Burgess
    4. DC. K. Ogden

    Answer: (A) Susan Sontag

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  26. Question 26

    In which book of Paradise Lost does Milton refer to "Agra and Lahore of Great Mogul"?

    1. ABook III
    2. BBook IV
    3. CBook VII
    4. DBook XI

    Answer: (D) Book XI

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  27. Question 27

    Which of the following narrative cycles is referred to in Michel Foucault's "What is an Author?"?

    1. AThe Canterbury Tales
    2. BThe Thousand and One Nights
    3. CThe Decameron
    4. DTuti Namah

    Answer: (B) The Thousand and One Nights

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  28. Question 28

    Who is the author of "The Typology of Detective Fiction"?

    1. AG. K. Chesterton
    2. BUmberto Eco
    3. CTzvetan Todorov
    4. DVladimir Propp

    Answer: (C) Tzvetan Todorov

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  29. Question 29

    Who among the following says that ideology is "a representation of the imaginary relationship of individuals to their real conditions of existence"?

    1. AHerbert Marcuse
    2. BFredric Jameson
    3. CTerry Eagleton
    4. DLouis Althusser

    Answer: (D) Louis Althusser

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  30. Question 30

    Which two among the following condemned the transportation of 50000 slaves into England in 1771?

    A. Samuel Johnson
    B. Alexander Pope
    C. Horace Walpole
    D. Thomas Gray

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and D only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DA and C only

    Answer: (D) A and C only

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  31. Question 31

    Which two are the works of Ted Hughes?

    A. Wildtrack
    B. Wodwo
    C. Lupercal
    D. Jack Straw's Castle

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA and C only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (C) B and C only

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  32. Question 32

    Which two of the following are works by I. A. Richards?

    A. Concepts of Criticism
    B. Science and Poetry
    C. The Philosophy of Rhetoric
    D. English Literature in Our Time and the University

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA and D only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (B) B and C only

    Explanation

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  33. Question 33

    Which two of the following essays form part of Mikhail Bakhtin's The Dialogic Imagination: Four Essays?

    A. "From the History of Novelistic Discourse"
    B. "Discourse in the Novel"
    C. "Romance and Novel"
    D. "Forms of Time and the Chronotope in the Novel"

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA and D only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (D) B and D only

    Explanation

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  34. Question 34

    Which two of the following poems are by Judith Wright?

    A. "Meditation on a Bone"
    B. "Imperial Adam"
    C. "Woman to Man"
    D. "The Old Prison"

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BC and D only
    3. CB and D only
    4. DA and C only

    Answer: (B) C and D only

    Explanation

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  35. Question 35

    Which two of the following are the earliest colonial publishing initiatives that apply to India?

    A. Andrew Lang Colonial Book Series
    B. Murray Colonial and Home Library Series
    C. Colonial Library Series by Macmillan
    D. Colonial Library Series by Chatto & Windus

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA and C only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (C) B and C only

    Explanation

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  36. Question 36

    Which two of the following conform to the documentation style prescribed by the eighth edition of the MLA Handbook?

    A. Puig, Manuel. Kiss of the Spider Woman, translated by Thomas Colchie, Vintage Books, 1991.
    B. Kincaid, Jamaica. "In History." Callaloo, vol. 24, no. 2, Spring 2001, pp. 620-26.
    C. Nunberg, Geoffrey, editor. The Future of the Book. U of California P, 1996.
    D. Wellek, Rene. A History of Modern Criticism, 1750-1950, Yale UP, 1986.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA and C only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (A) A and B only

    Explanation

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  37. Question 37

    Which two of the following are fallacious evaluations of poetry according to Matthew Arnold's "The Study of Poetry"?

    A. contextual estimate
    B. personal estimate
    C. comparative estimate
    D. historic estimate

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (D) B and D only

    Explanation

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  38. Question 38

    Match the plays in List I with the playwrights in List II.

    List I (Play)List II (Playwright)
    A. Madmen and SpecialistsI. Dennis Scott
    B. The Sea at DauphinII. Wole Soyinka
    C. The Trial of Dedan KimathiIII. Derek Walcott
    D. An Echo in the BoneIV. Ngugi wa Thiong'o
    1. AA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    3. CA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    4. DA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Answer: (D) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Explanation

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  39. Question 39

    Arrange the following journals in the chronological order of publication.

    A. Longman's Magazine
    B. Cornhill Magazine
    C. Blackwood's Magazine
    D. Bentley's Miscellany

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AC, B, A, D
    2. BC, D, B, A
    3. CB, C, D, A
    4. DB, C, A, D

    Answer: (B) C, D, B, A

    Explanation

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  40. Question 40

    Arrange the following poems by W. B. Yeats in the chronological order of publication.

    A. "The Wild Swans at Coole"
    B. "The Second Coming"
    C. "Among School Children"
    D. "Adam's Curse"

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C, D, B
    2. BD, A, B, C
    3. CC, A, B, D
    4. DC, A, D, B

    Answer: (B) D, A, B, C

    Explanation

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  41. Question 41

    Given below are two statements, one labelled Assertion A and the other labelled Reason R.

    Assertion (A): The implied reader shifts attention from the real reading individual to a disembodied dimension of reception, intricately interwoven into the text.

    Reason (R): The 'Dear Reader,' invoked in the realist novels, is a fictional representation of the distant reader.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer:

    1. ABoth A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is correct but R is not correct
    4. DA is not correct but R is correct

    Answer: (B) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

    Explanation

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  42. Question 42

    Given below are two statements.

    Statement I: The opening and closing lines of Waiting for Godot are spoken by Estragon.

    Statement II: Towards the end of the play Waiting for Godot, Estragon echoes Pozzo's statement, "They give birth astride of a grave . . ."

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

    Explanation

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  43. Question 43

    Given below are two statements.

    Statement I: Language is not a reliable tool of communication, says deconstruction, but argues in favour of a theory of sign as a self-sufficient union of signifier and signified.

    Statement II: Deconstruction claims that language is non-referential since it refers neither to the things in the world nor to our concepts of things but only to the play of signifiers.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Explanation

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  44. Question 44

    Which Shakespearean comedy is structured as a play within a play?

    1. AA Midsummer Night's Dream
    2. BLove's Labour's Lost
    3. CThe Comedy of Errors
    4. DThe Taming of the Shrew

    Answer: (A) A Midsummer Night's Dream

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  45. Question 45

    Which of the following is a dead language?

    1. AGothic
    2. BFrisian
    3. CYiddish
    4. DCantonese

    Answer: (A) Gothic

    Explanation

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  46. Question 46

    Which of the following fictional characters is believed to be based on the 15th-century real-life character, Vlad the Impaler?

    1. AVictor Frankenstein
    2. BPeter Quint
    3. CCount Dracula
    4. DPrince Manfred

    Answer: (C) Count Dracula

    Explanation

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  47. Question 47

    Which of the following terms describes a novel of fashionable high life in 19th-century English literature?

    1. ABrass-Spittoon
    2. BSilver-Fork
    3. CGolden-Spoon
    4. DDiamond-Jar

    Answer: (B) Silver-Fork

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  48. Question 48

    What term did Bertolt Brecht use for his mode of drama-writing to distinguish it from traditional theatre?

    1. Aepic theatre
    2. Bmusical theatre
    3. Cproletarian theatre
    4. Dkitchen-sink theatre

    Answer: (A) epic theatre

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  49. Question 49

    Who among the following posits the tradition of great writers as an inescapable fact, and takes the ambivalent position of considering it as both a blessing and a curse?

    1. AHarold Bloom
    2. BT. S. Eliot
    3. CAllen Tate
    4. DF. R. Leavis

    Answer: (A) Harold Bloom

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  50. Question 50

    Who among the following is associated with a 'philosophy of praxis'?

    1. AGeorg Lukacs
    2. BRaymond Williams
    3. CStuart Hall
    4. DAntonio Gramsci

    Answer: (D) Antonio Gramsci

    Explanation

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  51. Question 51

    Which book by J.G. Ballard is about a virus that freezes anything it comes in contact with?

    1. AThe Drowned World
    2. BConcrete Island
    3. CThe Crystal World
    4. DKingdom Come

    Answer: (C) The Crystal World

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  52. Question 52

    Which of the following terms is used to describe spurious words which are the result of inadvertent errors made by copyists, printers and editors?

    1. Adudwords
    2. Bghostwords
    3. Cprotowords
    4. Dpseudowords

    Answer: (B) ghostwords

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  53. Question 53

    Which of the following statements best articulates Frantz Fanon's political position?

    1. AColonialism will die a natural death sans any violent struggle against it.
    2. BSocial oppression in the third world is a matter more of race than of class.
    3. CThe African bourgeoisie can never succeed in the task of nation building.
    4. DPeasants and social outcasts have little revolutionary potential in Africa.

    Answer: (B) Social oppression in the third world is a matter more of race than of class.

    Explanation

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  54. Question 54

    Which of the following are books by Noam Chomsky?

    A. Syntactic Structures
    B. Verbal Learning and Verbal Behavior
    C. Language and Society
    D. Aspects of the Theory of Syntax
    E. The Pragmatics of Politeness

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and C only
    2. BB and D only
    3. CC and E only
    4. DD and A only

    Answer: (D) D and A only

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  55. Question 55

    Which among the following are examples of the Kunstlerroman?

    A. The Portrait of a Lady
    B. David Copperfield
    C. Tom Jones
    D. A Portrait of the Artist as a Young Man

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and C only
    2. BB and D only
    3. CA and B only
    4. DC and D only

    Answer: (B) B and D only

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  56. Question 56

    Which of the following are novels by David Lodge?

    A. The British Museum is Falling Down
    B. The Seven Sisters
    C. Changing Places
    D. Nice Work
    E. Empire of the Sun

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, D and E only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DC, D and E only

    Answer: (C) A, C and D only

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  57. Question 57

    Which of the following statements are true of English as used in India?

    A. India is counted among the largest English-speaking communities in the world.
    B. No group, community or population of Indians claims English as its mother tongue.
    C. More than fifty per cent of Indians speak English fluently.
    D. English is the country's principal language of commerce.
    E. With the growing stature of Hindi as lingua franca, it has supplanted English as the link language between the central government and the states.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and D only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CC and E only
    4. DD and E only

    Answer: (A) A and D only

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  58. Question 58

    Match the authors in List I with the texts in List II.

    List I (Author)List II (Text)
    A. Robert BrowningI. Queen Mary
    B. S. T. ColeridgeII. The Second Mrs Tanqueray
    C. A. W. PineroIII. Remorse
    D. Alfred TennysonIV. The Borderers
    E. William WordsworthV. Strafford
    1. AA-V; B-III; C-II; D-I; E-IV
    2. BA-II; B-IV; C-III; D-V; E-I
    3. CA-III; B-V; C-II; D-I; E-IV
    4. DA-IV; B-II; C-I; D-V; E-III

    Answer: (A) A-V; B-III; C-II; D-I; E-IV

    Explanation

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  59. Question 59

    Match the books in List I with the poets in List II.

    List I (Book)List II (Poet)
    A. AnniversariesI. Abraham Cowley
    B. The TempleII. John Donne
    C. The Rehearsal Transpros'dIII. George Herbert
    D. Pindarique OdesIV. Andrew Marvell
    1. AA-I; B-IV; C-II; D-III
    2. BA-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I
    3. CA-III; B-I; C-IV; D-II
    4. DA-IV; B-II; C-I; D-III

    Answer: (B) A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I

    Explanation

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  60. Question 60

    Match the novels in List I with the writers in List II.

    List I (Novel)List II (Writer)
    A. A Handful of DustI. E. M. Forster
    B. Brighton RockII. Evelyn Waugh
    C. Howard's EndIII. D. H. Lawrence
    D. The Plumed SerpentIV. Aldous Huxley
    E. Those Barren LeavesV. Graham Greene
    1. AA-III; B-I; C-V; D-II; E-IV
    2. BA-I; B-IV; C-II; D-III; E-V
    3. CA-II; B-V; C-I; D-III; E-IV
    4. DA-V; B-II; C-IV; D-I; E-III

    Answer: (C) A-II; B-V; C-I; D-III; E-IV

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  61. Question 61

    Arrange in the right sequence the following stages of a child's first language acquisition:

    A. holophrastic
    B. babbling
    C. telegraphic speech
    D. cooing

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C, D, B
    2. BB, A, D, C
    3. CC, B, A, D
    4. DD, B, A, C

    Answer: (D) D, B, A, C

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  62. Question 62

    Choose the right chronological sequence of the following books:

    A. Arundhati Roy, The God of Small Things
    B. Kiran Desai, The Inheritance of Loss
    C. Shashi Deshpande, That Long Silence
    D. Jhumpa Lahiri, The Namesake

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, D, B, C
    2. BB, C, D, A
    3. CC, A, D, B
    4. DD, B, C, A

    Answer: (C) C, A, D, B

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  63. Question 63

    Arrange the following terms in the chronological order as these appeared in literary theory:

    A. phallogocentrism
    B. locutionary act
    C. interpellation
    D. interpretive community

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, D, C, B
    2. BB, C, A, D
    3. CC, B, D, A
    4. DD, A, B, C

    Answer: (B) B, C, A, D

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  64. Question 64

    Given below are two statements.

    Statement I: All research being original and uninspired, it is rare for a researcher to begin a project by deriving ideas from predecessors.

    Statement II: Studying and documenting past work on a research topic stifles the continual expansion of human knowledge.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

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  65. Question 65

    Given below are two statements.

    Statement I: A pidgin is formed by two mutually unintelligible speech communities trying to communicate using the most obvious features of each other's language.

    Statement II: Notwithstanding the number of years a pidgin is spoken, it can never become the mother tongue of a community.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

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  66. Question 66

    Which of the following are true of the dramatic legacy of Ben Jonson?

    A. Jonson's physiological interpretation of character and personality did not have any precedent.
    B. Taking after the practice of the Moralities and Interludes, Jonson named his dramatis personae aptronymically.
    C. Chapman's All Fools and Middleton's A Trick to Catch the Old One belong to the genre of Comedy of Humours that Jonson is said to have pioneered.
    D. John Marston and Thomas Dekker collaborated with Jonson in writing for a children's company of players.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DD and A only

    Answer: (C) C and D only

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  67. Question 67

    Who is the author of The Truth about Me: A Hijra Life Story?

    1. AA. Revathi
    2. BV. Geetha
    3. CBama
    4. DMukta Sarvagod

    Answer: (A) A. Revathi

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  68. Question 68

    Who wrote The Labyrinth of Solitude?

    1. AGabriel Garcia Marquez
    2. BOctavio Paz
    3. CGabriela Mistral
    4. DJorge Luis Borges

    Answer: (B) Octavio Paz

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  69. Question 69

    What was the centre set up for studying culture at the University of Birmingham called?

    1. ACentre for Contemporary Studies
    2. BCentre for Culture Studies
    3. CCentre for New Cultural Studies
    4. DCentre for Contemporary Cultural Studies

    Answer: (D) Centre for Contemporary Cultural Studies

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  70. Question 70

    Who is the creator of the character, Julien Sorel?

    1. ABalzac
    2. BFlaubert
    3. CMoliere
    4. DStendhal

    Answer: (D) Stendhal

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  71. Question 71

    Which of these are true of Raymond Williams' Culture and Society?

    A. It critiques the idea of high culture.
    B. It overlooks the idea of high culture.
    C. It defines culture as a way of life.
    D. It equates culture with science.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA and C only
    3. CB and D only
    4. DA and D only

    Answer: (B) A and C only

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  72. Question 72

    Which of the following does Urvashi Butalia's The Other Side of Silence primarily seek to do?

    A. To understand the Partition as something more than a political divide
    B. To foreground a personal history of the Partition
    C. To foreground the Partition as an event more tragic than the Holocaust
    D. To find and unite families separated at the Partition

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DA and D only

    Answer: (A) A and B only

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  73. Question 73

    Match the books in List I with the authors in List II.

    List I (Book)List II (Author)
    A. English, AugustI. Shyam Selvadurai
    B. In CustodyII. Anita Desai
    C. Such a Long JourneyIII. Rohinton Mistry
    D. Funny BoyIV. Upamanyu Chatterjee
    1. AA-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
    2. BA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    3. CA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
    4. DA-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

    Answer: (A) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

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  74. Question 74

    Which of these may be said to be true of the journal published from Bowling Green University from 1969, which carried essays on Spiderman comics, rock music, and detective films?

    A. It sought to highlight the importance of popular culture.
    B. It sought to highlight the importance of elite culture.
    C. It sought to buttress the canon by making it more elitist.
    D. It sought to break down the dominance of 'high' culture.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA and D only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (B) A and D only

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  75. Question 75

    Match the writers in List I with the books in List II.

    List I (Writer)List II (Book)
    A. Homi BhabhaI. Reading the Popular
    B. T. S. EliotII. The Location of Culture
    C. Roland BarthesIII. Notes towards the Definition of Culture
    D. John FiskeIV. Image-Music-Text
    1. AA-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
    2. BA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    3. CA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
    4. DA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Answer: (D) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

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  76. Question 76

    Who, among these, are songwriters who have been awarded the Nobel Prize for Literature?

    A. Elton John
    B. Rabindranath Tagore
    C. Bob Dylan
    D. Bob Marley

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DA and D only

    Answer: (B) B and C only

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  77. Question 77

    Which of the following qualify for the label 'cultural intermediary' in the context of a commercial film?

    A. The film magazine columnist
    B. The director
    C. Fan clubs
    D. The producer

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA and C only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (B) A and C only

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  78. Question 78

    Which of the following is true of mass media?

    1. AIt usually has a central, single source.
    2. BIts audience is in close proximity to its source.
    3. CIt can affect a localised population only.
    4. DIt usually has multiple sources.

    Answer: (A) It usually has a central, single source.

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  79. Question 79

    With which of the following movements is Charles Baudelaire's Flowers of Evil generally associated?

    A. Neo-classical
    B. Symbolist
    C. Modernist
    D. Postmodernist

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DA and D only

    Answer: (B) B and C only

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  80. Question 80

    Which of these departments did the Wood's Despatch of 1854 recommend setting up in the universities?

    A. Arabic
    B. English
    C. French
    D. Law

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BA, B and D only
    3. CB, C and D only
    4. DA, C and D only

    Answer: (B) A, B and D only

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  81. Question 81

    Which of these are generally taken to be true of Cultural Studies?

    A. It is politically engaged.
    B. It privileges text over context.
    C. It has a symbiotic relationship with Formalism.
    D. It studies the means of production of a text.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA and C only
    3. CA and D only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (C) A and D only

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  82. Question 82

    Which of these countries does Montaigne's essay, "Of Cannibals," focus on primarily?

    1. AIndia
    2. BBrazil
    3. CJapan
    4. DBorneo

    Answer: (B) Brazil

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  83. Question 83

    Arrange the following characters in the chronological order in which they appeared in Indian literature.

    A. Praneshacharya (Samskara)
    B. Sakuni (Mahabharata)
    C. Rusty (The Room on the Roof)
    D. Gobar (Godan)

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C, D
    2. BB, A, C, D
    3. CB, C, D, A
    4. DB, D, C, A

    Answer: (D) B, D, C, A

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  84. Question 84

    Which of these themes best sums up the preoccupation of most of Vijay Tendulkar's plays?

    1. ADynamics of media
    2. BMotivations of crime
    3. CWorkings of power
    4. DWorkings of love triangles

    Answer: (C) Workings of power

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  85. Question 85

    Which of these is identified by Ariel Dorfman and Armand Mattelart as having been deployed in Walt Disney comic books to propagate imperialist ideology?

    1. AImpoverishment
    2. BDeification
    3. CPersonification
    4. DInfantilisation

    Answer: (D) Infantilisation

    Explanation

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  86. Question 86

    Match the poems in List I with the poets in List II.

    List I (Poem)List II (Poet)
    A. "The Road Not Taken"I. Pablo Neruda
    B. "Tonight I can Write the Saddest Lines"II. Robert Frost
    C. "I hear America Singing"III. Langston Hughes
    D. "I, too, Sing America"IV. Walt Whitman
    1. AA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    2. BA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    3. CA-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
    4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Explanation

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  87. Question 87

    Which of the following did Owuor Anyumba, Taban Lo Liyong and Ngugi wa Thiongo object to in 1968?

    A. the primacy of English literatures and cultures
    B. the centrality of Africa in the Department of English
    C. the primacy of orature in the syllabus
    D. the focus on the study of the historic continuity of English literature

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DA and D only

    Answer: (D) A and D only

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  88. Question 88

    Arrange chronologically the following texts in terms of their years of first publication:

    A. Edmund Spenser's The Faerie Queene
    B. Coleridge and Wordsworth's Lyrical Ballads
    C. Pablo Neruda's Canto General
    D. Charles Baudelaire's The Flowers of Evil

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C, D
    2. BA, B, D, C
    3. CB, C, A, D
    4. DD, A, B, C

    Answer: (B) A, B, D, C

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  89. Question 89

    Which of these characters figure in Samuel Beckett's Waiting for Godot?

    A. Estragon
    B. Pozzo
    C. Bassanio
    D. Murphy

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DA and D only

    Answer: (A) A and B only

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  90. Question 90

    Who is the author of The Otherness of English: India's Aunty Tongue Syndrome?

    1. AProbal Dasgupta
    2. BYamuna Kachru
    3. CBinoo K. John
    4. DS.K. Verma

    Answer: (A) Probal Dasgupta

    Explanation

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  91. Question 91

    Match the libraries and institutes in List I with the locations in List II.

    List I (Library/Institute)List II (Location)
    A. Connemara Public LibraryI. Kolkata
    B. DhvanyalokaII. Chennai
    C. Bhandarkar Oriental InstituteIII. Mysore
    D. Asiatic SocietyIV. Pune
    1. AA-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
    2. BA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    3. CA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    4. DA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Answer: (D) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Explanation

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  92. Question 92

    Arrange the following groups of poets in their chronological sequence in relation to English literary history:

    A. The Imagist poets
    B. The Cavalier poets
    C. The Movement poets
    D. The Lake poets

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AB, D, C, A
    2. BD, A, B, C
    3. CD, B, A, C
    4. DB, D, A, C

    Answer: (D) B, D, A, C

    Explanation

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  93. Question 93

    Match the texts in List I with the authors in List II.

    List I (Text)List II (Author)
    A. Advancement of LearningI. Susan Sontag
    B. Past and PresentII. Francis Bacon
    C. English TraitsIII. Thomas Carlyle
    D. Illness as MetaphorIV. R. W. Emerson
    1. AA-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
    2. BA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    3. CA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (C) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Explanation

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  94. Question 94

    Arrange the following terms in their chronological sequence of appearance:

    A. dissociation of sensibility
    B. unreliable narrator
    C. theatre of cruelty
    D. egotistical sublime

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AD, A, B, C
    2. BD, A, C, B
    3. CD, B, A, C
    4. DB, D, A, C

    Answer: (B) D, A, C, B

    Explanation

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  95. Question 95

    Match the texts in List I with the authors in List II.

    List I (Text)List II (Author)
    A. The Lie of the LandI. Alok Mukherjee
    B. Masks of ConquestII. Rajeswari Sunder Rajan
    C. Rethinking EnglishIII. Gauri Viswanathan
    D. This Gift of EnglishIV. Svati Joshi
    1. AA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    2. BA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    3. CA-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
    4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (A) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Explanation

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  96. Question 96

    Which of the following abbreviations refers to a documentation style?

    1. APMLA
    2. BMHRA
    3. CARIEL
    4. DMFS

    Answer: (B) MHRA

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  97. Question 97

    The MLA Style Sheet, a compilation of scholarly conventions and directives, was first published in:

    1. A1970
    2. B1962
    3. C1951
    4. D1957

    Answer: (C) 1951

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  98. Question 98

    Who among the following has coined the term, 'ecofeminism'?

    1. AHelene Cixous
    2. BFrancoise d'Eaubonne
    3. CMarguerite Duras
    4. DMonique Wittig

    Answer: (B) Francoise d'Eaubonne

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  99. Question 99

    Who is the author of Radiant Textuality?

    1. ARichard D. Altick
    2. BJames Thorpe
    3. CGerald Graff
    4. DJerome McGann

    Answer: (D) Jerome McGann

    Explanation

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  100. Question 100

    Arrange the following in their chronological order:

    A. English replaces Persian as official language of the Company
    B. Arrival of Charles Grant in India
    C. Universities established in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras
    D. Construction of Fort William in Calcutta

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AD, B, C, A
    2. BD, A, C, B
    3. CB, A, D, C
    4. DD, B, A, C

    Answer: (D) D, B, A, C

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Paper 1 had 100 questions and Paper 2 (English Literature) had 200 questions, for 300 in total across 3 hours.

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No. Each correct answer earns 2 marks and there is no penalty for a wrong answer, so leaving a question blank is never better than attempting it.

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Answers follow the official NTA answer key for this session. If you spot a discrepancy, use the report option inside the practice test and we will review it.

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