|English Literature · October 2022

UGC NET English Literature October 2022 Question PaperPaper 1 & Paper 2 with Answer Key

The complete UGC NET October 2022 question paper for English Literature, covering Paper 1 (General Aptitude) and Paper 2 (English Literature). Every question below is shown with its options and the correct answer, and a detailed explanation you can unlock by signing in. All 293 questions are free to practise.

UGC NET October 2022 at a glance

ExamUGC NET October 2022
PapersPaper 1 (General Aptitude) and Paper 2 (English Literature)
Exam date(s)October 13, 2022
Shift(s)Shift 1 · Shift 2
Paper 1 questions100 questions · 60 minutes · 100 marks
Paper 2 questions193 questions · 120 minutes · 200 marks
Total293 questions
Marking scheme+2 per correct answer · No negative marking
Paper 1

General Aptitude

UGC NET October 2022 · Shift 1 · English Literature sitting

50 questions60 min100 marks
Practice Now
Paper 2

English Literature

UGC NET October 2022 · Shift 1

100 questions120 min200 marks
Practice Now
Paper 1

General Aptitude

UGC NET October 2022 · Shift 2 · English Literature sitting

50 questions60 min100 marks
Practice Now
Paper 2

English Literature

UGC NET October 2022 · Shift 2

93 questions120 min200 marks
Practice Now

Paper 1 — General Aptitude · Shift 1

Attempt this paper

50 questions with the answer key and explanations.

  1. Question 1

    The table shows the percentage (%) distribution of five types of cars (A-E) produced by a company during 2019 and 2020. The total number of cars produced was 4,50,000 in 2019 and 5,20,000 in 2020. If the number of Type-A cars manufactured in 2020 was the same as that of 2019, then what would have been its approximate percentage share in the total production of 2020?

    YearABCDE
    201915%25%30%10%20%
    202010%30%25%25%10%
    1. A11%
    2. B13%
    3. C15%
    4. D9%

    Answer: (B) 13%

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  2. Question 2

    The table shows the percentage (%) distribution of five types of cars (A-E) produced by a company during 2019 and 2020. The total number of cars produced was 4,50,000 in 2019 and 5,20,000 in 2020. What was the difference in the number of Type-C cars produced between 2019 and 2020?

    YearABCDE
    201915%25%30%10%20%
    202010%30%25%25%10%
    1. A5000
    2. B7500
    3. C8500
    4. D2500

    Answer: (A) 5000

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  3. Question 3

    The table shows the percentage (%) distribution of five types of cars (A-E) produced by a company during 2019 and 2020. The total number of cars produced was 4,50,000 in 2019 and 5,20,000 in 2020. If 85% of the Type-E cars produced during 2019 and 2020 together are sold by the company, how many Type-E cars are left unsold?

    YearABCDE
    201915%25%30%10%20%
    202010%30%25%25%10%
    1. A21825
    2. B29100
    3. C25200
    4. D21300

    Answer: (D) 21300

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  4. Question 4

    The table shows the percentage (%) distribution of five types of cars (A-E) produced by a company during 2019 and 2020. The total number of cars produced was 4,50,000 in 2019 and 5,20,000 in 2020. If the percentage production of Type-B cars in 2020 was the same as that of 2019, what would have been the number of Type-B cars produced in 2020?

    YearABCDE
    201915%25%30%10%20%
    202010%30%25%25%10%
    1. A112500
    2. B120000
    3. C130000
    4. D135000

    Answer: (C) 130000

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  5. Question 5

    The table shows the percentage (%) distribution of five types of cars (A-E) produced by a company during 2019 and 2020. The total number of cars produced was 4,50,000 in 2019 and 5,20,000 in 2020. What is the ratio of the number of Type-C cars produced in 2019 to the number of Type-D cars produced in 2020?

    YearABCDE
    201915%25%30%10%20%
    202010%30%25%25%10%
    1. A29:27
    2. B23:22
    3. C27:26
    4. D27:23

    Answer: (C) 27:26

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  6. Question 6

    Which of the following file formats are appropriate for distributing video files across the internet?
    A. .FLA
    B. .MP3
    C. .WMA
    D. .AIF
    E. .AVI
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AB and C only
    2. BA and E only
    3. CD and E only
    4. DC and D only

    Answer: (B) A and E only

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  7. Question 7

    Assertion (A): Universities and higher education institutions are important foundations for the growth of any country.
    Reason (R): Intellectual property rights act as a shield for inventions from being misused by third parties.

    Choose the most appropriate answer:

    1. ABoth A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is correct but R is not correct
    4. DA is not correct but R is correct

    Answer: (B) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

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  8. Question 8

    Which one of the following formal fallacies is committed in the given argument?
    All snakes are reptiles.
    Some snakes are poisonous creatures.
    Therefore, all poisonous creatures are reptiles.

    1. AFallacy of illicit process of major term
    2. BFallacy of illicit process of minor term
    3. CFallacy of undistributed middle term
    4. DFallacy of four terms

    Answer: (B) Fallacy of illicit process of minor term

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  9. Question 9

    Given below are two statements:
    Statement I: Classical smog is formed when oxides of nitrogen combine with particulate matter, especially in the summer season.
    Statement II: Classical smog reduces atmospheric visibility to a great extent.
    Choose the correct answer:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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  10. Question 10

    In communication, meanings refer to a person's:

    1. ANotions about the world
    2. BInternal responses to a message
    3. CSubsuming messages for suppression
    4. DExternal responses only

    Answer: (B) Internal responses to a message

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  11. Question 11

    Identify the correct arrangement of the following different types of computer networks in descending order of their geographic area coverage.
    A. MAN
    B. WAN
    C. LAN

    1. AA, B, C
    2. BB, C, A
    3. CB, A, C
    4. DC, A, B

    Answer: (C) B, A, C

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  12. Question 12

    Assertion (A): Sound is non-eternal because it is caused.
    Reason (R): The middle term does not prove the eternality of sound but its non-eternality.

    Choose the correct answer:

    1. ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is true but R is false
    4. DA is false but R is true

    Answer: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

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  13. Question 13

    Match List I with List II.

    List I (File extension)List II (File type)
    A. mp3I. Image
    B. xlsII. Music
    C. jpegIII. Database
    D. mdbIV. Spreadsheet
    1. AA-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
    2. BA-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    3. CA-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
    4. DA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

    Answer: (B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

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  14. Question 14

    A software is termed open-source software if:

    1. AThe developer company is open 24 x 7
    2. BIts source code is available to share, study and modify
    3. CIt can be downloaded from the Internet
    4. DIt is available free of cost

    Answer: (B) Its source code is available to share, study and modify

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  15. Question 15

    The simple interest on a sum of money is 1/9 of the principal and the number of years is equal to the rate percent per annum. The rate percent per annum is:

    1. A3%
    2. B0.33%
    3. C3.33%
    4. D2.33%

    Answer: (C) 3.33%

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  16. Question 16

    In a learner-centred teaching environment, teachers:

    1. ARecognise that all learners are unique and utilise different teaching styles
    2. BDo not provide structure and direction
    3. CMake decisions about how and what learners will learn
    4. DDo not facilitate learners' decision-making process

    Answer: (A) Recognise that all learners are unique and utilise different teaching styles

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  17. Question 17

    A man who can swim 48 metres/minute in still water swims 200 metres against the current and 200 metres with the current. If the difference between these two times is 10 minutes, what is the speed of the current?

    1. A30 metres/minute
    2. B31 metres/minute
    3. C29 metres/minute
    4. D32 metres/minute

    Answer: (D) 32 metres/minute

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  18. Question 18

    Match List I with List II.

    List I (Given as true)List II (Resultant)
    A. 'A' is given as trueI. 'O' is undetermined
    B. 'E' is given as trueII. 'I' is undetermined
    C. 'I' is given as trueIII. 'I' is true
    D. 'O' is given as trueIV. 'I' is false
    1. AA-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    2. BA-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
    3. CA-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
    4. DA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Answer: (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

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  19. Question 19

    Which among the following is a valid criticism of the experimental method in social sciences?

    1. AImpossible to conduct in social situations
    2. BArtificiality of laboratory conditions
    3. CUnavailability of good experiments in social sciences
    4. DSocial research problems cannot be studied experimentally

    Answer: (B) Artificiality of laboratory conditions

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  20. Question 20

    Assertion (A): Energy produced from biomass is considered 'carbon neutral'.
    Reason (R): Biomass does not add CO2 to the atmosphere.

    Choose the most appropriate answer:

    1. ABoth A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is correct but R is not correct
    4. DA is not correct but R is correct

    Answer: (C) A is correct but R is not correct

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  21. Question 21

    In the ancient Indian education system, learners were given training in the following occupations:
    A. Architecture
    B. Animal husbandry
    C. Agriculture
    D. Administration
    E. Dairy farming

    1. AA, C, E only
    2. BB, C, E only
    3. CA, B, C, E only
    4. DB, C, D, E only

    Answer: (C) A, B, C, E only

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  22. Question 22

    In a test consisting of 150 questions carrying 1 mark each, Rishab answered 80% of the first 75 questions correctly. What percent of the other 75 questions does he need to answer correctly to score 60% overall?

    1. A20%
    2. B40%
    3. C50%
    4. D60%

    Answer: (B) 40%

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  23. Question 23

    If a survey is conducted telephonically, which among the following statements is true?

    1. AIt improves quality of data
    2. BIt improves the validity of research
    3. CIt reduces the cost of data collection
    4. DIt makes participants comfortable

    Answer: (C) It reduces the cost of data collection

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  24. Question 24

    Following activities are related to the conduct of experiment in social research:
    A. Control the experimental environment
    B. Pilot test, revise and test
    C. Empathy with the participants
    D. Praising the good qualities of the participant
    E. Specify the treatment levels

    1. AA, B, C only
    2. BB, C, E only
    3. CC, D, E only
    4. DA, B, E only

    Answer: (D) A, B, E only

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  25. Question 25

    Source of arsenic pollution in groundwater is:

    1. AIndustrial effluents
    2. BDeep underground formations
    3. CDyeing industries
    4. DAgricultural wastes

    Answer: (B) Deep underground formations

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  26. Question 26

    Kohlberg's theory of moral development comprises the following stages:
    A. Obedience orientation
    B. Intellectual disability orientation
    C. Rewards/exchange orientation
    D. Law and order orientation
    E. Social contract orientation

    1. AA, B, C, D only
    2. BA, C, D, E only
    3. CB, C, D, E only
    4. DA, B, D, E only

    Answer: (B) A, C, D, E only

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  27. Question 27

    Which of the following are true with regard to mass communication?
    A. Messages are prepared by non-professionals
    B. Messages are prepared by professionals
    C. Messages are rapidly disseminated
    D. Messages are supposed to be understood
    E. Media audiences are homogeneous

    1. AA, B, C only
    2. BC, D, E only
    3. CB, C, D only
    4. DA, D, E only

    Answer: (C) B, C, D only

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  28. Question 28

    Which among the following was proposed by the Kothari Commission vis-a-vis language?

    1. AUse of mother tongue as a medium of instruction
    2. BUse of Hindi as a medium of instruction
    3. CTwo-language formula
    4. DThree-language formula

    Answer: (D) Three-language formula

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  29. Question 29

    Identify the correct sequence of average noise levels in increasing order of magnitude from the following sources:
    A. City street corner
    B. Conversational speech
    C. Highway
    D. Aircraft noise during take-off
    E. Typical office

    1. AE, A, B, C, D
    2. BE, B, A, C, D
    3. CB, E, A, C, D
    4. DB, E, A, D, C

    Answer: (B) E, B, A, C, D

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  30. Question 30

    Given below are two statements:
    Statement I: If the length of a psychological test is increased, it improves both reliability and validity.
    Statement II: Score of a test can be interpreted without referring to its norm.
    Choose the most appropriate answer:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    Explanation

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  31. Question 31

    IIT Bombay X is a non-profit MOOC platform developed by IIT Bombay using the open-source platform:

    1. AJoomla
    2. BSakai
    3. CDrupal
    4. DOpen edX

    Answer: (D) Open edX

    Explanation

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  32. Question 32

    Given below are two statements:
    Statement I: One-fourth of sixty percent of a number is equal to two-fifth of twenty percent of another number. Then the respective ratio of the first number to the second number is 8:15.
    Statement II: A student studies from 11:00 am to 8:00 pm on weekdays and one-third of that time on Saturday. On Sunday, the student takes a break. The fractional part of the entire week that the student is studying is 3/7.
    Choose the correct answer:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

    Explanation

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  33. Question 33

    Given below are two statements in respect of computers:
    Statement I: A DVD-ROM is an optical storage medium and it can be written many times.
    Statement II: Software is loaded into secondary storage from RAM and is then executed by the CPU.
    Choose the correct answer:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

    Explanation

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  34. Question 34

    What is the correct order of Global Warming Potential (GWP) of the following atmospheric chemical species?
    A. Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC)
    B. Methane (CH4)
    C. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
    D. Nitrous oxide (N2O)

    1. AD > B > C > A
    2. BC < B < D < A
    3. CA > B > C > D
    4. DA < C < D < B

    Answer: (B) C < B < D < A

    Explanation

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  35. Question 35

    Identify the correct sequence of information processing in communication:
    A. Input
    B. Output
    C. Data entry
    D. Processing
    E. Storage

    1. AA, B, E, D, C
    2. BB, D, E, A, C
    3. CC, A, D, E, B
    4. DA, C, D, E, B

    Answer: (D) A, C, D, E, B

    Explanation

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  36. Question 36

    Assertion (A): A valid deductive argument with all true premises will lead to a true conclusion.
    Reason (R): In a valid deductive argument, the conclusion follows from the premises with absolute necessity.

    Choose the correct answer:

    1. ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is true but R is false
    4. DA is false but R is true

    Answer: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

    Explanation

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  37. Question 37

    As envisaged in National Education Policy (2020), all Higher Educational Institutions will aim to have a student strength of ______ by 2040.

    1. A
      = 5000
    2. B
      = 4000
    3. C
      = 3000
    4. D
      = 2500

    Answer: (C)

    = 3000

    Explanation

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  38. Question 38

    Match List I with List II.

    List I (Research forms)List II (Description)
    A. Qualitative ResearchI. File-drawer problem
    B. Quantitative ResearchII. Convergence of findings based on multiple methods
    C. TriangulationIII. Statistical analysis
    D. Meta-analysisIV. Interpretive
    1. AA-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
    2. BA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    3. CA-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
    4. DA-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

    Answer: (B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    Explanation

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  39. Question 39

    Given below are two statements:
    Statement I: A man sells his goods at 10% profit. If he sells his goods at 15% profit, he gets Rs. 160 more. The cost price of his goods is Rs. 4,200.
    Statement II: A man spends 80% of his earnings. His earnings increase by 25% and his expenses increase by 20%. The man's savings thus increase by 45%.
    Choose the correct answer:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

    Explanation

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  40. Question 40

    Match List I with List II.

    List I (Child development)List II (Feature)
    A. CliquesI. Less intimate, more loosely organized groups
    B. CrowdsII. General sense of oneself along with beliefs, emotions and attitudes
    C. IdentityIII. Exploration with a delay in commitment to personal and occupational choices
    D. MoratoriumIV. Relatively small, friendship-based groups
    1. AA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    3. CA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (D) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Explanation

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  41. Question 41

    The open-source platform 'Course Builder' on which NPTEL courses are seen was created by:

    1. AMicrosoft
    2. BGoogle
    3. COracle
    4. DWipro

    Answer: (B) Google

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  42. Question 42

    Match List I with List II.

    List I (Medium)List II (User vehicle)
    A. NewspaperI. URSA Mini Pro
    B. RadioII. Satellite dishes
    C. TelevisionIII. Electromagnetic waves
    D. FilmIV. Rubber plate
    1. AA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    2. BA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    3. CA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    4. DA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

    Answer: (A) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

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  43. Question 43

    Given below are two statements:
    Statement I: An inference based on the middle term being only positively related to the major term is called Kevalanvayi.
    Statement II: In Kevalanvayi anumana, the knowledge of vyapti between the middle and major terms is arrived at through the method of agreement in absence.
    Choose the correct answer:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

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  44. Question 44

    In the context of vocational education, the organisation 'NSDC' is:

    1. ANational Skill Development Council
    2. BNational Skill Development Corporation
    3. CNational Skill Documentation Centre
    4. DNational Sector Development Corporation

    Answer: (B) National Skill Development Corporation

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  45. Question 45

    Given below are two statements:
    Statement I: The disadvantage of interpersonal communication is the availability of immediate feedback.
    Statement II: The greatest advantage of mass communication is its delayed feedback.
    Choose the most appropriate answer:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

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  46. Question 46

    What is unique about television audience in a cultural economy?

    Television is a cultural commodity. It works within an economically determined capitalist economy, but when we have said that about it, we have said both much and remarkably little. There is a financial economy within which wealth circulates, and a cultural economy within which meanings and pleasures circulate, and the relationship between them is not as deterministic as some theorists have proposed. In the financial economy, television symbolises programmes and advertisements, not textuality. A programme is a commodity produced and then sold to distributors. In distribution, its role changes and it becomes not a commodity, but a producer, and what it produces is a new commodity, the audience, which is then, in its turn, sold as a commodity to advertisers. The ramifications of this financial economy are fascinating. Here the role shift undergone by the programme in the financial economy - that from commodity to producer - is now undergone by the audience, who are left as a commodity sold to the advertiser. But in the cultural economy the audience rejects its role as a commodity and becomes a producer, a producer of meanings and pleasures, and at this moment stops being 'an audience' and becomes different materialisations of the process that we call 'viewing television'. While the metaphor of a cultural economy is a productive one, we must not let it blind us to differences between it and the financial. Meanings and pleasures do not circulate in the cultural economy in the same way that wealth does in the financial. In the first place there is no exchange of money at the point of sale or consumption. Television appears to be free; however, it may actually be paid for. Payment has no direct relationship to consumption - people can consume as much as they wish and what they wish with no thought of what they are able to afford.

    1. AThey are non-stop producers of meanings
    2. BThey cannot fathom the finer nuances of financial economy
    3. CThey do not pay for content consumption
    4. DThey can consume as much as they wish without regard to affordability

    Answer: (A) They are non-stop producers of meanings

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  47. Question 47

    How does viewing television in a cultural economy affect the audience?

    Television is a cultural commodity. It works within an economically determined capitalist economy, but when we have said that about it, we have said both much and remarkably little. There is a financial economy within which wealth circulates, and a cultural economy within which meanings and pleasures circulate, and the relationship between them is not as deterministic as some theorists have proposed. In the financial economy, television symbolises programmes and advertisements, not textuality. A programme is a commodity produced and then sold to distributors. In distribution, its role changes and it becomes not a commodity, but a producer, and what it produces is a new commodity, the audience, which is then, in its turn, sold as a commodity to advertisers. The ramifications of this financial economy are fascinating. Here the role shift undergone by the programme in the financial economy - that from commodity to producer - is now undergone by the audience, who are left as a commodity sold to the advertiser. But in the cultural economy the audience rejects its role as a commodity and becomes a producer, a producer of meanings and pleasures, and at this moment stops being 'an audience' and becomes different materialisations of the process that we call 'viewing television'. While the metaphor of a cultural economy is a productive one, we must not let it blind us to differences between it and the financial. Meanings and pleasures do not circulate in the cultural economy in the same way that wealth does in the financial. In the first place there is no exchange of money at the point of sale or consumption. Television appears to be free; however, it may actually be paid for. Payment has no direct relationship to consumption - people can consume as much as they wish and what they wish with no thought of what they are able to afford.

    1. AAudience assumes a new role
    2. BThey become a new commodity
    3. CThey cannot differentiate between the financial economy and cultural economy
    4. DAudience restricts the circulation of meanings and pleasures

    Answer: (A) Audience assumes a new role

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  48. Question 48

    In distribution, television becomes:

    Television is a cultural commodity. It works within an economically determined capitalist economy, but when we have said that about it, we have said both much and remarkably little. There is a financial economy within which wealth circulates, and a cultural economy within which meanings and pleasures circulate, and the relationship between them is not as deterministic as some theorists have proposed. In the financial economy, television symbolises programmes and advertisements, not textuality. A programme is a commodity produced and then sold to distributors. In distribution, its role changes and it becomes not a commodity, but a producer, and what it produces is a new commodity, the audience, which is then, in its turn, sold as a commodity to advertisers. The ramifications of this financial economy are fascinating. Here the role shift undergone by the programme in the financial economy - that from commodity to producer - is now undergone by the audience, who are left as a commodity sold to the advertiser. But in the cultural economy the audience rejects its role as a commodity and becomes a producer, a producer of meanings and pleasures, and at this moment stops being 'an audience' and becomes different materialisations of the process that we call 'viewing television'. While the metaphor of a cultural economy is a productive one, we must not let it blind us to differences between it and the financial. Meanings and pleasures do not circulate in the cultural economy in the same way that wealth does in the financial. In the first place there is no exchange of money at the point of sale or consumption. Television appears to be free; however, it may actually be paid for. Payment has no direct relationship to consumption - people can consume as much as they wish and what they wish with no thought of what they are able to afford.

    1. ACultural commodity
    2. BProducer of a new commodity
    3. CPurveyor of textuality
    4. DA source of theorisation

    Answer: (B) Producer of a new commodity

    Explanation

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  49. Question 49

    What are the ramifications of television as a commodity in the financial economy?

    Television is a cultural commodity. It works within an economically determined capitalist economy, but when we have said that about it, we have said both much and remarkably little. There is a financial economy within which wealth circulates, and a cultural economy within which meanings and pleasures circulate, and the relationship between them is not as deterministic as some theorists have proposed. In the financial economy, television symbolises programmes and advertisements, not textuality. A programme is a commodity produced and then sold to distributors. In distribution, its role changes and it becomes not a commodity, but a producer, and what it produces is a new commodity, the audience, which is then, in its turn, sold as a commodity to advertisers. The ramifications of this financial economy are fascinating. Here the role shift undergone by the programme in the financial economy - that from commodity to producer - is now undergone by the audience, who are left as a commodity sold to the advertiser. But in the cultural economy the audience rejects its role as a commodity and becomes a producer, a producer of meanings and pleasures, and at this moment stops being 'an audience' and becomes different materialisations of the process that we call 'viewing television'. While the metaphor of a cultural economy is a productive one, we must not let it blind us to differences between it and the financial. Meanings and pleasures do not circulate in the cultural economy in the same way that wealth does in the financial. In the first place there is no exchange of money at the point of sale or consumption. Television appears to be free; however, it may actually be paid for. Payment has no direct relationship to consumption - people can consume as much as they wish and what they wish with no thought of what they are able to afford.

    1. AMaking huge profits
    2. BImportance to distribution channels
    3. CAudience for advertisers
    4. DEnculturisation of audience

    Answer: (C) Audience for advertisers

    Explanation

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  50. Question 50

    When we consider television as a product, then it operates in a/an:

    Television is a cultural commodity. It works within an economically determined capitalist economy, but when we have said that about it, we have said both much and remarkably little. There is a financial economy within which wealth circulates, and a cultural economy within which meanings and pleasures circulate, and the relationship between them is not as deterministic as some theorists have proposed. In the financial economy, television symbolises programmes and advertisements, not textuality. A programme is a commodity produced and then sold to distributors. In distribution, its role changes and it becomes not a commodity, but a producer, and what it produces is a new commodity, the audience, which is then, in its turn, sold as a commodity to advertisers. The ramifications of this financial economy are fascinating. Here the role shift undergone by the programme in the financial economy - that from commodity to producer - is now undergone by the audience, who are left as a commodity sold to the advertiser. But in the cultural economy the audience rejects its role as a commodity and becomes a producer, a producer of meanings and pleasures, and at this moment stops being 'an audience' and becomes different materialisations of the process that we call 'viewing television'. While the metaphor of a cultural economy is a productive one, we must not let it blind us to differences between it and the financial. Meanings and pleasures do not circulate in the cultural economy in the same way that wealth does in the financial. In the first place there is no exchange of money at the point of sale or consumption. Television appears to be free; however, it may actually be paid for. Payment has no direct relationship to consumption - people can consume as much as they wish and what they wish with no thought of what they are able to afford.

    1. ADeterministic cultural system
    2. BCirculatory commercial system
    3. CAudience power system
    4. DDistributive pleasure system

    Answer: (B) Circulatory commercial system

    Explanation

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Spotted a shift or questions missing from this paper?

Paper 2 — English Literature · Shift 1

Attempt this paper

100 questions with the answer key and explanations.

  1. Question 1

    Besides being a playwright, who among the following has translated homer?

    1. ABen Johnson
    2. BThomas Dekker
    3. CThomas Heywood
    4. DGeorge Chapman

    Answer: (D) George Chapman

    Explanation

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  2. Question 2

    Which of the following is not true about “Lyrical ballads”?

    1. AIt is a manifesto of romantic poetry
    2. BIt turns English poetry away from the social and intellectual sophistication of the seventeenth and the eighteenth-century poetry
    3. CIt takes poetry out of the confines of reason and intellect to the unravished and unspoilt beauties of nature
    4. DIt is very particular about the form and structure of a poem

    Answer: (D) It is very particular about the form and structure of a poem

    Explanation

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  3. Question 3

    Which of the following observations are true about Roland Barthes’ contributions to literary theory?

    A. He rejected the model for structural analysis of narratives
    B. He perceived “meaning” as an effect of various interconnections among linguistic codes
    C. He identified the various codes found in the process of structuration
    D. He played a significant role in the development of ‘semiology’
    E. He questioned the concept of literary criticism as an act of uncovering some hidden truth intended by the “author”

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BC, D and E only
    3. CB, C, D and E only
    4. DA, B, C, D and E only

    Answer: (C) B, C, D and E only

    Explanation

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  4. Question 4

    The writer and the world by V.S. Naipaul is a

    1. ANovel
    2. BTravelogue
    3. CCollection of essays
    4. DNon-fiction

    Answer: (C) Collection of essays

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  5. Question 5

    Given below are two statements: One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).

    Assertion (A): The Marxists represent Marxism as a scientific account of social change.
    Reason (R): The Marxist ideology believes that culture is a mirror of social life and the artist is an engineer of the human soul educating the working classes.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. BBoth (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
    3. C(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
    4. D(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

    Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

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  6. Question 6

    The “ancient and modern quarrel” in western literary criticism appears during

    1. A100BC
    2. BFifth century CE
    3. CSixteenth century CE
    4. DTwentieth century CE

    Answer: (C) Sixteenth century CE

    Explanation

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  7. Question 7

    Given below are two statements: One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).

    Assertion (A): In so far as we are taught how to read, what we engage are not texts but paradigms.
    Reason (R): We appropriate meaning from a text according to what we need or desire or, in other words, according to the critical assumptions of the predispositions that we bring to it.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. BBoth (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
    3. C(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
    4. D(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

    Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

    Explanation

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  8. Question 8

    Which of the following critics is associated with the term “contrapuntal reading”?

    1. AMikhail Bakhtin
    2. BEdward said
    3. CRoland Barthes
    4. DJacques Derrida

    Answer: (B) Edward said

    Explanation

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  9. Question 9

    Match List I with List II:

    List IList II
    (A) Hamlet(I) 1606
    (B) Macbeth(II) 1599
    (C) Julius Caesar(III) 1604
    (D) Othello(IV) 1600

    Match-list source material for question 9.

    1. A(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
    2. B(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
    3. C(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
    4. D(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

    Answer: (D) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

    Explanation

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  10. Question 10

    Match List I with List II:

    List IList II
    (A) “Faces along the bar/cling to their average day.”(I) Wilfred Owen
    (B) “The awful daring of a moments surrender.”(II) T.S. Eliot
    (C) “Bent double, like old beggars under sacks.”(III) Allen Ginsberg
    (D) “I saw the best minds of my generation destroyed by madness.”(IV) W.H. Auden

    Match-list source material for question 10.

    1. A(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
    2. B(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
    3. C(A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
    4. D(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

    Answer: (A) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

    Explanation

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  11. Question 11

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: The teaching of non-native literature to the students of English language teaching is arid.
    Statement II: The negative responses in ELT classroom can create an interesting classroom situation.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth statement I and statement II are correct
    2. BBoth statement I and statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

    Answer: (A) Both statement I and statement II are correct

    Explanation

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  12. Question 12

    Which of these statements are true in the context of neuro-linguistic programming?

    A. ‘Neuro’ in NLP means that our behavior is determined by our sensory experiences
    B. Grammatical knowledge is a matter of practice
    C. NLP was developed by Richard Bandler and John Grinder in the 1970s
    D. Neuro covers “invisible thoughts and visible physiological reactions”
    E. All of the above

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. AE only
    2. BA, C and D only
    3. CA and D only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (B) A, C and D only

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  13. Question 13

    Identify the combination(s) that belong to the genre of sci-fi/speculative fiction.

    A. Vandana Singh – The Woman Who Thought She Was a Planet
    B. Tehmina Durrani – Blasphemy
    C. Salman Rushdie – The Satanic Verses
    D. Priya Sarukkai Chabria – Generation 14
    E. Gautam Bhatia – The Wall

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and D only
    2. BA, D and E only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DD, A and C only

    Answer: (B) A, D and E only

    Explanation

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  14. Question 14

    Given below are two statements: One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).

    Assertion (A): Jacques Lacan was radically critical of existing psychoanalytical theory.
    Reason (R): Lacan was expelled from the International Psychoanalytical Association in 1959.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. BBoth (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
    3. C(A) is true but (R) is false
    4. D(A) is false but (R) is true

    Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

    Explanation

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  15. Question 15

    When was Haruki Murakami’s Men Without Women published?

    1. A2017
    2. B2018
    3. C2014
    4. D2019

    Answer: (C) 2014

    Explanation

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  16. Question 16

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Hannah Arendt’s “defactualization” is very close to the concept of “post-truth”.
    Statement II: Post-truth relies on absolute lies.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth statement I and statement II are correct
    2. BBoth statement I and statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect

    Explanation

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  17. Question 17

    Match List I with List II

    List IList II
    (A) Donald Davie(I) Against romanticism
    (B) Philip Larkin(II) Hurry on down
    (C) Kingsley Amis(III) The shires
    (D) John Wain(IV) The north ship

    Match-list source material for question 17.

    1. A(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
    2. B(A)_(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
    3. C(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
    4. D(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

    Answer: (D) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

    Explanation

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  18. Question 18

    Which of the following are Plato’s main objections against poetry?

    A. The poet is an imitator.
    B. The poet is incapable of bravery.
    C. The poet, by fueling passions and emotions, weakens the reasoning capacity of the citizens.
    D. The poet is less responsible.
    E. The poet has no knowledge of the world.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C and E only
    2. BA and B only
    3. CB and D only
    4. DE and D only

    Answer: (A) A, C and E only

    Explanation

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  19. Question 19

    Match List I with List II:

    List IList II
    (A) To the light house(I) 1913
    (B) Sons and lovers(II) 1927
    (C) Finnegan’s wake(III) 1939
    (D) The waste land(IV) 1922

    Match-list source material for question 19.

    1. A(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
    2. B(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
    3. C(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
    4. D(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

    Answer: (D) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

    Explanation

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  20. Question 20

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Comparative literature is a study of different cultures, nations and genres, and it explores the inherent relationship between literature and other forms of cultural exploration.
    Statement II: In the study of literature and culture, the importance of methodology is secondary.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth statement I and statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but statement II is true

    Answer: (C) Statement I is true but statement II is false

    Explanation

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  21. Question 21

    Which among the following is an incomplete poem by P.B. Shelley?

    1. A“The triumph of life”
    2. B“Ode to the west-wind”
    3. C“Queen Mab”
    4. D“The daemon of the world”

    Answer: (A) “The triumph of life”

    Explanation

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  22. Question 22

    Who said, “there is, there can be and there ought to be the difference between the language of prose and metrical composition”?

    1. AJohn Dryden
    2. BWilliam Wordsworth
    3. CS.T. Coleridge
    4. DT.S Eliot

    Answer: (B) William Wordsworth

    Explanation

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  23. Question 23

    Which of the following is not a part of Amitav Ghosh’s Ibis trilogy?

    1. ASea of poppies
    2. BRiver of smoke
    3. CFlood of fire
    4. DThe Calcutta chromosome

    Answer: (D) The Calcutta chromosome

    Explanation

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  24. Question 24

    Which among the following are true about Harold Pinter?

    A. Harold Pinter was born in the year 1925
    B. He was influenced by Samuel Beckett and the theatre of the absurd.
    C. The Caretaker and The Alchemist are his famous plays
    D. Stanley is a character in The Birthday Party
    E. Betrayal is a story of a married couple

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, D and E only
    2. BB, D and E only
    3. CB, C and D only
    4. DA, C and D only

    Answer: (B) B, D and E only

    Explanation

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  25. Question 25

    Which of the following concepts are associated with Bhartrhari’s theory of ‘Sphota’?

    A. Rasa
    B. Alankara
    C. Dhvani
    D. Vakrokti
    E. Shabda Brahman

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and E only
    2. BC and E only
    3. CD and B only
    4. DA and C only

    Answer: (B) C and E only

    Explanation

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  26. Question 26

    Who is the author of A Literature of Their Own?

    1. ASandra gilbert and Susan Gubar
    2. BElaine Showalter
    3. CVirginia Woolf
    4. DSylvia Plath

    Answer: (B) Elaine Showalter

    Explanation

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  27. Question 27

    The Deserted Village by Oliver Goldsmith

    1. ACritiques the rural institutions
    2. BVoices revolt of the individual man against institutions
    3. CReflects upon different views on the human soul
    4. DAdvocates urbanism over rural backwardness

    Answer: (B) Voices revolt of the individual man against institutions

    Explanation

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  28. Question 28

    Match List I with List II

    List IList II
    (A) Malcolm Bradbury(I) Masters
    (B) David lodge(II) Lucky Jim
    (C) Kingsley Amis(III) The history man
    (D) C P snow(IV) Changing places

    Match-list source material for question 28.

    1. A(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
    2. B(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
    3. C(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
    4. D(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

    Answer: (B) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

    Explanation

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  29. Question 29

    Under the Net (1954) is written by

    1. AJohn Fowles
    2. BIris Murdoch
    3. CEdmund goose
    4. DWilliam cooper

    Answer: (B) Iris Murdoch

    Explanation

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  30. Question 30

    Who among the following has authored The Revenger’s Tragedie?

    1. ACyril Tourneur
    2. BJohn Webster
    3. CJohn Fletcher
    4. DThomas Heywood

    Answer: (A) Cyril Tourneur

    Explanation

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  31. Question 31

    What is the correct sequence of the following feminist texts in chronological order of publication?

    A. Sexual Politics
    B. A World of Difference
    C. The Female Imagination
    D. Thinking About Women
    E. A Room of One’s Own

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
    2. B(E), (B), (D), (A), (C)
    3. C(E), (D), (A), (C), (B)
    4. D(B), (C), (D), (E), (A)

    Answer: (C) (E), (D), (A), (C), (B)

    Explanation

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  32. Question 32

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: “... he who discovers no god whatever, how shall he discover heroes the visible temples of God” is a statement by Thomas Carlyle.
    Statement II: “It is not that men are ill fed, but that they have no pleasure in the work by which they make their bread, and therefore look to wealth as the only means of pleasure” is a statement made by John Ruskin.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth statement I and statement II are true
    2. BBoth statement I and statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but statement II is true

    Answer: (A) Both statement I and statement II are true

    Explanation

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  33. Question 33

    Which of the following articles of the Indian constitution made the provision for use of English. Alongside Hindi, for official purposes, for fifteen years?

    1. AArticle 351
    2. BArticle 344
    3. CArticle 343
    4. DArticle 348

    Answer: (C) Article 343

    Explanation

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  34. Question 34

    Kimberlé Crenshaw’s term “intersectionality” is widely used for:

    A. Academic deterioration
    B. Racial justice
    C. Peace formation
    D. Complex construction of power
    E. Identity politics

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. AB, D and E only
    2. BA, C and E only
    3. CB, D and C only
    4. DC, D and E only

    Answer: (A) B, D and E only

    Explanation

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  35. Question 35

    The heroic couplet is a pair of

    1. ATwelve-syllable lines that rhyme
    2. BTen-syllable lines that rhyme
    3. CEight-syllable lines that do not rhyme
    4. DEight-syllable lines that rhyme

    Answer: (B) Ten-syllable lines that rhyme

    Explanation

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  36. Question 36

    Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

    Assertion (A): Roland Barthes describes two basic categories of text as “the readerly” and “the writerly.”
    Reason (R): Language is the window through which one sees the world.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. BBoth (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
    3. C(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
    4. D(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

    Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

    Explanation

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  37. Question 37

    Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

    Assertion (A): In the 19th century, Charlotte Perkins Gilman asserted economic independence over voting rights.
    Reason (R): The representation of women as power-seekers was not socially acceptable in 19th century America.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. BBoth (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
    3. C(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
    4. D(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

    Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

    Explanation

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  38. Question 38

    A. L. Tennyson in the following lines:

    "Yet I doubt not through the ages one increasing purpose runs,
    And the thoughts of men are widened with the process of the suns"

    1. AReflects upon secularism
    2. BReflects upon evolutionary faith
    3. CReflects upon utilitarianism
    4. DReflects upon materialism

    Answer: (B) Reflects upon evolutionary faith

    Explanation

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  39. Question 39

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: According to W. H. Auden, The Importance of Being Earnest is the purest example in English literature of a ‘verbal opera’.
    Statement II: Oscar Wilde possessed profound insight into the range of the arts that in a combined form make theatre performance possible.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth statement I and statement II are true
    2. BBoth statement I and statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but statement II is true

    Answer: (A) Both statement I and statement II are true

    Explanation

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  40. Question 40

    Canadian multiculturalism act was passed in the year:

    1. A1958
    2. B1968
    3. C1978
    4. D1988

    Answer: (D) 1988

    Explanation

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  41. Question 41

    Who among the following attached himself to the Earl of Nottingham’s theatrical company?

    1. AWilliam Shakespeare
    2. BChristopher Marlowe
    3. CGeorge Peele
    4. DBen Johnson

    Answer: (B) Christopher Marlowe

    Explanation

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  42. Question 42

    Consumerism is a major theme in which of the following works?

    A. Loyalties
    B. Saint Joan of the Stockyards
    C. Death of a Salesman
    D. Candida
    E. Waiting for Godot

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BD and A only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DA and E only

    Answer: (C) B and C only

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  43. Question 43

    Which of the following theorists identifies “metonymy” and “metaphor” as two fundamental structures of language?

    1. AFerdinand de Sassure
    2. BRoland Barthes
    3. CJ.L. Austin
    4. DRoman Jakobson

    Answer: (D) Roman Jakobson

    Explanation

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  44. Question 44

    Who is the author of the essay “Three women’s texts and a critique of imperialism” (1985)?

    1. AAnia Loomba
    2. BMeenakshi Mukherjee
    3. CSusan Meyer
    4. DGayatri Chakravorty Spivak

    Answer: (D) Gayatri Chakravorty Spivak

    Explanation

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  45. Question 45

    What is meant by “corporate author” in research?

    1. AA writer who belongs to a corporate company
    2. BA writer who writes on matters of corporate affairs
    3. CA work produced by an institution, an association or a government agency
    4. DA renowned author

    Answer: (C) A work produced by an institution, an association or a government agency

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  46. Question 46

    Which among the following are appropriate about Latin American literature?

    A. There has been racial coherence and unity in literary representations of Latin America
    B. The Latin American literary tradition draws analogy between plant growth and human movement
    C. Dzul Poot’s stories depict the geography of the Chilam Balam towns
    D. Quechua had a wider popularity and presence across different nations
    E. Latin American literature is unitary and refrains from intertextuality of any kind

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, D and E only
    2. BC, B and E only
    3. CB, C and E only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (D) B, C and D only

    Explanation

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  47. Question 47

    Identify the correct combinations among the following:

    A. Spondee: It consists of three stressed syllables
    B. Pyrrhic: It consists of two unstressed syllables
    C. Amphimacer: It is a metrical foot of three syllables
    D. Choriambus: It is a foot of verse consisting of two stressed syllables enclosing two unstressed syllables
    E. Trochaic: It has a stressed syllable followed by an unstressed one.

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and E only
    3. CB, C and D only
    4. DC, D and E only

    Answer: (B) B, C and E only

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  48. Question 48

    Who among the following in the article, “Fleshly school of poetry”, attacked the pre-Raphaelites, especially D.G. Rossetti?

    1. ARobert browning
    2. BWilliam Holeman hunt
    3. CRobert Buchanan
    4. DChristina Rossetti

    Answer: (C) Robert Buchanan

    Explanation

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  49. Question 49

    Subramani’s Fantasy Eaters (1988) is a

    1. ANovel
    2. BCollection of short stories
    3. CCollection of essays
    4. DPoem

    Answer: (B) Collection of short stories

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  50. Question 50

    Identify the correct combinations:

    A. Dadaism – Tristan Tzara
    B. Super realism – Guillaume Apollinaire
    C. Surrealism – Filippo Marinetti
    D. Futurism – André Breton
    E. Nihilism – Ivan Sergeyevich Turgenev

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(A), (C) and (E)
    2. B(A), (B) and (E)
    3. C(B), (C) and (D)
    4. D(C), (D) and (E)

    Answer: (B) (A), (B) and (E)

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  51. Question 51

    Tolkappiyam is a book of grammar and poetics written in the_____ language

    1. ATelugu
    2. BTamil
    3. CKannada
    4. DMalayalam

    Answer: (B) Tamil

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  52. Question 52

    Identify the correct pairs:

    A. The Boyfriend – Juliette Banerjee
    B. Nude Therapy – Margaret Chatterjee
    C. The Other Woman and Other Stories – Dina Mehta
    D. The Yankee and the Yogi – B. G. Siddharth
    E. Prejudice of Ages – Vera Sharma

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(A), (B) and (C)
    2. B(A), (C) and (D)
    3. C(B), (C) and (E)
    4. D(C), (D) and (E)

    Answer: (B) (A), (C) and (D)

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  53. Question 53

    “It is significant that the productive capacities of this third space have a colonial or post colonial provenance”. The above lines have been written by

    1. ASalman Rushdie
    2. BEdward said
    3. CBenedict Anderson
    4. DHomi K. Bhabha

    Answer: (D) Homi K. Bhabha

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  54. Question 54

    In which year miles Coverdale translated The Old Testament of the bible?

    1. A1533
    2. B1534
    3. C1535
    4. D1536

    Answer: (C) 1535

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  55. Question 55

    Who among the following is not a recipient of the Nobel prize for literature?

    1. AWinston Churchill
    2. BT.S. Eliot
    3. CW.H. Auden
    4. DNot visible in source

    Answer: (C) W.H. Auden

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  56. Question 56

    Match List I with List II:

    List IList II
    (A) “Willing to wound, and yet afraid to strike.”(I) Irony
    (B) “It is a truth universally acknowledged that a single man in possession of good fortune must be in want of a wife.”(II) Simile
    (C) “Thou still unravished bride of quietness. Thou foster child of silence and slow time.”(III) Antithesis
    (D) “And ice, mast-high, come floating by, as green as emerald.”(IV) Assonance

    Match-list source material for question 56.

    1. A(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
    2. B(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
    3. C(A)-(III). (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
    4. D(A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

    Answer: (B) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

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  57. Question 57

    Using the author–work table above, Anglo-Irish relations in the 20th century have been represented in which of the following novels?

    ItemAuthorNovel
    AElizabeth BowenThe Last September
    BMay SinclairThe Divine Fire
    CJ. G. FarrellTroubles
    DJ. G. FarrellThe Siege of Krishnapur
    EJeffery FarnolBlack Bartlemy’s Treasure

    Author–work pairs.

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BA, and C only
    3. CD, E and B only
    4. DA, C and D only

    Answer: (B) A, and C only

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  58. Question 58

    Match List I with List II:

    List IList II
    (A) The poetics of prose(I) Stanley fish
    (B) Problems of Dostoevsky’s poetics(II) Tzvetan Todrov
    (C) Surprised by sin(III) Mikhail Bakhtin
    (D) The way women write(IV) Mary Hiatt

    Match-list source material for question 58.

    1. A(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
    2. B(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
    3. C(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
    4. D(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

    Answer: (C) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

    Explanation

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  59. Question 59

    Stuart Hall belongs to ______________schools of cultural studies.

    1. AOxford
    2. BCambridge
    3. CBirmingham
    4. DAmerican

    Answer: (C) Birmingham

    Explanation

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  60. Question 60

    Match List I with List II:

    List IList II
    (A) Salim Ali(I) Wild beauty
    (B) Jim Corbett(II) The fall of a sparrow
    (C) Kailash Sankhala(III) Night and days: my book of Indian wildlife
    (D) M. Krishnan(IV) My India
    1. A(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
    2. B(A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
    3. C(A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
    4. D(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

    Answer: (A) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

    Explanation

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  61. Question 61

    Which of the collections of poems are not written by Meena Alexander?

    A. River and Bridge
    B. Articulate Silence
    C. Raw Silk
    D. Stone Roots
    E. A Time to Change

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and D only
    3. CC and E only
    4. DB and E only

    Answer: (D) B and E only

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  62. Question 62

    Find out the correct sequence of the publications of the following books

    1. AIndia: An area of darkness: India: A wounded civilization: India: a million Mutinies now: A house for Mr. Biswas
    2. BA house for Mr. Biswas: India: A million mutinies now: India: An area of darkness: India: A wounded civilization
    3. CA house for Mr. Biswas: India: An area of darkness: India: A wounded civilization: India: A million mutinies now
    4. DIndia: A wounded civilization: A house for Mr. Biswas: India: An area of darkness: India: A million mutinies now

    Answer: (C) A house for Mr. Biswas: India: An area of darkness: India: A wounded civilization: India: A million mutinies now

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  63. Question 63

    Choose the right chronological sequence of publication of the following novels by Margaret Atwood:

    A. Lady Oracle
    B. The Blind Assassin
    C. The Handmaid’s Tale
    D. The Testaments
    E. Alias Grace

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C, D, E
    2. BA, C, E, B, D
    3. CE, A, D, B, C
    4. DC, A, D, E, B

    Answer: (B) A, C, E, B, D

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  64. Question 64

    According to Roland Barthes, which of the following “codes” are common to all narratives?

    A. Synthetic code
    B. Proairetic code
    C. Semic code
    D. Hermeneutic code
    E. Symbolic code

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA, B and C only
    4. DB, C, D and E only

    Answer: (D) B, C, D and E only

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  65. Question 65

    J Hillis Miller, one of the leading exponents of deconstruction, makes a deconstructionist reading of which of the following poems of P.B Shelley?

    1. A“The triumph of life”
    2. B“Ode to the west wind”
    3. C“Revolt of Islam”
    4. D“The witch of atlas”

    Answer: (A) “The triumph of life”

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  66. Question 66

    Who is the author of the poem “House of Fame”?

    1. AWilliam Langland
    2. BGeoffrey Chaucer
    3. CThomas Moore
    4. DPhilip Sidney

    Answer: (B) Geoffrey Chaucer

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  67. Question 67

    Which of these are correct combinations of works by Doris Lessing and their respective themes?

    A. The Golden Notebook deals with Johor travelling to Rohonda
    B. The Good Terrorist is about a doomed love affair
    C. Shikasta is about a planet which is cut off due to the advanced influence of civilization
    D. Alfred and Emily explores the life of her parents
    E. The Grass Is Singing draws from her experiences in Africa

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AB, A and D only
    2. BA, B and E only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DC, D and E only

    Answer: (C) C, D and E only

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  68. Question 68

    Which of these graphic narratives depict political crisis?

    A. Amruta Patil – Kari
    B. Joe Sacco – Footnotes in Gaza
    C. Art Spiegelman – Maus
    D. Sarnath Banerjee – Corridor
    E. Phoebe Gloeckner – The Diary of a Teenage Girl

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BC, D and E only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (C) B and C only

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  69. Question 69

    Identify the poems termed as “pastoral elegies”:

    A. Lycidas
    B. In Memory of W. B. Yeats
    C. Adonais
    D. Thyrsis
    E. In Memoriam

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and E only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DC, D and E only

    Answer: (C) A, C and D only

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  70. Question 70

    The book Women Beware Women was published in the year

    1. A1657
    2. B1620
    3. C1621
    4. D1622

    Answer: (A) 1657

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  71. Question 71

    Who among the following were Poet Laureates of England?

    A. Alfred Austin
    B. Robert Bridges
    C. Theodore Watts-Dunton
    D. Oscar Wilde

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(A) and (B) only
    2. B(A) and (D) only
    3. C(B) and (C) and (D)
    4. D(A) (B) and (C) only

    Answer: (A) (A) and (B) only

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  72. Question 72

    Find the correct explanation of the term “Aporia”:

    1. AIt denotes a speaker’s or character’s deliberation on an irresolvable question
    2. BIt is an address to something inanimate
    3. CIt is applied to a work of art fraught with inherent tension
    4. DIt refers to a form of denial of existence

    Answer: (A) It denotes a speaker’s or character’s deliberation on an irresolvable question

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  73. Question 73

    Which among the following are appropriate about Ngũgĩ wa Thiong’o’s article “Literature in Schools”?

    A. The article discusses the relevance and adequacy of the present education system
    B. It advocates teaching of European texts and literature to the students of third world countries
    C. It reflects negatively upon the literature taught to Kenyan students in national schools
    D. It argues that cultural imperialism distorts people’s vision of history
    E. It observes that European teachers are better equipped to teach literature to Kenyan students

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BC, D and E only
    3. CB, C and D only
    4. DA, C and D only

    Answer: (D) A, C and D only

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  74. Question 74

    Identify the correct statements among the following:

    A. Arun Kolatkar uses colloquial speech in his poems
    B. Kolatkar envisions abstract qualities to paint a picture of life of his own kind
    C. The poem “Boatride” by Kolatkar talks about a ride in the Ganges
    D. Private Poems in a Public Garden is composed by Dilip Chitre
    E. ‘In Ethiopia’ is a poem on Africa by Arun Kolatkar

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, D and E only
    3. CA, B and D only
    4. DC, B and E only

    Answer: (C) A, B and D only

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  75. Question 75

    Identify the one that has not been paired correctly

    1. ACriticism in wilderness – Geoffrey Hartman
    2. BMadness and civilization – Roland Barthes
    3. CPoetry and repression – Harold bloom
    4. DStrangers to ourselves – Julia Kristeva

    Answer: (B) Madness and civilization – Roland Barthes

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  76. Question 76

    Match List I with List II:

    List IList II
    (A) O’ Henry(I) The last suttee
    (B) Rudyard Kipling(II) Beauty
    (C) Oscar Wilde(III) At Verona
    (D) Ralph waldo Emerson(IV) Hard to forget

    Match-list source material for question 76.

    1. A(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
    2. B(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
    3. C(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
    4. D(A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

    Answer: (C) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

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  77. Question 77

    Who among the following critics appropriates the following statement by Karl Marx?

    1. ARuth Vanita
    2. BKamla Bhasin
    3. CFlaria Agnes
    4. DChandra Talpade Mohanty

    Answer: (D) Chandra Talpade Mohanty

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  78. Question 78

    Which writer does not belong to the angry young men movement?

    1. AJohn Osborne
    2. BKingsley Amis
    3. CSeamus Heaney
    4. DPhilip Larkin

    Answer: (C) Seamus Heaney

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  79. Question 79

    What does Aristotle mean by the phrase “language with pleasurable accessories” in his definition of tragedy?

    A. A language full of pompous vocabulary
    B. An embellished language
    C. A language full of rhythm and harmony
    D. A language superadded with song
    E. Emotive language

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and E only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DA, B and D only

    Answer: (C) C and D only

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  80. Question 80

    Match the following works of Edward Kamau Brathwaite (List I) according to their year of publication (List II):

    List I (Work)List II (Year)
    A. Rights of PassageI. 1973
    B. IslandsII. 1969
    C. MasksIII. 1967
    D. The ArrivantsIV. 1968

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
    2. B(A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
    3. C(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
    4. D(A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

    Answer: (D) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

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  81. Question 81

    “A man can be destroyed but not defeated”. Which of the following texts glorifies this as its predominant theme?

    1. AThe old man and the sea
    2. BWar and peace
    3. CA farewell to arms
    4. DFor whom the bell tolls

    Answer: (A) The old man and the sea

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  82. Question 82

    Which of these are not forms of flash fiction?

    A. Drabble
    B. Postcard fiction
    C. Novelette
    D. Short story
    E. Nanofiction

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. AC and D only
    2. BA, B and E only
    3. CD and E only
    4. DC, D and E only

    Answer: (A) C and D only

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  83. Question 83

    Identify the correct combinations among the following:

    A. Demons – Novel
    B. The Landlady – Novella
    C. The Crocodile – Short story
    D. A Writer’s Diary – Essay
    E. Mary Stuart – Translation

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BC, D and E only
    3. CB, C and E only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (A) A, B and C only

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  84. Question 84

    Should poets’ bicycle-pump the human heart or squash it flat?

    1. APhilip Larkin
    2. BKingsley Amis
    3. CDonald Davie
    4. DJohn wain

    Answer: (B) Kingsley Amis

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  85. Question 85

    Gaiutra bahadur wrote an autobiographic novel titled

    1. AAn era of darkness
    2. BDauka Puran
    3. CThe collie woman
    4. DRama’s banishment

    Answer: (C) The collie woman

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  86. Question 86

    Philip Sidney’s arcadia was influenced by

    1. AThe Spanish romance of Montemayor
    2. BThe Italian paintings of Veronese
    3. CThe Arthurian legends
    4. DThe metaphysical poetry

    Answer: (A) The Spanish romance of Montemayor

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  87. Question 87

    Which among the following are true about the Tractarian Movement?

    A. It was widespread across the world
    B. The other leaders of the movement were John Henry Newman and R. H. Froude
    C. The movement began with a sermon by John Keble in 1833
    D. Pusey gave the movement cohesion, fame and a name
    E. The ideal of the Christian church was praised by Oxford Convocation

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BA, C and E only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (D) B, C and D only

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  88. Question 88

    Match List I with List II:

    List IList II
    (A) Gender and nation(I) Catherine Belsey
    (B) Greek homosexuality(II) K.J. dover
    (C) The subject of tragedy(III) W.E.B. Du Bois
    (D) The souls of black folk(IV) Nira Yuval-Davis

    Match-list source material for question 88.

    1. A(A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
    2. B(A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
    3. C(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
    4. D(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

    Answer: (D) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

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  89. Question 89

    Identify the novels that were published in the 1980s and the 1990s:

    A. Red Earth and Pouring Rain
    B. The Circle of Reason
    C. The Ghosts of Vasu Master
    D. Miguel Street
    E. The Siege of Babylon

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AB, C, D and E only
    2. BA, B and C only
    3. CB, A and D only
    4. DA, C and E only

    Answer: (B) A, B and C only

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  90. Question 90

    Which of the following denote the three phases of literary feminism according to Elaine Showalter?

    A. Feminine
    B. Gynie
    C. Womanish
    D. Feminist
    E. Female

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BA, D and E only
    3. CA, B and E only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (B) A, D and E only

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  91. Question 91

    Which of the following is a correct interpretation?

    Q.91-95) Read the following passage, and answer the questions that follow: (91-95)
    However, faced with this world of faithful and complicated objects, the child can only identify himself as owner. as user, never as creator, he does not invent the world. he uses it: there are. prepared for him, actions without adventure, without wonder, without joy. He is turned into a little stay-at-home householder who does not even have to invent the mainsprings of adult causality: they are supplied to him ready-made: he has only to help himself. he is never allowed to discover anything from start to finish. The merest set of blocks. provided it is not too refined, implies a very different learning of the world: then, the child does not in any way create meaningful objects, it matters little to him whether they have an adult name: the actions he performs are not those of a user but those of a demiurge. He creates forms which walk, which roll, he creates life. not property: objects now act by themselves; they are no longer an inert and complicated material in the palm of his hand.
    Roland Barthes “Toys” (Excerpt from Mythologies)

    1. AThe child claims the object as his property
    2. BThe objects that the child holds are obscure and useless
    3. CThe child cannot understand the design of the object
    4. DIn touching the object, the child creates dynamic forms of life

    Answer: (D) In touching the object, the child creates dynamic forms of life

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  92. Question 92

    In the context of the above passage, which is the closest to being true:

    Q.91-95) Read the following passage, and answer the questions that follow: (91-95)
    However, faced with this world of faithful and complicated objects, the child can only identify himself as owner. as user, never as creator, he does not invent the world. he uses it: there are. prepared for him, actions without adventure, without wonder, without joy. He is turned into a little stay-at-home householder who does not even have to invent the mainsprings of adult causality: they are supplied to him ready-made: he has only to help himself. he is never allowed to discover anything from start to finish. The merest set of blocks. provided it is not too refined, implies a very different learning of the world: then, the child does not in any way create meaningful objects, it matters little to him whether they have an adult name: the actions he performs are not those of a user but those of a demiurge. He creates forms which walk, which roll, he creates life. not property: objects now act by themselves; they are no longer an inert and complicated material in the palm of his hand.
    Roland Barthes “Toys” (Excerpt from Mythologies)

    1. AChildren actively learn while playing
    2. BChildren are objects for toy makers
    3. CToys affect the cognitive abilities of the children
    4. DChildren recreate meaning from the toys

    Answer: (C) Toys affect the cognitive abilities of the children

    Explanation

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  93. Question 93

    The adult causality is about

    Q.91-95) Read the following passage, and answer the questions that follow: (91-95)
    However, faced with this world of faithful and complicated objects, the child can only identify himself as owner. as user, never as creator, he does not invent the world. he uses it: there are. prepared for him, actions without adventure, without wonder, without joy. He is turned into a little stay-at-home householder who does not even have to invent the mainsprings of adult causality: they are supplied to him ready-made: he has only to help himself. he is never allowed to discover anything from start to finish. The merest set of blocks. provided it is not too refined, implies a very different learning of the world: then, the child does not in any way create meaningful objects, it matters little to him whether they have an adult name: the actions he performs are not those of a user but those of a demiurge. He creates forms which walk, which roll, he creates life. not property: objects now act by themselves; they are no longer an inert and complicated material in the palm of his hand.
    Roland Barthes “Toys” (Excerpt from Mythologies)

    1. ASensual and sexual knowledge of the world
    2. BCognitive and logical structure of the world
    3. CNihilistic recreation of the world
    4. DLinguistic structure of the objects

    Answer: (B) Cognitive and logical structure of the world

    Explanation

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  94. Question 94

    The word “demiurge” connotes

    Q.91-95) Read the following passage, and answer the questions that follow: (91-95)
    However, faced with this world of faithful and complicated objects, the child can only identify himself as owner. as user, never as creator, he does not invent the world. he uses it: there are. prepared for him, actions without adventure, without wonder, without joy. He is turned into a little stay-at-home householder who does not even have to invent the mainsprings of adult causality: they are supplied to him ready-made: he has only to help himself. he is never allowed to discover anything from start to finish. The merest set of blocks. provided it is not too refined, implies a very different learning of the world: then, the child does not in any way create meaningful objects, it matters little to him whether they have an adult name: the actions he performs are not those of a user but those of a demiurge. He creates forms which walk, which roll, he creates life. not property: objects now act by themselves; they are no longer an inert and complicated material in the palm of his hand.
    Roland Barthes “Toys” (Excerpt from Mythologies)

    1. ACognitive inactiveness of the children
    2. BTheir sensational realization of the objects
    3. CTheir creative abilities
    4. DTheir sudden discovery

    Answer: (C) Their creative abilities

    Explanation

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  95. Question 95

    The world of objects makes the child

    Q.91-95) Read the following passage, and answer the questions that follow: (91-95)
    However, faced with this world of faithful and complicated objects, the child can only identify himself as owner. as user, never as creator, he does not invent the world. he uses it: there are. prepared for him, actions without adventure, without wonder, without joy. He is turned into a little stay-at-home householder who does not even have to invent the mainsprings of adult causality: they are supplied to him ready-made: he has only to help himself. he is never allowed to discover anything from start to finish. The merest set of blocks. provided it is not too refined, implies a very different learning of the world: then, the child does not in any way create meaningful objects, it matters little to him whether they have an adult name: the actions he performs are not those of a user but those of a demiurge. He creates forms which walk, which roll, he creates life. not property: objects now act by themselves; they are no longer an inert and complicated material in the palm of his hand.
    Roland Barthes “Toys” (Excerpt from Mythologies)

    1. AImaginative
    2. BInventor
    3. CActant
    4. DCreator

    Answer: (D) Creator

    Explanation

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  96. Question 96

    The poem, ‘Mr Bleaney’, is written in a ______form.

    Q.96-100) Read the following poem, and answer the question that follow (96-100)
    ‘This was Mr Bleaney’s room he stayed
    The whole time he was at the bodies, till
    They moved him, ‘flowered curtains, thin and frayed,
    Fall to within five inches of the sill.
    Whose window shows a strip of building land,
    Tussocky littered. ‘Mr bleaney’s took
    My bit of garden properly in hand.’
    Bed, upright chair, sixty-watt bulb, no book
    Behind the door, no room for books or bags—
    ‘I’ll take it. ‘So it happens that I lie
    Where Mr bleaney lay, and stub my fags
    On the same saucer-souvenir, and try
    Stuffing my ears with cotton, wool, to drown
    The jabbering set he egged her on yo buy,
    I know his habits——what time he came down’
    His preference for sauce to gravy, why
    He kept on plugging at the four aways__
    Likewise their yearly frame: the Frinton folk
    Who put him up for summer holidays
    And Christmas at his sister’s house in stoke
    But if he stood and watched the frigid wind
    Tousling the clouds, lay on the fusty bed
    Telling himself that this was home, and grinned,
    And shivered, without shaking off the dread
    That how we live measures our own nature,
    And at his age having no more to show
    Than one hired box should make him pretty sure
    He warranted no better, I don’t know.
    Philip Larkin

    1. ASatirical
    2. BLyrical
    3. CDramatic
    4. DPhilosophical

    Answer: (C) Dramatic

    Explanation

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  97. Question 97

    In the third line ‘They refers to’

    Q.96-100) Read the following poem, and answer the question that follow (96-100)
    ‘This was Mr Bleaney’s room he stayed
    The whole time he was at the bodies, till
    They moved him, ‘flowered curtains, thin and frayed,
    Fall to within five inches of the sill.
    Whose window shows a strip of building land,
    Tussocky littered. ‘Mr bleaney’s took
    My bit of garden properly in hand.’
    Bed, upright chair, sixty-watt bulb, no book
    Behind the door, no room for books or bags—
    ‘I’ll take it. ‘So it happens that I lie
    Where Mr bleaney lay, and stub my fags
    On the same saucer-souvenir, and try
    Stuffing my ears with cotton, wool, to drown
    The jabbering set he egged her on yo buy,
    I know his habits——what time he came down’
    His preference for sauce to gravy, why
    He kept on plugging at the four aways__
    Likewise their yearly frame: the Frinton folk
    Who put him up for summer holidays
    And Christmas at his sister’s house in stoke
    But if he stood and watched the frigid wind
    Tousling the clouds, lay on the fusty bed
    Telling himself that this was home, and grinned,
    And shivered, without shaking off the dread
    That how we live measures our own nature,
    And at his age having no more to show
    Than one hired box should make him pretty sure
    He warranted no better, I don’t know.
    Philip Larkin

    1. AEmployers
    2. BOwners
    3. CMaster
    4. DManufacturers

    Answer: (A) Employers

    Explanation

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  98. Question 98

    Mr. Bleaney was the _________ of the house.

    Q.96-100) Read the following poem, and answer the question that follow (96-100)
    ‘This was Mr Bleaney’s room he stayed
    The whole time he was at the bodies, till
    They moved him, ‘flowered curtains, thin and frayed,
    Fall to within five inches of the sill.
    Whose window shows a strip of building land,
    Tussocky littered. ‘Mr bleaney’s took
    My bit of garden properly in hand.’
    Bed, upright chair, sixty-watt bulb, no book
    Behind the door, no room for books or bags—
    ‘I’ll take it. ‘So it happens that I lie
    Where Mr bleaney lay, and stub my fags
    On the same saucer-souvenir, and try
    Stuffing my ears with cotton, wool, to drown
    The jabbering set he egged her on yo buy,
    I know his habits——what time he came down’
    His preference for sauce to gravy, why
    He kept on plugging at the four aways__
    Likewise their yearly frame: the Frinton folk
    Who put him up for summer holidays
    And Christmas at his sister’s house in stoke
    But if he stood and watched the frigid wind
    Tousling the clouds, lay on the fusty bed
    Telling himself that this was home, and grinned,
    And shivered, without shaking off the dread
    That how we live measures our own nature,
    And at his age having no more to show
    Than one hired box should make him pretty sure
    He warranted no better, I don’t know.
    Philip Larkin

    1. AOwner
    2. BTenant
    3. CMaster
    4. DPossessor

    Answer: (B) Tenant

    Explanation

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  99. Question 99

    According to the speaker Mr. bleany was

    Q.96-100) Read the following poem, and answer the question that follow (96-100)
    ‘This was Mr Bleaney’s room he stayed
    The whole time he was at the bodies, till
    They moved him, ‘flowered curtains, thin and frayed,
    Fall to within five inches of the sill.
    Whose window shows a strip of building land,
    Tussocky littered. ‘Mr bleaney’s took
    My bit of garden properly in hand.’
    Bed, upright chair, sixty-watt bulb, no book
    Behind the door, no room for books or bags—
    ‘I’ll take it. ‘So it happens that I lie
    Where Mr bleaney lay, and stub my fags
    On the same saucer-souvenir, and try
    Stuffing my ears with cotton, wool, to drown
    The jabbering set he egged her on yo buy,
    I know his habits——what time he came down’
    His preference for sauce to gravy, why
    He kept on plugging at the four aways__
    Likewise their yearly frame: the Frinton folk
    Who put him up for summer holidays
    And Christmas at his sister’s house in stoke
    But if he stood and watched the frigid wind
    Tousling the clouds, lay on the fusty bed
    Telling himself that this was home, and grinned,
    And shivered, without shaking off the dread
    That how we live measures our own nature,
    And at his age having no more to show
    Than one hired box should make him pretty sure
    He warranted no better, I don’t know.
    Philip Larkin

    1. AA humorous person
    2. BA social and fun-loving person
    3. CA hard working person
    4. DA sad and dull person

    Answer: (D) A sad and dull person

    Explanation

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  100. Question 100

    The poem ‘Mr. Bleaney’ deals with the portrayal of his_________

    Q.96-100) Read the following poem, and answer the question that follow (96-100)
    ‘This was Mr Bleaney’s room he stayed
    The whole time he was at the bodies, till
    They moved him, ‘flowered curtains, thin and frayed,
    Fall to within five inches of the sill.
    Whose window shows a strip of building land,
    Tussocky littered. ‘Mr bleaney’s took
    My bit of garden properly in hand.’
    Bed, upright chair, sixty-watt bulb, no book
    Behind the door, no room for books or bags—
    ‘I’ll take it. ‘So it happens that I lie
    Where Mr bleaney lay, and stub my fags
    On the same saucer-souvenir, and try
    Stuffing my ears with cotton, wool, to drown
    The jabbering set he egged her on yo buy,
    I know his habits——what time he came down’
    His preference for sauce to gravy, why
    He kept on plugging at the four aways__
    Likewise their yearly frame: the Frinton folk
    Who put him up for summer holidays
    And Christmas at his sister’s house in stoke
    But if he stood and watched the frigid wind
    Tousling the clouds, lay on the fusty bed
    Telling himself that this was home, and grinned,
    And shivered, without shaking off the dread
    That how we live measures our own nature,
    And at his age having no more to show
    Than one hired box should make him pretty sure
    He warranted no better, I don’t know.
    Philip Larkin

    1. ARichness
    2. BExtravagance
    3. CLuxuriousness
    4. DOrdinariness

    Answer: (D) Ordinariness

    Explanation

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Spotted a shift or questions missing from this paper?

Paper 1 — General Aptitude · Shift 2

Attempt this paper

50 questions with the answer key and explanations.

  1. Question 1

    Profit earned by Company A on Model L (in Rs. crore) is:

    The table shows the percentage distribution of production of bicycles of two models (L and M) by six companies A-F, the ratio of production of L to M, and the percentage profit earned on the two models. Total production cost of the six companies together is Rs. 6.4 crore.

    Company% DistributionL:MProfit LProfit M
    A20%13:725%32%
    B14%9:528%30%
    C22%6:520%24%
    D13%6:735%25%
    E10%2:324%21%
    F21%11:1030%20%
    1. A0.244
    2. B0.224
    3. C0.208
    4. D0.248

    Answer: (C) 0.208

    Explanation

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  2. Question 2

    Profit earned by Companies B and C together on Model M (in Rs. crore) is:

    The table shows the percentage distribution of production of bicycles of two models (L and M) by six companies A-F, the ratio of production of L to M, and the percentage profit earned on the two models. Total production cost of the six companies together is Rs. 6.4 crore.

    Company% DistributionL:MProfit LProfit M
    A20%13:725%32%
    B14%9:528%30%
    C22%6:520%24%
    D13%6:735%25%
    E10%2:324%21%
    F21%11:1030%20%
    1. A0.2496
    2. B0.2488
    3. C0.2466
    4. D0.2844

    Answer: (A) 0.2496

    Explanation

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  3. Question 3

    The ratio of the cost of production of Model L by Company D to that of Model M by Company F is:

    The table shows the percentage distribution of production of bicycles of two models (L and M) by six companies A-F, the ratio of production of L to M, and the percentage profit earned on the two models. Total production cost of the six companies together is Rs. 6.4 crore.

    Company% DistributionL:MProfit LProfit M
    A20%13:725%32%
    B14%9:528%30%
    C22%6:520%24%
    D13%6:735%25%
    E10%2:324%21%
    F21%11:1030%20%
    1. A4:5
    2. B3:5
    3. C5:7
    4. D1:2

    Answer: (B) 3:5

    Explanation

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  4. Question 4

    The difference between the profit earned by Company C on Model L and by Company E on Model M (in Rs. crore) is:

    The table shows the percentage distribution of production of bicycles of two models (L and M) by six companies A-F, the ratio of production of L to M, and the percentage profit earned on the two models. Total production cost of the six companies together is Rs. 6.4 crore.

    Company% DistributionL:MProfit LProfit M
    A20%13:725%32%
    B14%9:528%30%
    C22%6:520%24%
    D13%6:735%25%
    E10%2:324%21%
    F21%11:1030%20%
    1. A0.7296
    2. B7.296
    3. C0.03648
    4. D0.07296

    Answer: (D) 0.07296

    Explanation

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  5. Question 5

    The ratio of the profit earned on Model L by Company B to that of Model M by Company D is:

    The table shows the percentage distribution of production of bicycles of two models (L and M) by six companies A-F, the ratio of production of L to M, and the percentage profit earned on the two models. Total production cost of the six companies together is Rs. 6.4 crore.

    Company% DistributionL:MProfit LProfit M
    A20%13:725%32%
    B14%9:528%30%
    C22%6:520%24%
    D13%6:735%25%
    E10%2:324%21%
    F21%11:1030%20%
    1. A36:25
    2. B6:5
    3. C7:8
    4. D123:97

    Answer: (A) 36:25

    Explanation

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  6. Question 6

    Which of the following represents learning as a six-level hierarchy in a cognitive domain?

    1. ABloom's Taxonomy
    2. BSOLO Taxonomy
    3. CBrigg's Taxonomy
    4. DGagne's Taxonomy

    Answer: (A) Bloom's Taxonomy

    Explanation

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  7. Question 7

    Which of the following models for curriculum evaluation considers three primary sources of curriculum - students, society and subject matter - reflecting the philosophy of education and psychology of learning?

    1. ACIPP model
    2. BStake's model
    3. CTyler's model
    4. DScriven's model

    Answer: (C) Tyler's model

    Explanation

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  8. Question 8

    Which of the following must be ensured by a 21st-century Higher Education teacher?
    A. Preparing students towards Higher Order Thinking Skills
    B. Placements of students
    C. Using digital resources
    D. Interaction with bright students only
    E. Inter-disciplinary approach

    1. AA, C and E only
    2. BA, C and D only
    3. CA, C, D and E only
    4. DA, B, C and D only

    Answer: (A) A, C and E only

    Explanation

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  9. Question 9

    Given below are two statements:
    Statement I: Learning Management System (LMS) is used to provide a virtual environment for teachers and students.
    Statement II: LMS can be used for blended learning as well as for online learning.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

    Explanation

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  10. Question 10

    Which of the following types of assessment is done for giving grades/marks/credits to students?

    1. AFormative
    2. BIntegrative
    3. CDiagnostic
    4. DSummative

    Answer: (D) Summative

    Explanation

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  11. Question 11

    Auto-ethnography is an approach that analyses:

    1. APersonal experiences
    2. BCommunity issues
    3. CLocal tribes
    4. DCultural distance

    Answer: (A) Personal experiences

    Explanation

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  12. Question 12

    In research, middle range theories operate in a:

    1. AWider domain
    2. BLimited domain
    3. CFlexible domain
    4. DRepresentative domain

    Answer: (B) Limited domain

    Explanation

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  13. Question 13

    Poor analysis in historical research is due to:
    A. Impersonal interpretation
    B. Emphasis on objective assessment
    C. Over-generalisation
    D. Over-simplification
    E. Non-identification of social context

    1. AA, B, C
    2. BB, C, D
    3. CC, D, E
    4. DA, B, E

    Answer: (C) C, D, E

    Explanation

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  14. Question 14

    Given below are two statements:
    Statement I: Focus group discussion is part of formative research.
    Statement II: Formative research can be both qualitative and quantitative.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

    Explanation

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  15. Question 15

    Match List I with List II.

    List-I (Tests of Reliability)List-II (Description)
    A. Test and re-testI. Delivering a questionnaire in two parts separately to a sample group
    B. Inter-raterII. Providing different but equivalent versions of a questionnaire
    C. Parallel formsIII. The same test is conducted by different people
    D. Split-halfIV. The same test is repeated over a period of time

    Match tests of reliability with their description

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    4. DA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    Answer: (D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    Explanation

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  16. Question 16

    In communication, metaphors are considered ______ in nature.

    1. APrecise
    2. BImprecise
    3. CNon-symbolic
    4. DNon-reflective

    Answer: (B) Imprecise

    Explanation

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  17. Question 17

    Homogeneity of opinion among groups of people is mostly caused by:

    1. AMass communication
    2. BIntra-personal communication
    3. CInter-personal communication
    4. DAbstraction in communication

    Answer: (C) Inter-personal communication

    Explanation

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  18. Question 18

    Which of the following are traditional approaches to communication?
    A. Machine-to-machine
    B. Machine-to-man
    C. Rhetorical
    D. Semiotic
    E. Phenomenological

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BA, D and E only
    3. CB, C and D only
    4. DC, D and E only

    Answer: (D) C, D and E only

    Explanation

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  19. Question 19

    Given below are two statements:
    Statement I: Personal conversation is more effective than a broadcast speech.
    Statement II: The factor of personalization makes radio a more effective means of communication than a newspaper.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

    Explanation

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  20. Question 20

    Match List I with List II.

    List-IList-II
    A. PhaticI. Decoder becomes encoder
    B. FeedbackII. Communication about communication
    C. Meta-messageIII. Between equals
    D. Lateral communicationIV. To greet

    Match communication terms with their description

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (D) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Explanation

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  21. Question 21

    Three numbers are in the ratio 2:5:6 and their sum is 663. Find the three numbers.

    1. A107, 250, 306
    2. B102, 250, 311
    3. C102, 255, 306
    4. D112, 250, 301

    Answer: (C) 102, 255, 306

    Explanation

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  22. Question 22

    There are 15 students in a class. The average age of the students and the teacher is 15 years. The average age of the teacher and students together is 2 years more than the average age of the students. What is the age of the class teacher?

    1. A48 years
    2. B50 years
    3. C43 years
    4. D45 years

    Answer: (D) 45 years

    Explanation

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  23. Question 23

    A shopkeeper professes to sell his goods at cost price but uses 750 g instead of 1 kg. What is his gain percentage?

    1. A33%
    2. B35.3%
    3. C30.3%
    4. D33.33%

    Answer: (D) 33.33%

    Explanation

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  24. Question 24

    The simple interest on a sum of money is 4/9 of the principal. What will be the annual rate of interest and time in years, if both are numerically equal?

    1. A6% and 6 years
    2. B6.8% and 6.8 years
    3. C6 1/2% and 6 1/2 years
    4. D6 2/3% and 6 2/3 years

    Answer: (D) 6 2/3% and 6 2/3 years

    Explanation

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  25. Question 25

    Find the wrong term in the following series: 5, 10, 17, 24, 37, 50, 65

    1. A37
    2. B17
    3. C24
    4. D50

    Answer: (C) 24

    Explanation

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  26. Question 26

    Which of the following propositions is the obverse of and logically equivalent to "Some men are honest"?

    1. ASome men are dishonest
    2. BSome men are not dishonest
    3. CNo men are dishonest
    4. DSome dishonest people are not men

    Answer: (B) Some men are not dishonest

    Explanation

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  27. Question 27

    Given below are two statements:
    Statement I: To obvert a proposition, we change its quality and replace the predicate term with its complement.
    Statement II: Obversion is valid for any standard-form categorical proposition.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

    Explanation

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  28. Question 28

    Which logical informal fallacy is committed in the following argument? "No one has proved that global warming is actually occurring, so there is no reason to believe that it is actually occurring."

    1. ABegging the question
    2. BEquivocation
    3. CAppeal to ignorance
    4. DHasty generalization

    Answer: (C) Appeal to ignorance

    Explanation

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  29. Question 29

    The argument, "Sound is eternal because it is produced", is fallacious because:

    1. AThe middle term is contradicted by another pramana (means of knowledge)
    2. BThe middle term is too narrow
    3. CThe middle term itself disproves the original proposition and proves its contradictory
    4. DThe minor term is the locus of the middle term

    Answer: (C) The middle term itself disproves the original proposition and proves its contradictory

    Explanation

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  30. Question 30

    Which of the following Pramanas (means of knowledge) is differentiated into Svartha (for oneself) and Parartha (for others) types?

    1. APratyaksa (perception)
    2. BAnumana (inference)
    3. CUpamana (comparison)
    4. DSabda (verbal testimony)

    Answer: (B) Anumana (inference)

    Explanation

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  31. Question 31

    The collection of linked information residing on computers which is accessible through Internet is called:

    1. AHTTP
    2. BHTML
    3. CWWW
    4. DURL

    Answer: (C) WWW

    Explanation

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  32. Question 32

    ______ are text files with small pieces of data and are used to identify specific users and improve the web browsing experience.

    1. ACookies
    2. BBookmarks
    3. CBlogs
    4. DWikis

    Answer: (A) Cookies

    Explanation

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  33. Question 33

    Which of the following statements are correct regarding Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology?
    A. RFID refers to a wireless system comprising two components: tags and readers.
    B. The reader is a device that has one or more antennas that emit radio waves and receive signals back from the RFID tag.
    C. Passive RFID tags are powered by the reader and do not have a battery.

    1. AA, B and C
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA and C only
    4. DA and B only

    Answer: (A) A, B and C

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  34. Question 34

    Which of the following hardware components will lose data when the power to a computer is switched off?
    A. Processor Registers
    B. Cache Memory
    C. SSD
    D. RAM
    E. ROM

    1. AB and D only
    2. BA, C and D only
    3. CA, B and C only
    4. DA, B and D only

    Answer: (D) A, B and D only

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  35. Question 35

    An example of a cyber-exacerbated crime is:

    1. ACyber vandalism
    2. BCyber piracy
    3. CCyber stalking
    4. DCyber trespass

    Answer: (C) Cyber stalking

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  36. Question 36

    Hardness of water is caused by the presence of:

    1. ASolid particles in the water
    2. BPathogens in the water
    3. CToxic metals in the water
    4. DCations in the water

    Answer: (D) Cations in the water

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  37. Question 37

    Reducing the intensity of noise by a factor of 10 will mean a reduction in noise level by:

    1. A10 dB
    2. B20 dB
    3. C3 dB
    4. D6 dB

    Answer: (A) 10 dB

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  38. Question 38

    Given below are two statements:
    Statement I: Photovoltaic cells are often made up of crystalline silicon.
    Statement II: Photovoltaic cells are also made up of inexpensive amorphous silicon, which is like ordinary glass and has no crystal properties.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

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  39. Question 39

    Assertion (A): Biomass is considered carbon neutral.
    Reason (R): The amount of carbon it emits is equal to the amount of carbon it consumed during its lifetime.

    1. ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is true but R is false
    4. DA is false but R is true

    Answer: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

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  40. Question 40

    Which of the following pollutants causes aggravation of respiratory disease and atmospheric discolouration?

    1. ACarbon monoxide
    2. BLead
    3. CNitrogen dioxide
    4. DOzone

    Answer: (C) Nitrogen dioxide

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  41. Question 41

    The Government of India in November 1948 appointed a University Education Commission under the Chairmanship of:

    1. AD. S. Kothari
    2. BSucheta Kriplani
    3. CDr. S. Radhakrishnan
    4. DAnnie Besant

    Answer: (C) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

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  42. Question 42

    Hansa Mehta Committee was appointed by the National Council for Women's Education in 1962 with the purpose to:

    1. ACarry out inspection of schools in rural areas
    2. BExamine the differentiation of curriculum for boys and girls at all stages of education
    3. CEstablish science laboratories in universities
    4. DFormulate policy for use of educational satellites for rural areas

    Answer: (B) Examine the differentiation of curriculum for boys and girls at all stages of education

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  43. Question 43

    Who among the following established the Central Hindu Girls' School at Banaras with the object of imparting western education to girls?

    1. AAnnie Besant
    2. BSarojini Naidu
    3. CRaja Ram Mohan Roy
    4. DIshwar Chandra Vidyasagar

    Answer: (A) Annie Besant

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  44. Question 44

    Given below are two statements:
    Statement I: Swayam Prabha consists of a group of 34 DTH channels using GSAT-15 satellites on a 24x7 basis.
    Statement II: The concept note for National Education Policy prepared by MHRD in 2014 identified as many as 53 themes.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

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  45. Question 45

    Match List I with List II.

    List-I (Educational Initiatives)List-II (Description)
    A. Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)I. Promote innovation of a higher order that directly impacts the needs of industries
    B. Global Initiative on Academic Network (GIAN)II. Invite international faculty to give short-term programmes to Indian students
    C. Uchchatar Avishkar Yojana (UAY)III. Promote research in frontier areas of knowledge
    D. Scheme for Trans-disciplinary Research for India's Developing Economy (STRIDE)IV. Improvement of access, equity and quality in higher education

    Match Indian higher-education initiatives with their objective

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
    3. CA-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
    4. DA-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

    Answer: (C) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

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  46. Question 46

    Participation in global commodity chains has given the middle class its own:

    The 'new middle class' in India is upwardly mobile, educated mostly in English and works in professional, technical and/or managerial careers. It is connected to global networks of consumption, consuming global brands and aspiring toward lifestyles of conspicuous consumption. The identity of this class is defined by its participation in global commodity chains. The market defines the identity of the middle class, as a site of identity formation, expression and aspiration. Also salient within the new middle class are several strata. The highest stratum is occupied by the white collar corporate mid-to-high level managers who actively participate in transnational capitalism. What connects these various groups in the elite class is a common vision of the nation-state narrated in the miracle of the market. The articulation of the market as the centre of India's economic growth and development is the overarching anchor for the various discourses of policy-making and implementation. The middle class in India make up a segment of India's elite. They participate in the consumption culture of India. This culture is enabled by rapid reforms and punctuated in the rise of urban hubs of belonging. Belonging in this is recrafted in the story of consumption and lifestyles. Here consumption is equated to development and modernisation.

    1. AIdentity
    2. BMarket
    3. CEconomic status
    4. DUpward mobility

    Answer: (A) Identity

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  47. Question 47

    The new middle class in India is hugely active in:

    The 'new middle class' in India is upwardly mobile, educated mostly in English and works in professional, technical and/or managerial careers. It is connected to global networks of consumption, consuming global brands and aspiring toward lifestyles of conspicuous consumption. The identity of this class is defined by its participation in global commodity chains. The market defines the identity of the middle class, as a site of identity formation, expression and aspiration. Also salient within the new middle class are several strata. The highest stratum is occupied by the white collar corporate mid-to-high level managers who actively participate in transnational capitalism. What connects these various groups in the elite class is a common vision of the nation-state narrated in the miracle of the market. The articulation of the market as the centre of India's economic growth and development is the overarching anchor for the various discourses of policy-making and implementation. The middle class in India make up a segment of India's elite. They participate in the consumption culture of India. This culture is enabled by rapid reforms and punctuated in the rise of urban hubs of belonging. Belonging in this is recrafted in the story of consumption and lifestyles. Here consumption is equated to development and modernisation.

    1. AAdopting innovative lifestyles
    2. BAcquiring new technical competence
    3. CRedefining business strategies
    4. DConspicuous consumption

    Answer: (D) Conspicuous consumption

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  48. Question 48

    The main theme of the passage is:

    The 'new middle class' in India is upwardly mobile, educated mostly in English and works in professional, technical and/or managerial careers. It is connected to global networks of consumption, consuming global brands and aspiring toward lifestyles of conspicuous consumption. The identity of this class is defined by its participation in global commodity chains. The market defines the identity of the middle class, as a site of identity formation, expression and aspiration. Also salient within the new middle class are several strata. The highest stratum is occupied by the white collar corporate mid-to-high level managers who actively participate in transnational capitalism. What connects these various groups in the elite class is a common vision of the nation-state narrated in the miracle of the market. The articulation of the market as the centre of India's economic growth and development is the overarching anchor for the various discourses of policy-making and implementation. The middle class in India make up a segment of India's elite. They participate in the consumption culture of India. This culture is enabled by rapid reforms and punctuated in the rise of urban hubs of belonging. Belonging in this is recrafted in the story of consumption and lifestyles. Here consumption is equated to development and modernisation.

    1. AMarket-driven middle-class identity
    2. BNeed for high-level consumption
    3. CNegative effect of modernized consumption
    4. DEmergence of knowledge enterprises

    Answer: (A) Market-driven middle-class identity

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  49. Question 49

    The "new middle class" is associated with:

    The 'new middle class' in India is upwardly mobile, educated mostly in English and works in professional, technical and/or managerial careers. It is connected to global networks of consumption, consuming global brands and aspiring toward lifestyles of conspicuous consumption. The identity of this class is defined by its participation in global commodity chains. The market defines the identity of the middle class, as a site of identity formation, expression and aspiration. Also salient within the new middle class are several strata. The highest stratum is occupied by the white collar corporate mid-to-high level managers who actively participate in transnational capitalism. What connects these various groups in the elite class is a common vision of the nation-state narrated in the miracle of the market. The articulation of the market as the centre of India's economic growth and development is the overarching anchor for the various discourses of policy-making and implementation. The middle class in India make up a segment of India's elite. They participate in the consumption culture of India. This culture is enabled by rapid reforms and punctuated in the rise of urban hubs of belonging. Belonging in this is recrafted in the story of consumption and lifestyles. Here consumption is equated to development and modernisation.

    1. AThe production of global brands
    2. BMarket expansion
    3. CGlobal capitalism
    4. DWhite-collar supremacy

    Answer: (C) Global capitalism

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  50. Question 50

    The elite class has a vision of the nation-state anchored by:

    The 'new middle class' in India is upwardly mobile, educated mostly in English and works in professional, technical and/or managerial careers. It is connected to global networks of consumption, consuming global brands and aspiring toward lifestyles of conspicuous consumption. The identity of this class is defined by its participation in global commodity chains. The market defines the identity of the middle class, as a site of identity formation, expression and aspiration. Also salient within the new middle class are several strata. The highest stratum is occupied by the white collar corporate mid-to-high level managers who actively participate in transnational capitalism. What connects these various groups in the elite class is a common vision of the nation-state narrated in the miracle of the market. The articulation of the market as the centre of India's economic growth and development is the overarching anchor for the various discourses of policy-making and implementation. The middle class in India make up a segment of India's elite. They participate in the consumption culture of India. This culture is enabled by rapid reforms and punctuated in the rise of urban hubs of belonging. Belonging in this is recrafted in the story of consumption and lifestyles. Here consumption is equated to development and modernisation.

    1. APolicy discourses
    2. BMarket miracle
    3. CLimitless consumption
    4. DCorporate narratives

    Answer: (B) Market miracle

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Spotted a shift or questions missing from this paper?

Paper 2 — English Literature · Shift 2

Attempt this paper

93 questions with the answer key and explanations.

  1. Question 1

    When did T.B. Macaulay present his “Minutes on Education” advocating English education in India?

    1. A12th March, 1835
    2. B2nd February, 1835
    3. C22nd January, 1835
    4. D5th May, 1835

    Answer: (B) 2nd February, 1835

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  2. Question 2

    It ought to be the first endeavour of a writer to distinguish nature from custom, or that which is established because it is right from that which is right only because it is established; that he may neither violate essential principles by a desire of novelty, nor debar himself from the attainment of beauties within his view by a needless fear of breaking rules which no literary dictator had authority to enact”,

    1. AJohn Dryden
    2. BAlexander Pope
    3. CSamuel Johnson
    4. DJoseph Addison

    Answer: (C) Samuel Johnson

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  3. Question 3

    Gabriel Garcia Marquez’s postscript to The General in His Labyrinth (1991) about Simon Bolivar’s last and terrible journey to the Carribean coast of Nueva Granada in 1830 is one of the finest examples of________.

    1. Areading archive and using its contents.
    2. Bprocessing archival information for theoretical judgement.
    3. Cirrelevance of archive for an artist.
    4. Da novelist getting misguided by the archive,

    Answer: (A) reading archive and using its contents.

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  4. Question 4

    Which of the following is NOT a method of data analysis?

    1. AQualitative method
    2. BQuantitative method
    3. CMixed method
    4. DSubjective method

    Answer: (D) Subjective method

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  5. Question 5

    Which of the following is NOT a kind of ‘sign’ as suggested by Charles Sanders Pierce?

    1. Alcon
    2. BIndex
    3. CSymbol
    4. DVisual

    Answer: (D) Visual

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  6. Question 6

    Who among the following was a major advocate of oral history?

    1. ASylvia Plath
    2. BEsther Greenwood
    3. CPaul Thompson
    4. DCarolyn Steedman

    Answer: (C) Paul Thompson

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  7. Question 7

    Who among the following considers a text as a ” site of struggle between authority and popular culture”?

    1. ARoland Barthes
    2. BNorthrop Frye
    3. CMikhail Bakhtin
    4. DMichel Foucault

    Answer: (C) Mikhail Bakhtin

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  8. Question 8

    Hudibras of Samuel Butler reflects on the revolt against:

    1. APuritanism
    2. BHellenism
    3. CHumanism
    4. DAnglicanism

    Answer: (A) Puritanism

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  9. Question 9

    Emblems by Francis Quarles is :

    1. AA commentary on Homer’s llliad
    2. BA commentary on a volume of Biblical illustrations
    3. CA commentary on Virgil’s Aeneid
    4. DA commentary on Thomas Moore’s Utopia

    Answer: (B) A commentary on a volume of Biblical illustrations

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  10. Question 10

    Who among the following is the author of The Steele Glas?

    1. AThe Earl of Surrey
    2. BThomas Sackville
    3. CGeorge Gascoigne
    4. DEdmund Spenser

    Answer: (C) George Gascoigne

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  11. Question 11

    Sir David Lyndsay’s Satire of the Three Estatis is both

    1. APolitical and religious
    2. BPolitical and secular
    3. CImmoral and secular
    4. DImmoral and religious

    Answer: (A) Political and religious

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  12. Question 12

    Who among the following has used lines from the Shakespearean play Othello to critique racism in one of his poems?

    1. AEdward Braithwaite
    2. BFranz Fanon
    3. CDerek Alton Walcott
    4. DNgugi wa Thiong’o

    Answer: (C) Derek Alton Walcott

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  13. Question 13

    Derek Alton Walcott in the poem ” The Sea is History ” makes a parallel between

    1. AEvolution of mankind and nature
    2. BEvolution of human history and religion
    3. CEvolution of Paganism and Christianity
    4. DEvolution of Christianity and slavery of the Blacks

    Answer: (D) Evolution of Christianity and slavery of the Blacks

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  14. Question 14

    The Voyage and Travail of Sir John Mandeville was written in

    1. AQueens English
    2. BNorthumbrian dialect
    3. CMidland dialect
    4. DCockney

    Answer: (C) Midland dialect

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  15. Question 15

    “The Elegy written in a Country Churchyard” is written in :

    1. AQuatrains of ten syllable lines
    2. BOctave and Sestet
    3. CHeroic couplet
    4. DAlexandrines

    Answer: (A) Quatrains of ten syllable lines

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  16. Question 16

    Marge Piercy’s novel Woman on the Edge of Time (1976) is based on –

    1. AShulamith Firestone’s The Dialectic of Sex
    2. BMargaret Atwood’s The Handmaid’s Tale
    3. CLewis Caroll’s Alice in Wonderland
    4. DDonna Haraway’s A Cyborg Manifesto

    Answer: (A) Shulamith Firestone’s The Dialectic of Sex

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  17. Question 17

    Which among the following is a short story by the Booker Prize winner Geetanjali Shree:

    1. AKhali Jagah
    2. BHamara Shahar Us Baras
    3. CBel Patra
    4. DMai

    Answer: (C) Bel Patra

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  18. Question 18

    Women of Palestine (1982) and Indian Women in Struggle (1980) deal with :

    1. Awomen’s religious and familial issues
    2. Bfemale militancy and political involvement
    3. Cwomen’s struggle at their work place
    4. Dwomen’s reproductive rights

    Answer: (B) female militancy and political involvement

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  19. Question 19

    The following statement is written by which of the authors given below:-

    “Could fulfillment ever be felt as deeply as loss?”

    1. AArundhati Roy
    2. BKiran Desai
    3. CShashi Tharoor
    4. DRohinton Mistry

    Answer: (B) Kiran Desai

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  20. Question 20

    Who first translated the Bhagavad Gita into English?

    1. AH T Colebrook
    2. BAlexander Duff
    3. CCharles Wilkins
    4. DSir William Jones

    Answer: (C) Charles Wilkins

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  21. Question 21

    Who among the following is exclusively associated with diary writing in English?

    1. ASamuel Pepys
    2. BSamuel Johnson
    3. CBen Jonson
    4. DSamuel Richardson

    Answer: (A) Samuel Pepys

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  22. Question 22

    Abt Vogler is authored by

    1. AMatthew Arnold
    2. BRobert Browning
    3. CA. L. Tennyson
    4. DNone of the above

    Answer: (B) Robert Browning

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  23. Question 23

    The predominant emotion running through the poem “Cristina” by Robert Browning is that of

    1. ASadness
    2. BAggression
    3. CLove
    4. DNone of the above

    Answer: (C) Love

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  24. Question 24

    Which one is correctly matched?

    1. AHeathcliff — Mansfield Park
    2. BMaggie Tulliver — The Mill on the Floss
    3. CJosiah Bounderby — Wuthering Height
    4. DFanny Price — Hard Times

    Answer: (B) Maggie Tulliver — The Mill on the Floss

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  25. Question 25

    Which of the following works has Santiago as its protagonist?

    1. AMansfield Park
    2. BThe Mayor of Casterbridge
    3. CThe Old Man and the Sea
    4. DThe Lord of the Rings

    Answer: (C) The Old Man and the Sea

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  26. Question 26

    Which of the following texts coins the stogan “Vande Matram”?

    1. AAnandmath
    2. BMrinalini
    3. CDurgeshnandini
    4. DKapalkundala

    Answer: (A) Anandmath

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  27. Question 27

    Who among the following is associated with the term ‘Intentional Fallacy’ in literary criticism?

    1. AW.K. Wimsatt
    2. BRolland Barthes
    3. CJ. Hillis Miller
    4. DJohn Keats

    Answer: (A) W.K. Wimsatt

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  28. Question 28

    Which of the following works is’set in the backdrop of the religious persecution in Mexico?

    1. AThe Power and the Glory
    2. BFor Whom the Bell Tolls
    3. CIn Our Time
    4. DAll of the above

    Answer: (A) The Power and the Glory

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  29. Question 29

    Who among the following coined the term ‘The Movement’?

    1. AF.W. Bateson
    2. BF.R. Leavis
    3. CJ.D. Scott
    4. DI.A. Richards

    Answer: (C) J.D. Scott

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  30. Question 30

    Match List I with List II

    List IList II
    (A) Yasmine Gunaratne(I) Post card from Kashmir
    (B) Imtiyaz Dharkar(II) Advice to Women
    (C) Agha Shahid Ali(III) Post card from God
    (D) Eunice de Souza(IV) This Language, this woman

    Shared list material for question 31.

    1. AA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
    2. BA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    3. CA-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    4. DA-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

    Answer: (B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

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  31. Question 31

    Dev Virahsawmy’s Toufann is an adaptation of Shakespeare’s play______.

    1. AHamlet
    2. BMacbeth
    3. CThe Twelfth Night
    4. DThe Tempest

    Answer: (D) The Tempest

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  32. Question 32

    Uttararamacharita by______ is based on Valmiki’s Ramayana.

    1. ABhasa
    2. BBhavabhuti
    3. CBharavi
    4. DKalidasa

    Answer: (B) Bhavabhuti

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  33. Question 33

    In Kannada literature, “Vachana Movement’ addressed

    1. Aprogressive values
    2. Bvedic themes
    3. Cvedantic thoughts
    4. Dupanishadic ideas

    Answer: (A) progressive values

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  34. Question 34

    “Inane gaudiness” is a phrase used in connection with Neo-classicism by_____.

    1. AWilliam Wordsworth
    2. BS.T. Coleridge
    3. CMatthew Arnold
    4. DT.S. Eliot

    Answer: (A) William Wordsworth

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  35. Question 35

    Who defined “Hamartia’ as ‘tragic flaw’?

    1. AAristotle
    2. BDr. Samuel Johnson
    3. CMatthew Arnold
    4. DA. C. Bradley

    Answer: (A) Aristotle

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  36. Question 36

    The following statement is given by which of the below mentioned critics?

    “I was indignant; I demanded an explanation. Nothing happened. I burst apart.”

    1. AGayatri Chakravorty Spivak
    2. BHomi K Bhabha
    3. CStuart Hall
    4. DFrantz Fanon

    Answer: (D) Frantz Fanon

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  37. Question 37

    Gaiutra Bahadur is a_______writer.

    1. AMauritian
    2. BFijian
    3. CTrinidadian
    4. DGuyanese

    Answer: (D) Guyanese

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  38. Question 38

    Hermann Hesse’s Siddhartha was originally written in______.

    1. AFrench
    2. BRussian
    3. CEnglish
    4. DGerman

    Answer: (D) German

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  39. Question 39

    Brij V. Lal’s Rama’s Banishment deals with the history of Fiji of a time period of_____.

    1. A50 years
    2. B100 years
    3. C150 years
    4. D200 years

    Answer: (C) 150 years

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  40. Question 40

    Choose the novels that use ‘magic realism’ as a tool of narration:

    A. The Shadow Lines
    B. One Hundred Years of Solitude
    C. Midnight’s Children
    D. Beloved
    E. Kanthapura

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB,C and D only
    3. CC,D and E only
    4. DB,C,D and E only

    Answer: (B) B,C and D only

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  41. Question 41

    Which of the following are NOT by Rabindranath Tagore?

    A. Visarjan
    B. Chandalika
    C. Muktadhara
    D. Parineeta
    E. Punarnava

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CD and E only
    4. DA and C only

    Answer: (C) D and E only

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  42. Question 42

    Identify the film/films that were based on Booker winning novels:

    A. Life of Pi
    B. The Remains of the Day
    C. Milkman
    D. The Sellout
    E. The Inheritance of Loss

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AB and E only
    2. BA and B only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (B) A and B only

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  43. Question 43

    Identify the correct ones among the following:

    A. The dramatic monologue ensures the reciprocal dialogue of the narrator.
    B. The nineteenth century poets fully exploited the poetic form of dramatic monologue.
    C. The Poetry of Experience by Robert Langbaum outlines a discussion on dramatic monologue.
    D. The linguistic pragmatics make the narcissistic speaker of dramatic monologue speak exclusively.
    E. The speaker and the listener in the dramatic monologues of Robert Browning share the same pedestal of communication.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DB, D and E only

    Answer: (B) B, C and D only

    Explanation

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  44. Question 44

    Identify the Postcolonial critics who used the ideas of Lacan, Foucault and Derrida while critiquing “Euro-centrism”:

    A. Homi Bhabha
    B. Gayatri Chakravarty Spivak
    C. Abdul Jan Mohammad
    D. Edward Said
    E. Aimé Césaire

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C and D only
    2. BA B and C only
    3. CB,C,D and E only
    4. DC,D and E only

    Answer: (A) A, B, C and D only

    Explanation

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  45. Question 45

    Which among the following are correct?

    A. George Lamming – Barbados
    B. Ben Okri – Nigeria
    C. Fred D'Aguiar – Australia
    D. Wilson Harris – Guyana
    E. Zulfikar Ghose – India

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C and D only
    2. BB,C and D only
    3. CC,D and E only
    4. DA, B and D only

    Answer: (D) A, B and D only

    Explanation

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  46. Question 46

    Identify the correct pairs:

    A. Kalidasa – Amoghvarsha
    B. Bhavabhuti – Uttararamacharita
    C. Bhasa – Urubhanga
    D. Rajashekhara – Rajatarangini
    E. Somadeva – Kathasaritsagara

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C and D only
    2. BC,D and E only
    3. CB, C and E only
    4. DB, D and E only

    Answer: (C) B, C and E only

    Explanation

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  47. Question 47

    Which of the following statements hold true with respect to Alexander Pope’s “Essay on Criticism”?

    A. It is “an inquiry into the nature and value of poetry”.
    B. It presents “a series of generalizations about good taste”.
    C. It explores the challenges of impartial and just criticism.
    D. It underlines the traits of “the good critic”.
    E. It critically reflects on Plato’s rejection of poetry.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA, B, C and E only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (D) B, C and D only

    Explanation

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  48. Question 48

    Which of the following are applicable to the term ‘Carnival’?

    A. It became important through the work of the Russian theorist Mikhail Bakhtin.
    B. It means the way in which popular humour subverts official authority in classical, medieval and renaissance texts and culture.
    C. It overturns the established hierarchy and sets up a popular and democratic counter-culture.
    D. It brings out the serious elements in literature.
    E. It is used as a critical tool for interpretation of poetry.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BA and B only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DA and C only

    Answer: (A) A, B and C only

    Explanation

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  49. Question 49

    Which of the following are the premises of Postcolonial Criticism?

    A. It rejects the claims of universalism made in the canonical Western literature.
    B. It foregrounds the questions of cultural difference and diversity as represented in literary texts.
    C. It acts on the principles of peaceful co-existence.
    D. It celebrates “hybridity” and “Cultural polyvalency”.
    E. It resists any attempt at homogenization based on race, class and nationality.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and D only
    2. BA B, D and E only
    3. CB, C and D only
    4. DC and D only

    Answer: (B) A B, D and E only

    Explanation

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  50. Question 50

    Which of the following statements are true in the context of Henry Fielding’s Tom Jones (1749)?

    A. Tom Jones is comic and moralistic.
    B. Tom and Jones are the main characters of Tom Jones.
    C. Tom is caught poaching in neighbor’s game preserve.
    D. The History of Tom Jones is the full title of Tom Jones.
    E. All of the above

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AE only
    2. BA, C and D only
    3. CA, B, C and D only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (B) A, C and D only

    Explanation

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  51. Question 51

    Who has used the term “bowling alone” to describe the erosion of community ties in the United States?

    1. AFrank Furedi
    2. BZygmunt Bauman
    3. CRobert Bellah
    4. DRobert Putnam

    Answer: (D) Robert Putnam

    Explanation

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  52. Question 52

    Which of these books are written by Nirad C. Chaudhuri?

    A. The Continent of Circe
    B. Principal Upanishads
    C. A Passage to England
    D. Our New Rulers
    E. The Autobiography of an Unknown Indian

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AB, C and D only
    2. BC,D and E only
    3. CA, C and E only
    4. DA, B and D only

    Answer: (C) A, C and E only

    Explanation

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  53. Question 53

    Which of the following are true in the context of “Phenomenology”?

    A. It is “a form of methodological idealism” which seeks to explore ‘human consciousness’.
    B. As a philosophical method, it was developed by Edmund Husserl.
    C. Martin Heidegger is one of its leading philosophers.
    D. Martin Heidegger’s approach is “essentialist”.
    E. Text is considered purely as an embodiment of the author’s consciousness.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C and D only
    2. BB,C and D only
    3. CA, B, C and E only
    4. DC,D and E only

    Answer: (C) A, B, C and E only

    Explanation

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  54. Question 54

    The aboriginal Australian poet, Oodgeroe Noonuccal, in her poem “We are going” examines the impact of colonial conquest on aboriginal Australians with reference to:

    A. Loss of ‘bora ground’
    B. Loss of Aboriginal identity
    C. Loss of new education
    D. Loss of primitive culture
    E. None of the above

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and D only
    2. BC, D and E only
    3. CA, B and C only
    4. DA, C and D only

    Answer: (A) A, B and D only

    Explanation

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  55. Question 55

    What are the points of convergence between Derrida and Barthes?

    A. Both believe in the endless play in language and literary texts.
    B. Both conclude that the meaning of a text is not final.
    C. Both construe that language has retrospective power.
    D. They believe that no meaning is reliable.
    E. They believe that “the relationship between words, meanings and texts are intrinsic to meaning rather than the word itself”.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, D and E only
    2. BA, B, C and D only
    3. CB,C and D only
    4. DC,D and E only

    Answer: (A) A, B, D and E only

    Explanation

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  56. Question 56

    Which of the following is applicable to “New Criticism”?

    A. It draws considerably from the works of I. A. Richards and the critical essays of T. S. Eliot.
    B. Some of its concepts are pre-empted by F. R. Leavis.
    C. It distinguishes between literary and scientific usage of language.
    D. It encourages an extensive exploration of the contextual and autobiographical background of a literary production.
    E. It vouches for a historical analysis of a text.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, E and D only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (A) A, B and C only

    Explanation

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  57. Question 57

    Which of the following are representative texts of “Gynocriticism”?

    A. Patricia Meyer Spacks’ The Female Imagination
    B. Mary Ellmann’s Thinking About Women
    C. Sandra Gilbert and Susan Gubar’s The Madwoman in the Attic
    D. Ellen Moers’ Literary Women
    E. Kate Millett’s Sexual Politics

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA, B and C only
    3. CB, D and E only
    4. DA, C and D only

    Answer: (D) A, C and D only

    Explanation

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  58. Question 58

    Which of the following statements are true about Ethnographic Research Method?

    A. It enables the exploration of the consumption of literature within defined social and historical settings.
    B. Janice A. Radway’s Reading the Romance (1984) is one of the first examples of the use of ethnographic research methodology.
    C. It is perceived as an act of uncovering an objective reality.
    D. Reading National Geographic (1993) by Catherine A. Lutz and Jane L. Collins makes effective use of ethnographic research method to find out the role of the magazine National Geographic in moulding Americans' awareness of the world beyond the United States.
    E. It focuses more on objective data than subjective interpretation of the materials.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and E only
    2. BA and C only
    3. CA, B and C only
    4. DA, B, C and D only

    Answer: (D) A, B, C and D only

    Explanation

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  59. Question 59

    The concept of “eugenics” finds its illustration predominantly in the writings of:

    A. John Osborne
    B. George Bernard Shaw
    C. Eugene O’Neill
    D. Harold Pinter
    E. Arthur Miller

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA and C only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DD and E only

    Answer: (C) B and C only

    Explanation

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  60. Question 60

    Which of the following are correct:

    A. Roddy Doyle – The Barrytown Trilogy
    B. Abraham Stoker – Confessions of an Irish Rebel
    C. C. S. Lewis – The Chronicles of Narnia
    D. Brendan Behan – Dracula
    E. Eoin Colfer – Artemis Fowl

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C and E only
    2. BA, B and D only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DC, D and E only

    Answer: (A) A, C and E only

    Explanation

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  61. Question 61

    Which among the following are true about the figures of speech?

    A. Figures based on sound – Paronomasia
    B. Figures based on construction – Zeugma
    C. Figures based on Imagination – Irony
    D. Figures based on Association – Chiasmus
    E. Figures based on indirectness – Euphemism

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and E only
    2. BA, B and C only
    3. CB,C and D only
    4. DC,D and E only

    Answer: (A) A, B and E only

    Explanation

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  62. Question 62

    Which of the following authors have been correctly matched with their works?

    A. Malcolm Bradbury – The History Man
    B. William Golding – Rites of Passage
    C. Seamus Heaney – Darkness Visible
    D. Brian Friel – Dancing at Lughnasa
    E. Molly Keane – The Norman Conquests

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and E only
    2. BB, C and E only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DA, B and D only

    Answer: (D) A, B and D only

    Explanation

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  63. Question 63

    Match List I with List II

    List IList II
    (A) Cornelia Sorabji(I) Between the Twilights
    (B) Krupabai Satthianadhan|ll.(II) The Hindu Wife
    (C) Raj Lakshmi Debi(III) Nector in a Sieve
    (D) Kamala Markandaya(IV) Saguna, A Story of Native Christian Life

    Shared list material for question 64.

    1. AA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    2. BA-IV, B-lIl, C-I, D-Il
    3. CA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    4. DA-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (D) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

    Explanation

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  64. Question 64

    Match List I with List II

    List IList II
    (A) Doll Common(I) Twelfth Night
    (B) Malvolio(II) The Alchemist
    (C) Mortimer(III) The Duchess of Malfi
    (D) Bosola(IV) Edward II

    Shared list material for question 65.

    1. AA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-l, C-IV, D-IlI
    3. CA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    4. DA-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (B) A-II, B-l, C-IV, D-IlI

    Explanation

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  65. Question 65

    Match List I with List II

    List IList II
    (A) “The Lion’s Skin”(I) Washington Irving
    (B) “The Man who liked Dickens”(II) W. Somerset Maugham
    (C) “Rip Van Winkle”(III) Stephen Crane
    (D) “The Bride comes to Yellow Sky”(IV) Evelyn Waugh

    Shared list material for question 66.

    1. AA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    2. BA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-IlI
    3. CA-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    4. DA-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (C) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

    Explanation

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  66. Question 66

    Match List I with List II

    List IList II
    (A) Stephen Spender(I) Cargos
    (B) W.H. Auden(II) Consider
    (C) John Masefield(III) Adlestrop
    (D) Edward Thomas(IV) The Pylons

    Shared list material for question 67.

    1. AA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    2. BA-IV, B-lI, C-I, D-IlI
    3. CA-II, B-IV, C-|, D-III
    4. DA-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (B) A-IV, B-lI, C-I, D-IlI

    Explanation

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  67. Question 67

    Match List I with List II

    List IList II
    (A) “Bricolage “(I) Martin Heidegger
    (B) ”Dasein”(II) Sigmund Freud
    (C) ”Parapraxes”(III) Levi- Strauss
    (D) “Polyphony”(IV) Mikhail Bakhtin

    Shared list material for question 68.

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-IV, B-lI, C-I, D-IlI
    3. CA-II, B-IV, C-|, D-III
    4. DA-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

    Answer: (D) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

    Explanation

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  68. Question 68

    Match List I with List II

    List IList II
    (A) Perumal Murugan(I) Adivasi Will Not Dance
    (B) Hansda Sowvendra Shekhar(II) The Weave of My Life
    (C) Baby Kamble(III) One Part Woman
    (D) Urmila Pawar(IV) The Prisons We Broke

    Shared list material for question 69.

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-III, B-l, C-IV, D-II
    3. CA-II, B-IV, C-|, D-III
    4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-IIII

    Answer: (B) A-III, B-l, C-IV, D-II

    Explanation

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  69. Question 69

    Match List I with List II

    List IList II
    (A) Siddhant Dhanvant Shanghvi(I) Almost Single
    (B) Advaita Kala(II) Love Over Coffee
    (C) Amrit Shetty(III) The Zoya factor
    (D) Anuja Chauhan(IV) The Lost flamingoes of Bombay

    Shared list material for question 70.

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-III, B-l, C-IV, D-II
    3. CA-II, B-IV, C-|, D-III
    4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (D) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Explanation

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  70. Question 70

    Match List I with List Il

    List IList II
    (A) The Empire Writes Back(I) 1990
    (B) Nation and Narration(II) 1993
    (C) Culture and Imperialism(III) 1989
    (D) The Twice Born Fiction(IV) 1971

    Shared list material for question 71.

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-III, B-l, C-II, D-IV
    3. CA-II, B-IV, C-|, D-III
    4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (B) A-III, B-l, C-II, D-IV

    Explanation

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  71. Question 71

    Match List I with List II

    List IList II
    (A) “There is no art to find mind’s construction in the face”.(I) Hamlet
    (B) “Time out of joint”.(II) Richard IlI
    (C) “The better part of valor is discretion”.(III) Macbeth
    (D) “My Kingdom for a horse”.(IV) Twelfth Night

    Shared list material for question 72.

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-III, B-l, C-IV, D-II
    3. CA-II, B-IV, C-|, D-III
    4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (B) A-III, B-l, C-IV, D-II

    Explanation

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  72. Question 72

    Identify the correct statements from the following:

    A. Bharati Mukherjee’s novels display split in the diasporic subjects.
    B. Rohinton Mistry belongs to the community of Parsis that fled to India from Persia to escape Islamic persecution.
    C. Sujata Bhatt recalls home as a nostalgic memory and longs intensely for it.
    D. Farrukh Dhondy connects Delhi and New York to discuss the diasporic experiences.
    E. Sharat Chandra in his poem, “In the Third Country,” wishes to die in India.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and D only
    2. BA, B and C only
    3. CA, D and E only
    4. DB, C and E only

    Answer: (B) A, B and C only

    Explanation

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  73. Question 73

    Match List I with List II

    List IList II
    (A) Acharnians(I) Government by women
    (B) Clouds(II) Attack on parties involved in war
    (C) Lysistrata(III) Criticism of the new ‘spirit of philosophical inquiry’
    (D) Wasps(IV) An attack on demogogues

    Shared list material for question 74.

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-III, B-l, C-IV, D-II
    3. CA-IV, B-II, C-|, D-III
    4. DA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

    Answer: (D) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

    Explanation

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  74. Question 74

    Who among the following refers to “high seriousness” as a quality of a great poet and quotes John Milton to prove the same?

    A. T. S. Eliot
    B. Ezra Pound
    C. Matthew Arnold
    D. I. A. Richards
    E. G. M. Hopkins

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CD and E only
    4. DC only

    Answer: (D) C only

    Explanation

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  75. Question 75

    Find the chronological order of publication of the given works:

    A. Mythologies
    B. Of Grammatology
    C. Culture and Society
    D. Blindness and Insight
    E. The Location of Culture

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C, D, E
    2. BA, C, B, D, E
    3. CD, B, C, A, E
    4. DB, C, D, A, E

    Answer: (B) A, C, B, D, E

    Explanation

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  76. Question 76

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: In My Remembered Village (1976), M. N. Srinivas highlights the ethnographical details of a village, Rampura, near Mysore.
    Statement II: It also emphasises the importance of economic freedom of the masses required for their overall upliftment.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    Explanation

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  77. Question 77

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: The term “Negative Capability” was coined by John Keats.
    Statement II: While analysing the term “Dissociation of Sensibility”, T. S. Eliot proclaims that Hamlet is an artistic failure.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

    Explanation

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  78. Question 78

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: The theatre was at a greater popularity in Eighteenth century England.
    Statement II: Theatre had court patronage in and around London.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

    Explanation

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  79. Question 79

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: According to Michel Foucault, the French Revolution created grounds for the birth of ‘the Clinic’.
    Statement II: Foucault mentions that the doctors started caring for the body of the patients the way priests cared for the soul of the sinners.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

    Explanation

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  80. Question 80

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: The best poetry will be found to have a power of forming, sustaining and delighting us, as nothing else can.
    Statement II: No man has ever been a great poet without being, at the same time, a great critic.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

    Explanation

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  81. Question 81

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Roland Barthes believes that the author is “the epitome and culmination of capitalist ideology”.
    Statement II: Walter Benjamin, in his The Storyteller, observes that every real story has something useful in it.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

    Explanation

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  82. Question 82

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Jerome K. Jerome’s Three Men in a Boat (1889) is humorous and journalistic in form.
    Statement II: It is about three young men and their dog on a holiday.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

    Explanation

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  83. Question 83

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: The Indian English novelists witnessed a warm reception of their writings in Europe, and they proliferated well in India during the 1930s and 1940s.
    Statement II: The two world wars added an overall sense of gloom and civilisational crisis across the globe, especially in Europe.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

    Explanation

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  84. Question 84

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Dr. Johnson had an inclination toward the Tory political ideology.
    Statement II: Dr. Johnson strongly believed in transcendental skepticism.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

    Explanation

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  85. Question 85

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Derrida mentions that an aesthetic discourse always involves values and interests, independent from “a pure and neutral aesthetic realm”.
    Statement II: Derrida believed that the outside influence in the assessment of aesthetics always enters as and when philosophers and historians point out the element of “truth”.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

    Explanation

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  86. Question 86

    In the above passage, Walter Horatio Pater’s statement, “Imaginative prose should be special” implies:

    Such is the matter of imaginative or artistic literature - this transcript, not of mere fact, but of fact in its infinite variety, as modified by human preference in all its infinitely varied forms. It will be good literary art not because it is brilliant or sober, or rich, or impulsive, or severe, but just in proportion as its representation of that sense, that soul fact, is true, verse being only one department of such literature, and imaginative prose, it may be thought, being the special art of the modern world. That imaginative prose should be the special and opportune art of the modern world results from two important facts about the latter: first, the chaotic variety and complexity of its interests, making the intellectual issue, the really master currents of the present time incalculable - a condition of mind little susceptible of the restraint proper to verse form, so that the most characteristic verse of the nineteenth century has been lawless verse; and secondly, an all pervading naturalism, a curiosity about everything whatever as it really is, involving a certain humility of attitude, cognate to what must, after all, be the less ambitious form of literature. And prose thus asserting itself as the special and privileged artistic faculty of the present day, will be, however critics may try to narrow its scope, as varied in its excellence as humanity itself reflecting on the facts of its latest experience - an instrument of many stops, meditative, observant, descriptive, eloquent, analytic, plaintive, fervid.

    1. Aabstract language
    2. Benvironmental crisis
    3. Cintellectual complexities
    4. Dmetaphorical functions

    Answer: (C) intellectual complexities

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  87. Question 87

    Which of these expressions closely represent the meaning of ‘fervid’?

    Such is the matter of imaginative or artistic literature - this transcript, not of mere fact, but of fact in its infinite variety, as modified by human preference in all its infinitely varied forms. It will be good literary art not because it is brilliant or sober, or rich, or impulsive, or severe, but just in proportion as its representation of that sense, that soul fact, is true, verse being only one department of such literature, and imaginative prose, it may be thought, being the special art of the modern world. That imaginative prose should be the special and opportune art of the modern world results from two important facts about the latter: first, the chaotic variety and complexity of its interests, making the intellectual issue, the really master currents of the present time incalculable - a condition of mind little susceptible of the restraint proper to verse form, so that the most characteristic verse of the nineteenth century has been lawless verse; and secondly, an all pervading naturalism, a curiosity about everything whatever as it really is, involving a certain humility of attitude, cognate to what must, after all, be the less ambitious form of literature. And prose thus asserting itself as the special and privileged artistic faculty of the present day, will be, however critics may try to narrow its scope, as varied in its excellence as humanity itself reflecting on the facts of its latest experience - an instrument of many stops, meditative, observant, descriptive, eloquent, analytic, plaintive, fervid.

    1. Afeeling nostalgic
    2. Bportraying feelings that are too strong
    3. Criding strong feelings
    4. Dexpressing humility of attitude

    Answer: (B) portraying feelings that are too strong

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  88. Question 88

    Artistic literature is the representation of:

    Such is the matter of imaginative or artistic literature - this transcript, not of mere fact, but of fact in its infinite variety, as modified by human preference in all its infinitely varied forms. It will be good literary art not because it is brilliant or sober, or rich, or impulsive, or severe, but just in proportion as its representation of that sense, that soul fact, is true, verse being only one department of such literature, and imaginative prose, it may be thought, being the special art of the modern world. That imaginative prose should be the special and opportune art of the modern world results from two important facts about the latter: first, the chaotic variety and complexity of its interests, making the intellectual issue, the really master currents of the present time incalculable - a condition of mind little susceptible of the restraint proper to verse form, so that the most characteristic verse of the nineteenth century has been lawless verse; and secondly, an all pervading naturalism, a curiosity about everything whatever as it really is, involving a certain humility of attitude, cognate to what must, after all, be the less ambitious form of literature. And prose thus asserting itself as the special and privileged artistic faculty of the present day, will be, however critics may try to narrow its scope, as varied in its excellence as humanity itself reflecting on the facts of its latest experience - an instrument of many stops, meditative, observant, descriptive, eloquent, analytic, plaintive, fervid.

    1. Afacts enhanced by creative illusions
    2. Bfacts transformed by human predilection in an array of forms
    3. Cfacts arranged by political reflection
    4. Dcomplex and natural instincts of a poet

    Answer: (B) facts transformed by human predilection in an array of forms

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  89. Question 89

    Which of the following is closest to what the author means by “less ambitious form of literature”?

    Such is the matter of imaginative or artistic literature - this transcript, not of mere fact, but of fact in its infinite variety, as modified by human preference in all its infinitely varied forms. It will be good literary art not because it is brilliant or sober, or rich, or impulsive, or severe, but just in proportion as its representation of that sense, that soul fact, is true, verse being only one department of such literature, and imaginative prose, it may be thought, being the special art of the modern world. That imaginative prose should be the special and opportune art of the modern world results from two important facts about the latter: first, the chaotic variety and complexity of its interests, making the intellectual issue, the really master currents of the present time incalculable - a condition of mind little susceptible of the restraint proper to verse form, so that the most characteristic verse of the nineteenth century has been lawless verse; and secondly, an all pervading naturalism, a curiosity about everything whatever as it really is, involving a certain humility of attitude, cognate to what must, after all, be the less ambitious form of literature. And prose thus asserting itself as the special and privileged artistic faculty of the present day, will be, however critics may try to narrow its scope, as varied in its excellence as humanity itself reflecting on the facts of its latest experience - an instrument of many stops, meditative, observant, descriptive, eloquent, analytic, plaintive, fervid.

    1. Aliterature responsive to heightened state of human perception
    2. Bimaginative literature
    3. Cartistic literature
    4. Dpoetry without form and diction

    Answer: (A) literature responsive to heightened state of human perception

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  90. Question 90

    According to the author, prose should be:-

    Such is the matter of imaginative or artistic literature - this transcript, not of mere fact, but of fact in its infinite variety, as modified by human preference in all its infinitely varied forms. It will be good literary art not because it is brilliant or sober, or rich, or impulsive, or severe, but just in proportion as its representation of that sense, that soul fact, is true, verse being only one department of such literature, and imaginative prose, it may be thought, being the special art of the modern world. That imaginative prose should be the special and opportune art of the modern world results from two important facts about the latter: first, the chaotic variety and complexity of its interests, making the intellectual issue, the really master currents of the present time incalculable - a condition of mind little susceptible of the restraint proper to verse form, so that the most characteristic verse of the nineteenth century has been lawless verse; and secondly, an all pervading naturalism, a curiosity about everything whatever as it really is, involving a certain humility of attitude, cognate to what must, after all, be the less ambitious form of literature. And prose thus asserting itself as the special and privileged artistic faculty of the present day, will be, however critics may try to narrow its scope, as varied in its excellence as humanity itself reflecting on the facts of its latest experience - an instrument of many stops, meditative, observant, descriptive, eloquent, analytic, plaintive, fervid.

    1. ASocio-Political
    2. BSubjective
    3. Cas varied as human experience
    4. Das visual as other art forms

    Answer: (C) as varied as human experience

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  91. Question 91

    The poem deals with______.

    SMOKE

    Light-winged Smoke! Icarian bird,
    Melting thy pinions in thy upward flight;
    Lark without song, and the messenger of dawn,
    Circling above the hamlets as thy nest;
    Or else, departing dream, and shadowy form
    Of midnight vision, gathering up thy skirts;
    By night star-veiling, and by day
    Darkening the light and blotting out the sun;
    Go thou, my incense, upward from this hearth,
    And ask the gods to pardon this clear flame.

    Henry David Thoreau

    1. Afire in the forest
    2. Bfire in the city
    3. Cfire on the ship
    4. Dfire in the village

    Answer: (D) fire in the village

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  92. Question 92

    The word “Lark” in the third line means_____.

    SMOKE

    Light-winged Smoke! Icarian bird,
    Melting thy pinions in thy upward flight;
    Lark without song, and the messenger of dawn,
    Circling above the hamlets as thy nest;
    Or else, departing dream, and shadowy form
    Of midnight vision, gathering up thy skirts;
    By night star-veiling, and by day
    Darkening the light and blotting out the sun;
    Go thou, my incense, upward from this hearth,
    And ask the gods to pardon this clear flame.

    Henry David Thoreau

    1. Alaugh
    2. Bescape
    3. Cgiggle
    4. Dskylark

    Answer: (D) skylark

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  93. Question 93

    Why does the poet seek pardon from the Gods?

    SMOKE

    Light-winged Smoke! Icarian bird,
    Melting thy pinions in thy upward flight;
    Lark without song, and the messenger of dawn,
    Circling above the hamlets as thy nest;
    Or else, departing dream, and shadowy form
    Of midnight vision, gathering up thy skirts;
    By night star-veiling, and by day
    Darkening the light and blotting out the sun;
    Go thou, my incense, upward from this hearth,
    And ask the gods to pardon this clear flame.

    Henry David Thoreau

    1. AThe singing birds disrupt the peace of the forest.
    2. BThe earth is full of peace and tranquility.
    3. CThe speaker admits sin of setting the fire.
    4. DThe narrator is over enthusiastic.

    Answer: (C) The speaker admits sin of setting the fire.

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