UGC NET English Literature March 2023 Question PaperPaper 1 & Paper 2 with Answer Key

50 questions with the answer key and explanations.

1. Question 1

   How many people cycled to work on a rainy day?

   The following table presents the findings of a survey into how people travel to work.

   Note: (a) 1 in 8 of the people who cycled to work were over 65 years of age. (b) 1 in 3 of the cyclists stated that they travelled to work by bus on rainy days.

   Cycle	Car	Bus	Walk
   72	18	35	55

   1. A24
   2. B48
   3. C72
   4. D64

   Answer: (B) 48

   Explanation

   72 people cycled to work in total. The note says 1 in 3 of the cyclists switched to the bus on rainy days, so 1/3 × 72 = 24 cyclists did not cycle on a rainy day. That leaves 72 − 24 = 48 who still cycled on a rainy day.

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2. Question 2

   How many respondents indicated that they cycled to work and were over 65 years of age?

   The following table presents the findings of a survey into how people travel to work.

   Note: (a) 1 in 8 of the people who cycled to work were over 65 years of age. (b) 1 in 3 of the cyclists stated that they travelled to work by bus on rainy days.

   Cycle	Car	Bus	Walk
   72	18	35	55

   1. A12
   2. B9
   3. C8
   4. D7

   Answer: (B) 9

   Explanation

   The note states that 1 in 8 of the people who cycled to work were over 65 years of age. Since 72 people cycled to work in total, dividing this figure by 8 gives 72 ÷ 8 = 9 respondents who were over 65 years of age and cycled to work.

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3. Question 3

   Which of the following statements is true?

   The following table presents the findings of a survey into how people travel to work.

   Note: (a) 1 in 8 of the people who cycled to work were over 65 years of age. (b) 1 in 3 of the cyclists stated that they travelled to work by bus on rainy days.

   Cycle	Car	Bus	Walk
   72	18	35	55

   1. ASlightly fewer than twice as many people indicated that they travelled to work by bus than by car.
   2. BSlightly more than twice as many people indicated that they travelled to work by bus than by car.
   3. CSlightly more people indicated that they travelled to work by bus than by car.
   4. DSlightly fewer people indicated that they travelled to work by car than by bus.

   Answer: (A) Slightly fewer than twice as many people indicated that they travelled to work by bus than by car.

   Explanation

   The survey shows that 35 people travelled by bus while only 18 travelled by car. Twice the car figure equals 2 multiplied by 18, which comes to 36. Because the bus figure of 35 falls just short of this doubled car figure, the correct description is that slightly fewer people travelled by bus than exactly twice as many as travelled by car.

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4. Question 4

   The sum of which modes of travelling to work represents half the number of responses represented in the survey?

   A. Cycle and Car
   B. Bus and Car
   C. Walk and Bus
   D. Walk and Cycle

   The following table presents the findings of a survey into how people travel to work.

   Note: (a) 1 in 8 of the people who cycled to work were over 65 years of age. (b) 1 in 3 of the cyclists stated that they travelled to work by bus on rainy days.

   Cycle	Car	Bus	Walk
   72	18	35	55

   1. AA and B only
   2. BA and C only
   3. CB and C only
   4. DB and D only

   Answer: (B) A and C only

   Explanation

   The total number of responses is 72 + 18 + 35 + 55 = 180, so half of the total is 90.

   • A. Cycle and Car — 72 + 18 = 90, correct.
   • B. Bus and Car — 35 + 18 = 53, not half.
   • C. Walk and Bus — 55 + 35 = 90, correct.
   • D. Walk and Cycle — 55 + 72 = 127, not half.

   Only A and C sum to 90, so the answer is A and C only.

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5. Question 5

   How many more people indicated that they cycled to work compared with those who travelled by either bus or car?

   The following table presents the findings of a survey into how people travel to work.

   Note: (a) 1 in 8 of the people who cycled to work were over 65 years of age. (b) 1 in 3 of the cyclists stated that they travelled to work by bus on rainy days.

   Cycle	Car	Bus	Walk
   72	18	35	55

   1. A72
   2. B35
   3. C18
   4. D19

   Answer: (D) 19

   Explanation

   The cycling figure of 72 people is compared against the combined total of those who travelled by bus and car. Adding bus travellers (35) to car travellers (18) gives a combined total of 53. Subtracting this combined figure from the cycling total shows that 72 minus 53 leaves a difference of exactly 19 additional people who chose cycling over these other two travel modes.

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6. Question 6

   Given below are two statements:
   Statement I: Learner-centred approach is centred on teacher needs.
   Statement II: Learner-centred approach is centred on cooperative determination of subject matter.

   1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct.
   2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
   3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
   4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

   Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

   Explanation

   A learner-centred approach shifts focus away from the teacher's needs and toward the learner's needs, interests, and participation. Statement I is therefore incorrect. Statement II is correct: learner-centred pedagogy treats subject matter and learning goals as something negotiated cooperatively between teacher and learners, rather than imposed unilaterally.

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7. Question 7

   Which of the following is a technique to provide the right kind of support in the right amount at the right time to increase a child's competence?

   1. AScaffolding
   2. BAssistance
   3. CAccommodation
   4. DSchemas

   Answer: (A) Scaffolding

   Explanation

   Scaffolding, a concept associated with Vygotsky's Zone of Proximal Development, is precisely this technique: a teacher or more capable peer offers calibrated support that is gradually withdrawn as the child's own competence grows. Accommodation and schemas are Piagetian terms about how a learner's internal cognitive structures change, not about external teaching support, and "assistance" is too generic to be the technical term the question is naming.

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8. Question 8

   SWAYAM PRABHA is an educational learning platform initiated by ______, available 24 x 7 through 34 DTH channels.

   1. AMinistry of Human Resource Development (now Ministry of Education)
   2. BUniversity Grants Commission (UGC)
   3. CConsortium for Educational Communication (CEC)
   4. DAll India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)

   Answer: (A) Ministry of Human Resource Development (now Ministry of Education)

   Explanation

   SWAYAM PRABHA is a group of DTH channels broadcasting educational content round the clock, launched under the Ministry of Human Resource Development (renamed the Ministry of Education in 2020). UGC, CEC, and AICTE are agencies that contribute or curate content for various ICT initiatives, but the platform itself was initiated at the ministry level.

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9. Question 9

   A learner combines her/his previous schemas or modifies them as per new experiences. The process of combining/modifying existing schemas and arriving at new schemas is known as:

   1. AAccommodation
   2. BAssimilation
   3. CAdaptation
   4. DEquilibration

   Answer: (A) Accommodation

   Explanation

   In Piaget's theory, accommodation is the process of modifying or restructuring existing schemas to fit new information that does not match them. Assimilation is the opposite process — fitting new information into existing schemas without changing them. Adaptation is the broader umbrella term covering both assimilation and accommodation together, and equilibration is the drive toward cognitive balance between the two, so neither names this specific modifying process as precisely as accommodation does.

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10. Question 10

    Which of the following curriculum development models comes under the Technical-Scientific Model?

    1. AOpen Classroom Model
    2. BTaba's Model
    3. CWeinstein and Fantini Model
    4. DRogers' Model of Interpersonal Relations

    Answer: (B) Taba's Model

    Explanation

    Technical-scientific curriculum models treat curriculum design as a systematic, step-by-step process with clearly specified objectives, content, and evaluation — Hilda Taba's grassroots model (needs assessment, objectives, content, organization, evaluation, in sequence) is a classic example, alongside Tyler's model. The Open Classroom Model, the Weinstein and Fantini Model, and Rogers' Model of Interpersonal Relations belong to the non-technical/humanistic tradition, which centres curriculum on learner experience and affective growth rather than a fixed technical sequence.

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11. Question 11

    Survey research is one of the key methods in:

    1. APhysics
    2. BHistory
    3. CSociology
    4. DHermeneutics

    Answer: (C) Sociology

    Explanation

    Survey research — systematically collecting structured data from a sample of respondents via questionnaires or interviews — is a core empirical method of sociology, used to study attitudes, behaviours, and social trends across populations. Physics relies on experimental and observational methods on physical systems, history relies on archival and documentary analysis, and hermeneutics is a method of textual interpretation, none of which use respondent surveys as a defining method.

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12. Question 12

    Methods of social research are directly linked to different visions of:

    1. ASocial reality
    2. BLaboratory experiments
    3. CSimulations
    4. DVirtual reality

    Answer: (A) Social reality

    Explanation

    A researcher's choice of method (quantitative/positivist versus qualitative/interpretivist, for instance) follows from their underlying assumptions about the nature of social reality — whether it is an objective structure to be measured or a meaning constructed through interaction. Laboratory experiments, simulations, and virtual reality are specific techniques, not the epistemological visions that methodological choice actually tracks.

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13. Question 13

    Grand theories of social sciences operate at a:

    1. ALower level
    2. BSimplistic level
    3. CCategorical level
    4. DHigher level of abstraction

    Answer: (D) Higher level of abstraction

    Explanation

    Grand theories (a term associated with C. Wright Mills) aim to explain broad patterns of social life through highly general, abstract conceptual frameworks that are not tied to specific empirical observations. This puts them at a higher level of abstraction than middle-range theories or simple empirical generalizations, which the other options describe.

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14. Question 14

    Which of the following are considered major types of qualitative research questions?

    A. Non-purposive
    B. Causes and consequences
    C. Predictive
    D. Evaluative
    E. Descriptive

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BA, C and D only
    3. CA, D and E only
    4. DB, C, D and E only

    Answer: (D) B, C, D and E only

    Explanation

    The commonly cited major types of qualitative research questions are descriptive (what is happening), causes-and-consequences (why it happens and what results), predictive (what will happen), and evaluative (how well something works) — matching B, C, D, and E. "Non-purposive" (A) is not a recognized category of research question at all; it describes a type of sampling, not a type of question, which is why any option including A is wrong.

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15. Question 15

    Given below are two statements:
    Statement I: Time and cost are not relevant in determining the sample size.
    Statement II: Unit non-response and item non-response do not matter in deciding the sampling error.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true.
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false.
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false.
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true.

    Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

    Explanation

    Both statements are false. Time and cost are practical constraints that directly limit how large a sample a researcher can afford to draw, so Statement I is false. Non-response — whether whole units fail to respond or only some items go unanswered — increases the gap between the achieved sample and the intended one, which is exactly what inflates sampling/non-sampling error, so Statement II is also false.

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16. Question 16

    The science of studying the feedback systems in humans, animals and machines is described as:

    1. AFeedback science
    2. BExperience study
    3. CMessage hermeneutics
    4. DCybernetics

    Answer: (D) Cybernetics

    Explanation

    Cybernetics, a term coined by Norbert Wiener, is defined exactly this way: the study of control and communication through feedback loops in humans, animals, and machines alike. The other options are not established names for this field.

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17. Question 17

    De Saussure labelled language as a:

    1. ATechnical code
    2. BProfusion of signs
    3. CVerbalism
    4. DMacro generaliser

    Answer: (B) Profusion of signs

    Explanation

    Ferdinand de Saussure's structuralist account treats language as a system built from an abundance of signs, each a pairing of a signifier and a signified, whose meaning arises from their relations to one another rather than from a fixed link to objects in the world. "Profusion of signs" captures that view of language as a dense system of signs, which the other options — technical code, verbalism, macro generaliser — do not represent as Saussure's characterization.

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18. Question 18

    Which of the following are the criteria for public service communication?

    A. Personal bias
    B. Ideological slant
    C. Accuracy
    D. Comprehensiveness
    E. Separation of opinion and facts

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DA, D and E only

    Answer: (C) C, D and E only

    Explanation

    Public service communication is expected to be accurate, comprehensive, and to keep opinion clearly separated from fact — matching C, D, and E. Personal bias (A) and an ideological slant (B) are precisely what public service communication is meant to avoid, so any option including them is wrong.

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19. Question 19

    According to some experts like Marshall McLuhan, the following are considered hot media:

    A. Telephone
    B. Television
    C. Radio
    D. Cinema
    E. Print

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DA, C and E only

    Answer: (C) C, D and E only

    Explanation

    In McLuhan's hot/cool media distinction, "hot" media deliver information at high definition and demand low audience participation to fill in gaps — radio, cinema, and print fit this, matching C, D, and E. Television and the telephone are McLuhan's classic examples of "cool" media, which are low-definition and require the audience to actively participate to complete the meaning, so any option including A or B is wrong.

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20. Question 20

    Given below are two statements:
    Statement I: Internet itself is a network and also a model for cyberspace relations.
    Statement II: Global interactive technologies, aided by the Internet, heralded the arrival of the 'second media age' by the end of the twentieth century.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true.
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false.
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false.
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true.

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

    Explanation

    Statement I is true: the Internet is literally a network of networks, and its decentralized, many-to-many structure has also become the conceptual model for how cyberspace relations are imagined. Statement II is also true and reflects Mark Poster's "second media age" thesis — that interactive, networked technologies enabled by the Internet marked a shift away from the broadcast-era "first media age" of one-to-many communication, a shift widely dated to the late twentieth century.

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21. Question 21

    The monthly income of a person in 2020 was Rs. 65,000 and monthly expenditure was Rs. 45,000. In 2021, income increased by 15% and expenditure by 7%. What is the percentage increase in savings?

    1. A33%
    2. B31%
    3. C35%
    4. D28%

    Answer: (A) 33%

    Explanation

    2020 savings = 65,000 − 45,000 = 20,000.
    2021 income = 65,000 × 1.15 = 74,750. 2021 expenditure = 45,000 × 1.07 = 48,150.
    2021 savings = 74,750 − 48,150 = 26,600.
    Increase in savings = 26,600 − 20,000 = 6,600. Percentage increase = 6,600 / 20,000 × 100 = 33%.

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22. Question 22

    5/9 of a number is equal to 25% of a second number. The second number is equal to 1/4 of a third number. The third number is 2960. What is 30% of the first number?

    1. A9.99
    2. B99.9
    3. C89.9
    4. D88.9

    Answer: (B) 99.9

    Explanation

    Working backward through the chain of relationships: the second number equals one quarter of the third number, so dividing the given third number of 2960 by 4 yields a second number of 740. Since five-ninths of the first number equals twenty-five percent of this second number, multiplying 740 by 0.25 gives 185, and multiplying that result by nine-fifths recovers the first number, which equals 333. Finally, taking thirty percent of this first number produces the requested value of 99.9.

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23. Question 23

    A man invested 1/3 of his retirement gratuity at 6% simple interest, 1/4 at 7%, and the rest at 8%. If his annual return is Rs. 7012.50, find the total gratuity invested.

    1. ARs. 89,000
    2. BRs. 99,000
    3. CRs. 95,000
    4. DRs. 1,05,000

    Answer: (B) Rs. 99,000

    Explanation

    Let the total gratuity be T. The remaining fraction invested at 8% is 1 − 1/3 − 1/4 = 5/12.
    Annual return = T × [(1/3)(0.06) + (1/4)(0.07) + (5/12)(0.08)] = T × [0.02 + 0.0175 + 0.033333] = T × 0.070833.
    Setting this equal to 7012.50: T = 7012.50 / 0.070833 = 99,000.

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24. Question 24

    If in a certain coding language, 'CHEATER' is coded as 'EJGCVGT', how will 'PREACHER' be coded?

    1. ARTGCEJGT
    2. BQSFBDIFS
    3. CRTGBDJGT
    4. DSTGBDJGT

    Answer: (A) RTGCEJGT

    Explanation

    Compare CHEATER with EJGCVGT letter by letter: C→E, H→J, E→G, A→C, T→V, E→G, R→T. Each letter shifts forward by 2 positions in the alphabet.
    Applying the same +2 shift to PREACHER: P→R, R→T, E→G, A→C, C→E, H→J, E→G, R→T, giving RTGCEJGT.

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25. Question 25

    What number should replace (?) in the series: 7, 10, 19, 46, 127, ?

    1. A202
    2. B192
    3. C173
    4. D370

    Answer: (D) 370

    Explanation

    Look at the successive differences: 10−7=3, 19−10=9, 46−19=27, 127−46=81. Each difference is 3 times the previous one (3, 9, 27, 81), so the next difference is 81 × 3 = 243. Adding this to 127 gives 127 + 243 = 370.

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26. Question 26

    Which fallacy is committed in the following argument? "When I called you, you were neither in your class nor in the laboratory. Why are you avoiding me?"

    1. ACircular argument
    2. BRed herring
    3. CComplex question
    4. DSlippery slope

    Answer: (B) Red herring

    Explanation

    The speaker's real question is where the listener was, but instead of pursuing that, the argument pivots to an unsupported accusation of "avoiding me" — an irrelevant charge introduced to redirect the exchange away from the actual point (the listener's whereabouts) and toward a loaded confrontation. This diversion to an unrelated, distracting issue is the hallmark of a red herring. It is not circular argument (which restates its own conclusion as a premise) or slippery slope (which chains a claim through an exaggerated series of consequences); the wording invites confusion with a complex/loaded question (a question that bakes in an unproven assumption), but the argument's structure is fundamentally a diversion away from the relevant issue rather than a single presupposition-loaded question.

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27. Question 27

    Which of the following statements are logically equivalent?

    A. Some animals are birds.
    B. Some animals are not non-birds.
    C. Some non-birds are not non-animals.
    D. Some birds are animals.

    1. AB and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CA, B and D only
    4. DA, B and C only

    Answer: (C) A, B and D only

    Explanation

    Start from A, "Some animals are birds" (an I-type proposition, Some S are P).

    • B. Some animals are not non-birds — this is the obverse of A (Some S are P ⇔ Some S are not non-P), which is always a valid immediate inference, so B is equivalent to A.
    • D. Some birds are animals — I-type propositions convert simply (Some S are P ⇔ Some P are S), so D is equivalent to A.
    • C. Some non-birds are not non-animals — this would require contraposition of an I-type proposition, which is not a logically valid inference for particular propositions, so C is not guaranteed to be equivalent to A.

    Only A, B, and D are logically equivalent to one another.

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28. Question 28

    If the statement "No animals are fishes" is given as false, which of the following statements can be immediately inferred to be true?

    A. All fishes are animals.
    B. Some animals are not fishes.
    C. All animals are fishes.
    D. Some animals are fishes.

    1. AB and D only
    2. BA, C and D only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DD only

    Answer: (D) D only

    Explanation

    "No animals are fishes" is an E-type proposition. On the traditional square of opposition, the contradictory of an E proposition is the I proposition "Some animals are fishes." Since the E proposition is given as false, its contradictory (D) must be true.

    "All animals are fishes" (C, an A proposition) is the contrary of the E proposition: contraries cannot both be true, but can both be false, so knowing E is false does not establish that C is true. "All fishes are animals" (A option here) involves a different subject-predicate order and is not determined by the falsity of the given E proposition. "Some animals are not fishes" (B, an O proposition) is the subcontrary of the true I proposition; subcontraries cannot both be false but can both be true, so B's truth value remains undetermined. Only D follows with certainty.

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29. Question 29

    Which of the following propositions are contrary to each other?

    A. All fishes are mammals.
    B. Some fishes are mammals.
    C. No fishes are mammals.
    D. Some fishes are not mammals.

    1. AB and D
    2. BA and C
    3. CA and D
    4. DB and C

    Answer: (B) A and C

    Explanation

    On the square of opposition, contrary propositions are two universal propositions (one affirmative, one negative) that cannot both be true but can both be false. "All fishes are mammals" (A, universal affirmative) and "No fishes are mammals" (C, universal negative) are exactly such a pair — both cannot hold at once, but both could be false if some fishes are mammals and some are not. B and D are particular propositions and form a subcontrary pair with each other, not a contrary pair.

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30. Question 30

    According to Nyaya (Classical Indian School of Logic), which of the following arguments involves the fallacy of Anupsamhari (non-exclusive middle term)?

    1. AThe hill has smoke because it has fire.
    2. BSound is eternal because it is audible.
    3. CAll things are non-eternal because they are knowable.
    4. DSound is eternal because it is produced.

    Answer: (C) All things are non-eternal because they are knowable.

    Explanation

    Anupasamhari (the non-exclusive middle term) occurs when the reason (hetu) is so all-inclusive that it applies to literally everything, leaving no counter-example (vipaksa) available to test whether the reason and the conclusion actually go together. "All things are non-eternal because they are knowable" fits this exactly: since every single thing is knowable, "knowable" cannot be checked against anything that is not knowable, so the middle term fails to establish a genuine, testable connection to non-eternality. The other arguments each have a middle term (smoke, audible, produced) that applies only to some things, leaving room for genuine positive and negative examples.

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31. Question 31

    Consider the MS-Excel spreadsheet in which the Population column represents each city's population in millions of people. Column headers D1:F1 are Haryana, MP and UP respectively.

    Suppose the formula =IF($B2=D$1,$A2,0) is entered into cell D2 and then D2 is copied and pasted to D2:F9. How many cells in the range D2:F9 contain 0?

    Row	City	State	Population	Haryana	MP	UP
    2	Patiala	Punjab	8.34
    3	Sonipat	Haryana	3.86
    4	Noida	UP	2.71
    5	Indore	MP	2.16
    6	Mandi	HP	1.49
    7	Sagar	MP	1.38
    8	Panipat	Haryana	1.39
    9	Gwalior	MP	1.24

    MS-Excel spreadsheet of city, state, and population data with columns D-F headed Haryana, MP, and UP

    1. A0
    2. B6
    3. C12
    4. D18

    Answer: (D) 18

    Explanation

    The formula compares each row's State (column B, fixed row via $B2) against the fixed header row 1 of the current column ($D$1, $E$1, or $F$1 as it is copied across), returning the City name if they match and 0 otherwise. There are 8 data rows (2–9) and 3 columns (D, E, F), giving 24 cells total, of which exactly one cell per row can match (a city's actual state equals at most one of Haryana/MP/UP), or zero matches if its state is Punjab or HP (which are not among the three headers).

    Row by row: Patiala/Punjab matches none of the 3 headers (3 zeros); Sonipat/Haryana matches D only (2 zeros); Noida/UP matches F only (2 zeros); Indore/MP matches E only (2 zeros); Mandi/HP matches none (3 zeros); Sagar/MP matches E only (2 zeros); Panipat/Haryana matches D only (2 zeros); Gwalior/MP matches E only (2 zeros).

    Total zeros = 3+2+2+2+3+2+2+2 = 18.

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32. Question 32

    Which of the following statements about email security best describes email encryption?

    1. AThis is a self-replicating program that can spread by email.
    2. BThis disguises the content of email messages in order to protect sensitive information.
    3. CThis consists of sending numerous duplicate mails to the same email address.
    4. DThe email header is changed so that the message appears to have come from someone else.

    Answer: (B) This disguises the content of email messages in order to protect sensitive information.

    Explanation

    Email encryption transforms a message's content into an unreadable form that only an authorized recipient with the right key can decode, protecting sensitive information in transit — matching option B directly. Option A describes an email worm/virus, option C describes email bombing, and option D describes email spoofing; none of these is encryption.

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33. Question 33

    Given below are two statements about music files:
    Statement I: A music clip stored in MP3 format would take up more memory than the same clip stored in WAV format.
    Statement II: Music files stored in MP3 format are of better quality than files stored in WAV format.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true.
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false.
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false.
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true.

    Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

    Explanation

    WAV is an uncompressed audio format, while MP3 uses lossy compression to shrink file size, so an MP3 clip normally takes up far less memory than the same clip in WAV, not more — Statement I is false. Because MP3 achieves that smaller size by discarding some audio data, it is generally considered lower quality than uncompressed WAV, not better — Statement II is also false.

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34. Question 34

    Which of the following statements are accurate?

    A. Web 2.0 is a simple static website without any interaction with its users.
    B. Web 2.0 brings people closer together with information using machines.
    C. Web 3.0 brings machines closer together using information.

    1. AA only
    2. BB only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DD only

    Answer: (C) B and C only

    Explanation

    Web 2.0 is defined by interactivity and user-generated content connecting people to one another with the help of machines/platforms — matching B — which directly contradicts A's claim that Web 2.0 is a simple static, non-interactive website, so A is false. Web 3.0 (the semantic web) is commonly described as machines becoming interconnected and able to process and exchange information with each other, matching C. Both B and C are accurate, so the answer is B and C only.

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35. Question 35

    Match List I with List II.

    A. Inkjet printer
    B. LCD screen
    C. LED screen
    D. Laser printer

    List-I	List-II
    A. Inkjet printer	I. Flat-panel display using the light-modulating properties of liquid crystals
    B. LCD screen	II. Flat-panel display using an array of light-emitting diodes as pixels
    C. LED screen	III. Droplets of ink are propelled onto paper
    D. Laser printer	IV. Electrically charged powdered ink is transferred onto paper

    1. AA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    2. BA-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
    3. CA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
    4. DA-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

    Answer: (D) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

    Explanation

    An inkjet printer (A) forms images by propelling droplets of ink onto paper, matching III. An LCD screen (B) is a flat-panel display that works through the light-modulating properties of liquid crystals, matching I. An LED screen (C) is a flat-panel display using an array of light-emitting diodes as pixels, matching II. A laser printer (D) works by transferring electrically charged powdered ink (toner) onto paper, matching IV. This gives A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV.

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36. Question 36

    Atmospheric haze is mainly caused by:

    1. AUltrafine-size particulate matter
    2. BOxides of nitrogen and sulphur
    3. COzone
    4. DCarbon dioxide and carbon monoxide

    Answer: (A) Ultrafine-size particulate matter

    Explanation

    Haze occurs when fine suspended particles (aerosols) scatter sunlight, reducing visibility and giving the sky a hazy appearance. Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur are precursors of acid rain and smog chemistry, ozone is a photochemical pollutant tied to smog formation, and carbon dioxide/carbon monoxide are gases with negligible light-scattering effect at ambient concentrations — none of them directly produces the visible haze the way fine particulate matter does.

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37. Question 37

    Given below are two statements:
    Statement I: Nanoscale metallic and bimetallic particles can efficiently remove common water pollutants such as polychlorobenzenes, organochlorine pesticides and halogenated organic solvents.
    Statement II: Nanoscale metallic and bimetallic particles cannot reduce heavy metals such as nickel, arsenic and mercury.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct.
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

    Explanation

    Nanoscale metallic and bimetallic particles, such as nanoscale zero-valent iron, are well documented in environmental remediation research to break down chlorinated organic pollutants like polychlorobenzenes, organochlorine pesticides, and halogenated solvents, so Statement I is correct. The same nanoparticles are also used to reduce and immobilize toxic heavy metals such as nickel, arsenic, and mercury through redox reactions, so the claim in Statement II that they "cannot" do this is incorrect.

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38. Question 38

    Assertion (A): The change in sea level at any coastal location depends on the sum of global, regional and local factors.
    Reason (R): Global mean sea-level rise translates into a uniform rise in sea level around the world.

    1. ABoth A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
    2. BBoth A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
    3. CA is correct but R is not correct.
    4. DA is not correct but R is correct.

    Answer: (C) A is correct but R is not correct.

    Explanation

    The Assertion is correct: local sea-level change results from the combined effect of global mean rise, regional factors (ocean currents, gravitational and rotational effects of ice-mass loss), and local factors (land subsidence, sediment compaction, tectonics). The Reason is incorrect, and it does not even follow logically from the Assertion — because sea-level change depends on regional and local factors in addition to the global mean, the rise is distinctly non-uniform across different coastal locations, not a uniform rise as the Reason claims.

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39. Question 39

    Oxygen-demanding wastes:

    1. ADecrease the oxygen level in water.
    2. BIncrease the oxygen level in water.
    3. CDo not change the oxygen level in water.
    4. DIncrease the temperature of water.

    Answer: (A) Decrease the oxygen level in water.

    Explanation

    Oxygen-demanding wastes are organic pollutants that microorganisms break down using dissolved oxygen from the water (measured as biochemical oxygen demand, BOD). This decomposition process consumes dissolved oxygen faster than it can be replenished, decreasing the oxygen level available for aquatic life.

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40. Question 40

    Match List I with List II.

    A. Sustainable Development Goal 2
    B. Sustainable Development Goal 3
    C. Sustainable Development Goal 6
    D. Sustainable Development Goal 11

    List-I	List-II
    A. Sustainable Development Goal 2	I. Sustainable cities and communities
    B. Sustainable Development Goal 3	II. Zero hunger
    C. Sustainable Development Goal 6	III. Good health and well-being
    D. Sustainable Development Goal 11	IV. Clean water and sanitation

    1. AA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
    2. BA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    3. CA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    4. DA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

    Answer: (C) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Explanation

    The UN Sustainable Development Goals are numbered and titled in a fixed official list: SDG 2 is Zero Hunger, matching II. SDG 3 is Good Health and Well-being, matching III. SDG 6 is Clean Water and Sanitation, matching IV. SDG 11 is Sustainable Cities and Communities, matching I. This gives A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I.

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41. Question 41

    What is the full form of 'SPARC'?

    1. AStandard for Profession of Assessment and Research Communication
    2. BScheme for Promotion of Academic and Research Collaboration
    3. CSchool for Promotion of Assessment and Right to Commitment
    4. DSocial Protection of Advancement and Relationship Complex

    Answer: (B) Scheme for Promotion of Academic and Research Collaboration

    Explanation

    SPARC (Scheme for Promotion of Academic and Research Collaboration) is a Government of India initiative, coordinated by IIT Kharagpur, that funds joint research projects between top Indian institutions and leading global universities. None of the other options name a real government scheme.

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42. Question 42

    According to NEP 2020, India will be promoted as a global study destination providing premium education at affordable costs, thereby helping to restore its role as _______.

    1. AEconomic Power
    2. BKnowledge Economy
    3. CVishwa Guru
    4. DShiksha Guru

    Answer: (C) Vishwa Guru

    Explanation

    The National Education Policy 2020 explicitly frames internationalization of higher education — attracting foreign students through quality, affordable programmes — as restoring India's historical role as "Vishwa Guru," a teacher to the world. "Knowledge Economy" and "Economic Power" describe broader economic goals, not this specific NEP phrase, and "Shiksha Guru" is not the term the policy document uses.

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43. Question 43

    What is the full form of 'NCIVE'?

    1. ANon-Governmental Course for the Initiation of Vocational Enhancement
    2. BNational Committee for the Integration of Vocational Education
    3. CNon-Governmental Council for the Integration of Veterinary Education
    4. DNational Commission for the Information of Veterinary Education

    Answer: (B) National Committee for the Integration of Vocational Education

    Explanation

    NCIVE (National Committee for the Integration of Vocational Education) is the body proposed under NEP 2020 to oversee integrating vocational education into mainstream schooling, bringing together ministries, education boards, and skill councils. None of the other options describe a real NEP 2020 body.

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44. Question 44

    The Government of India created the Department of Science and Technology in the year:

    1. A1990
    2. B1985
    3. C1978
    4. D1971

    Answer: (D) 1971

    Explanation

    The Department of Science and Technology (DST) was established by the Government of India in May 1971 to promote new areas of science and technology and coordinate research activity across the country. The other years do not mark DST's founding.

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45. Question 45

    The ancient system of education in India included education of which of the following ancient texts?

    A. Vedas
    B. Brahmanas
    C. Upanishads
    D. Dharma Sutras

    1. AA and C only
    2. BB and D only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DA, B, C and D

    Answer: (D) A, B, C and D

    Explanation

    Ancient Indian education, centred on the Vedic and post-Vedic gurukul system, covered the full range of sacred literature of the time: the Vedas (core scriptural hymns), the Brahmanas (ritual commentaries on the Vedas), the Upanishads (philosophical texts), and the Dharma Sutras (texts on duty and law). All four were part of the curriculum, so the complete set A, B, C, and D is correct.

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46. Question 46

    Children of which of the following ages would generally have the best perspective-taking ability?

    Around the age of 2, children have a sense of intention, at least of their own intentions. They will announce, "I wanna peanut butter sandwich." As children develop a theory of mind, they also can understand that other people have intentions of their own. Older pre-schoolers who get along well with their peers can separate intentional from unintentional actions and react accordingly. For example, they will not get angry when another child accidentally knocks over their block tower. But aggressive children have more trouble assessing intention. They are likely to attack anyone who topples their tower, even accidentally. As children mature, they are more able to assess and consider the intentions of others.

    With a developing theory of mind, children are increasingly able to understand that other people have different feelings and experiences and therefore may have a different viewpoint or perspective. This perspective-taking ability develops over time until it is quite sophisticated in adults. Being able to understand how others might think and feel is important in fostering cooperation and moral development, reducing prejudice, resolving conflicts, and encouraging positive social behaviours in general. Some coaching in perspective taking from the teacher might help if children mistreat peers and the mistreatment is not part of a deeper emotional or behavioural disorder.

    1. A3 years
    2. B8 years
    3. C13 years
    4. D18 years

    Answer: (D) 18 years

    Explanation

    The passage states that perspective-taking ability "develops over time until it is quite sophisticated in adults." Among the given ages, 18 years is the only one that falls within adulthood, while 3, 8, and 13 are all childhood or adolescent ages at which, per the passage, the ability is still developing rather than fully sophisticated. So 18 years is the age with the best perspective-taking ability.

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47. Question 47

    Consider the following two statements:
    Statement I: Aggressive children can assess the intentions of others with ease.
    Statement II: Different persons may have different viewpoints.

    Around the age of 2, children have a sense of intention, at least of their own intentions. They will announce, "I wanna peanut butter sandwich." As children develop a theory of mind, they also can understand that other people have intentions of their own. Older pre-schoolers who get along well with their peers can separate intentional from unintentional actions and react accordingly. For example, they will not get angry when another child accidentally knocks over their block tower. But aggressive children have more trouble assessing intention. They are likely to attack anyone who topples their tower, even accidentally. As children mature, they are more able to assess and consider the intentions of others.

    With a developing theory of mind, children are increasingly able to understand that other people have different feelings and experiences and therefore may have a different viewpoint or perspective. This perspective-taking ability develops over time until it is quite sophisticated in adults. Being able to understand how others might think and feel is important in fostering cooperation and moral development, reducing prejudice, resolving conflicts, and encouraging positive social behaviours in general. Some coaching in perspective taking from the teacher might help if children mistreat peers and the mistreatment is not part of a deeper emotional or behavioural disorder.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct.
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

    Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

    Explanation

    The passage states directly that "aggressive children have more trouble assessing intention," the opposite of assessing it "with ease," so Statement I is incorrect. The passage also states that a developing theory of mind lets children understand that other people "may have a different viewpoint or perspective," which directly supports Statement II as correct.

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48. Question 48

    Understanding how others feel is important in:

    A. Developing empathy
    B. Reducing prejudice
    C. Conflict resolution
    D. Encouraging selfishness
    E. Enhancing cooperation

    Around the age of 2, children have a sense of intention, at least of their own intentions. They will announce, "I wanna peanut butter sandwich." As children develop a theory of mind, they also can understand that other people have intentions of their own. Older pre-schoolers who get along well with their peers can separate intentional from unintentional actions and react accordingly. For example, they will not get angry when another child accidentally knocks over their block tower. But aggressive children have more trouble assessing intention. They are likely to attack anyone who topples their tower, even accidentally. As children mature, they are more able to assess and consider the intentions of others.

    With a developing theory of mind, children are increasingly able to understand that other people have different feelings and experiences and therefore may have a different viewpoint or perspective. This perspective-taking ability develops over time until it is quite sophisticated in adults. Being able to understand how others might think and feel is important in fostering cooperation and moral development, reducing prejudice, resolving conflicts, and encouraging positive social behaviours in general. Some coaching in perspective taking from the teacher might help if children mistreat peers and the mistreatment is not part of a deeper emotional or behavioural disorder.

    1. AA, B, C and D only
    2. BA, B, C and E only
    3. CB, C, D and E only
    4. DA, B, D and E only

    Answer: (B) A, B, C and E only

    Explanation

    The passage states that understanding how others think and feel is important "in fostering cooperation and moral development, reducing prejudice, resolving conflicts, and encouraging positive social behaviours in general." This directly supports reducing prejudice (B), conflict resolution (C), and enhancing cooperation (E), and understanding others' feelings is the basis of developing empathy (A), which the passage's discussion of perspective-taking centres on. Encouraging selfishness (D) is the opposite of what the passage describes as a positive social behaviour, so it is excluded. The answer is A, B, C, and E only.

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49. Question 49

    Assertion (A): Older preschoolers have better chances of getting along well with their peers as compared to younger preschoolers.
    Reason (R): Older preschoolers generally have a better understanding of the intentions of others.

    Around the age of 2, children have a sense of intention, at least of their own intentions. They will announce, "I wanna peanut butter sandwich." As children develop a theory of mind, they also can understand that other people have intentions of their own. Older pre-schoolers who get along well with their peers can separate intentional from unintentional actions and react accordingly. For example, they will not get angry when another child accidentally knocks over their block tower. But aggressive children have more trouble assessing intention. They are likely to attack anyone who topples their tower, even accidentally. As children mature, they are more able to assess and consider the intentions of others.

    With a developing theory of mind, children are increasingly able to understand that other people have different feelings and experiences and therefore may have a different viewpoint or perspective. This perspective-taking ability develops over time until it is quite sophisticated in adults. Being able to understand how others might think and feel is important in fostering cooperation and moral development, reducing prejudice, resolving conflicts, and encouraging positive social behaviours in general. Some coaching in perspective taking from the teacher might help if children mistreat peers and the mistreatment is not part of a deeper emotional or behavioural disorder.

    1. ABoth A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
    2. BBoth A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
    3. CA is correct but R is not correct.
    4. DA is not correct but R is correct.

    Answer: (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

    Explanation

    The passage says "older pre-schoolers who get along well with their peers can separate intentional from unintentional actions and react accordingly," and that "as children mature, they are more able to assess and consider the intentions of others" — supporting both the Assertion and the Reason as correct. The Reason also correctly explains the Assertion: it is precisely because older preschoolers better understand others' intentions (and so don't overreact to accidental acts, like a toppled block tower) that they get along better with peers than younger preschoolers do.

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50. Question 50

    Consider the following two statements:
    Statement I: A 2-year-old child is likely to have a better understanding of his/her own intentions than those of others.
    Statement II: It is always helpful to coach a child in perspective-taking if the child has the habit of mistreating others because of some behavioural disorder.

    Around the age of 2, children have a sense of intention, at least of their own intentions. They will announce, "I wanna peanut butter sandwich." As children develop a theory of mind, they also can understand that other people have intentions of their own. Older pre-schoolers who get along well with their peers can separate intentional from unintentional actions and react accordingly. For example, they will not get angry when another child accidentally knocks over their block tower. But aggressive children have more trouble assessing intention. They are likely to attack anyone who topples their tower, even accidentally. As children mature, they are more able to assess and consider the intentions of others.

    With a developing theory of mind, children are increasingly able to understand that other people have different feelings and experiences and therefore may have a different viewpoint or perspective. This perspective-taking ability develops over time until it is quite sophisticated in adults. Being able to understand how others might think and feel is important in fostering cooperation and moral development, reducing prejudice, resolving conflicts, and encouraging positive social behaviours in general. Some coaching in perspective taking from the teacher might help if children mistreat peers and the mistreatment is not part of a deeper emotional or behavioural disorder.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct.
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

    Explanation

    The passage says that around age 2, children have a sense of intention "at least of their own intentions," implying their grasp of others' intentions lags behind their grasp of their own — so Statement I is correct. The passage also explicitly limits when coaching helps: it says coaching "might help if children mistreat peers and the mistreatment is not part of a deeper emotional or behavioural disorder." This is the opposite of Statement II, which claims coaching always helps even when a behavioural disorder is the cause, so Statement II is incorrect.

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100 questions with the answer key and explanations.

1. Question 1

   “When nature prompted and no law denied / Promiscuous use of concubine and bride; / Then Israel’s monarch after Heaven’s own heart, / His vigorous warmth did variously impart / To wives and slaves.” From which poem are these lines taken?

   1. AAbsalom and Achitophel: A Poem
   2. BMacFlecknoe
   3. CA Song for St. Cecilia’s Day
   4. DAlexander’s Feast

   Answer: (A) Absalom and Achitophel: A Poem

   Explanation

   The allusion is to Dryden’s satiric biblical allegory Absalom and Achitophel. Its opening invokes David, the ‘monarch after Heaven’s own heart’, before turning that biblical material toward Restoration politics.

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2. Question 2

   Which of the following poems is written by Oliver Goldsmith?

   1. AA Deserted Village
   2. BA Deserted Villa
   3. CThe Deserted Village
   4. DA Deserted City

   Answer: (C) The Deserted Village

   Explanation

   Goldsmith wrote The Deserted Village in 1770. The poem laments the social and economic change that empties the idealised village of Auburn.

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3. Question 3

   Tribute to Papa is a book of poems written by

   1. AKamala Das
   2. BMamta Kalia
   3. CSuniti Namjoshi
   4. DMeena Alexander

   Answer: (B) Mamta Kalia

   Explanation

   Tribute to Papa is Mamta Kalia’s poetry collection. Kalia is an Indian poet and fiction writer whose work often treats family life, gender, and urban middle-class experience with irony.

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4. Question 4

   Which of the following poems is not written by Sylvia Plath?

   1. ALady Lazarus
   2. BAriel
   3. CDaddy
   4. DTo Ariel

   Answer: (D) To Ariel

   Explanation

   ‘Lady Lazarus’, ‘Ariel’, and ‘Daddy’ are central Plath poems. ‘To Ariel’ is not a Plath poem, so it is the outlier.

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5. Question 5

   Robert Burns was born in

   1. AScotland
   2. BEngland
   3. CIreland
   4. DAmerica

   Answer: (A) Scotland

   Explanation

   Robert Burns was born in Alloway, Ayrshire, Scotland. His Scots-language and English verse makes him a defining Scottish poet.

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6. Question 6

   Who among the following characters personifies necessity in P. B. Shelley’s Prometheus Unbound?

   1. APrometheus
   2. BDemogorgon
   3. CJove
   4. DJeus

   Answer: (B) Demogorgon

   Explanation

   Demogorgon is the obscure cosmic power associated with Necessity in Shelley’s drama. He overthrows Jupiter, whereas Prometheus is the suffering rebel and Jove is the tyrannical ruler.

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7. Question 7

   Who, after watching A Midsummer Night’s Dream, observed that “it is the most insipid, ridiculous play that I ever saw in my life”?

   1. AJohn Evelyn
   2. BSamuel Pepys
   3. CJohn Dryden
   4. DRobert Greene

   Answer: (B) Samuel Pepys

   Explanation

   The remark appears in Samuel Pepys’s diary. Pepys’s diary records his theatre-going as well as Restoration public and private life.

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8. Question 8

   Name the playwright who wrote Epicene, or the Silent Woman.

   1. AWilliam Congreve
   2. BThomas Kyd
   3. CBen Jonson
   4. DThomas Farquhar

   Answer: (C) Ben Jonson

   Explanation

   Ben Jonson wrote Epicene, or The Silent Woman. The comedy belongs to Jonson’s Jacobean dramatic output and centres on Morose’s obsession with silence.

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9. Question 9

   Abhijnanasakuntalam makes use of the following four languages

   1. ASanskrit, Shauraseni, Tamil and Maharashtri
   2. BSanskrit, Shauraseni, Pali and Oriya
   3. CSanskrit, Brajabuli, Maharashtri and Magdhi
   4. DSanskrit, Shauraseni, Maharashtri and Magdhi

   Answer: (D) Sanskrit, Shauraseni, Maharashtri and Magdhi

   Explanation

   Kalidasa’s play uses Sanskrit alongside the Prakrits Shauraseni, Maharashtri, and Magadhi. Tamil, Pali, Oriya, and Brajabuli do not make up its four-language dramatic scheme.

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10. Question 10

    Choose the correct combination of playwrights who contributed to “Kitchen Sink Drama”.

    1. AJohn Osborne, Arnold Wesker, Shelagh Delaney and John Arden
    2. BJohn Osborne, Arnold Wesker, Harold Pinter and Shelagh Delaney
    3. CJohn Osborne, Arnold Wesker, Antonin Artaud and John Arden
    4. DJohn Osborne, Harold Pinter, Shelagh Delaney and John Arden

    Answer: (A) John Osborne, Arnold Wesker, Shelagh Delaney and John Arden

    Explanation

    Kitchen-sink drama is the British social realism associated with Osborne, Wesker, Delaney, and Arden. Artaud’s Theatre of Cruelty is a distinct French avant-garde tradition, and Pinter is not a defining kitchen-sink dramatist.

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11. Question 11

    Choose the correct combination of plays which made significant use of expressionistic techniques.

    1. AThe Hairy Ape, Machinal, All My Sons, Waiting for Lefty
    2. BThe Hairy Ape, The Crucible, Rapid Transit, The Adding Machine
    3. CThe Hairy Ape, Rapid Transit, All My Sons, The Adding Machine
    4. DThe Hairy Ape, The Emperor Jones, Rapid Transit, The Adding Machine

    Answer: (D) The Hairy Ape, The Emperor Jones, Rapid Transit, The Adding Machine

    Explanation

    O’Neill’s The Hairy Ape and The Emperor Jones, along with Rapid Transit and Rice’s The Adding Machine, use expressionist distortion and stylisation. All My Sons and The Crucible are not the relevant expressionist selections.

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12. Question 12

    Apart from Bertolt Brecht, others who influenced Epic theatre are

    1. AErwin Piscator and Antonin Artaud
    2. BMartin Esslin and Max Reinhardt
    3. CErwin Piscator and Max Reinhardt
    4. DConstantin Stanislavski and Max Reinhardt

    Answer: (C) Erwin Piscator and Max Reinhardt

    Explanation

    Erwin Piscator’s political theatre and Max Reinhardt’s theatrical practice were important influences on Epic theatre. Artaud’s Theatre of Cruelty and Stanislavski’s psychological realism follow different dramatic principles.

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13. Question 13

    The theological treatise Ecclesiastical Polity was written by

    1. ARichard Hakluyt
    2. BFrancis Bacon
    3. CRaphael Holinshed
    4. DRichard Hooker

    Answer: (D) Richard Hooker

    Explanation

    Richard Hooker wrote Of the Laws of Ecclesiastical Polity, a major defence of the Church of England’s order and authority. Hakluyt compiled travel writings, Holinshed compiled chronicles, and Bacon wrote philosophical prose.

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14. Question 14

    Who wrote The Compleat Angler, or The Contemplative Man’s Recreation?

    1. AIsaac Walton
    2. BJeremy Taylor
    3. CRichard Baxter
    4. DThomas Hobbes

    Answer: (A) Isaac Walton

    Explanation

    The Compleat Angler is Izaak Walton’s celebrated prose work on angling and contemplation. The printed option uses ‘Isaac’, but it identifies Walton rather than any of the other writers.

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15. Question 15

    What did Matthew Arnold imply by “Hebraism” in Culture and Anarchy?

    1. AMoral education
    2. BIntellectual autonomy
    3. CRational outlook
    4. DPragmatic attitude

    Answer: (A) Moral education

    Explanation

    Arnold contrasts Hebraism’s moral earnestness and obedience to conscience with Hellenism’s impulse toward clear, free intellectual activity. ‘Moral education’ is therefore the closest option.

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16. Question 16

    The journal Scrutiny was founded in 1932 by

    1. AI. A. Richards
    2. BF. R. Leavis
    3. CCleanth Brooks
    4. DJohn Crowe Ransom

    Answer: (B) F. R. Leavis

    Explanation

    F. R. Leavis founded and edited Scrutiny, the influential journal of Cambridge criticism. Richards was an important contemporary critic, while Brooks and Ransom are associated with American New Criticism.

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17. Question 17

    Samuel Pepys’ claim to fame rests on his

    1. ABiography
    2. BAutobiography
    3. CDiary
    4. DSpeculative Fiction

    Answer: (C) Diary

    Explanation

    Pepys is renowned for the diary he kept from 1660 to 1669. Its day-by-day record makes it distinct from an autobiography, which is a retrospective life narrative.

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18. Question 18

    Dr Primrose is a character in

    1. ANicholas Nickleby
    2. BAdam Bede
    3. CThe Vicar of Wakefield
    4. DJoseph Andrews

    Answer: (C) The Vicar of Wakefield

    Explanation

    Dr Charles Primrose is the clergyman and narrator of Oliver Goldsmith’s The Vicar of Wakefield. The other titles belong to Dickens, Eliot, and Fielding respectively.

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19. Question 19

    “So the baby was carried in a small deal box ... where all unbaptized infants, notorious drunkard, suicides and others of the conjecturally damned are laid.” From which novel is this excerpt taken?

    1. AWuthering Heights by Emily Brontë
    2. BTess by Thomas Hardy
    3. CGreat Expectation by Charles Dickens
    4. DMill on the Floss by George Eliot

    Answer: (B) Tess by Thomas Hardy

    Explanation

    The scene is from Hardy’s Tess of the d’Urbervilles, where Tess’s infant Sorrow is denied normal consecrated burial. The wording exposes the social cruelty directed at the child and Tess.

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20. Question 20

    Which of the following novels is written by Patrick White?

    1. ACry, the Beloved Country
    2. BThe Vivisector
    3. CThe Handmaid’s Tale
    4. DThe Stone Angel

    Answer: (B) The Vivisector

    Explanation

    Patrick White wrote The Vivisector. Cry, the Beloved Country is by Alan Paton, The Handmaid’s Tale by Margaret Atwood, and The Stone Angel by Margaret Laurence.

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21. Question 21

    Which among the following is NOT written by Kamala Markandaya?

    1. ASome Inner Fury
    2. BThe Nowhere Man
    3. CA Time to be Happy
    4. DThe Golden Honeycomb

    Answer: (C) A Time to be Happy

    Explanation

    A Time to be Happy is by R. K. Narayan. Markandaya wrote Some Inner Fury, The Nowhere Man, and The Golden Honeycomb.

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22. Question 22

    Who were revaluing “the masses” as sources and subjects of literature?

    1. ARichard Hoggart and Raymond Williams
    2. BPenny Summerfield and Gillian Rose
    3. CRachel Alsop and Catherine Belsey
    4. DJon Cook and Marilyn Deegan

    Answer: (A) Richard Hoggart and Raymond Williams

    Explanation

    Richard Hoggart and Raymond Williams helped establish cultural studies by treating working-class and popular culture as serious objects of study. Their approach rejects the restriction of literary value to elite culture alone.

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23. Question 23

    Who among the following theorists has written on narrative empathy?

    1. AMichael Ryan
    2. BSuzanne Keane
    3. CToni Morrison
    4. DSara Ahmed

    Answer: (B) Suzanne Keane

    Explanation

    Suzanne Keen’s work on narrative empathy studies how fiction may invite readers to feel with characters. The option’s surname is printed as ‘Keane’, but it clearly denotes Keen.

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24. Question 24

    The science that systematically studies the function of signs is known as

    1. ASemantics
    2. BScriptoria
    3. CSismograhpy
    4. DSemiology

    Answer: (D) Semiology

    Explanation

    Semiology, or semiotics, studies signs and the ways they signify within systems. Semantics concerns meaning more narrowly, while the other terms do not name this discipline.

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25. Question 25

    Who first framed a theory of general hermeneutics?

    1. AWilhelm Dilthey
    2. BFerdinand de Saussure
    3. CFriedrich Schleiermacher
    4. DE. D. Hirsch

    Answer: (C) Friedrich Schleiermacher

    Explanation

    Friedrich Schleiermacher formulated general hermeneutics as a theory of interpretation applicable beyond sacred texts. Dilthey later developed hermeneutics for the human sciences, and Hirsch is a twentieth-century theorist of interpretation.

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26. Question 26

    Roland Barthes’ Image, Music, Text was published in

    1. A1968
    2. B1977
    3. C1979
    4. D1969

    Answer: (B) 1977

    Explanation

    Image, Music, Text, Stephen Heath’s English collection of Barthes essays, was published in 1977.

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27. Question 27

    Who distinguished the “constatives” from the “performatives”?

    1. AJohn Austin
    2. BJudith Butler
    3. CStanley Fish
    4. DMary Louise Pratt

    Answer: (A) John Austin

    Explanation

    J. L. Austin distinguished constative utterances, which describe or state, from performatives, which perform an act in being spoken.

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28. Question 28

    Who coined the phrase “soft capitalism”?

    1. ALouis Althusser
    2. BSlavoj Zizek
    3. CNigel Thrift
    4. DTerry Eagleton

    Answer: (C) Nigel Thrift

    Explanation

    Nigel Thrift used ‘soft capitalism’ for forms of capitalism centred on knowledge, culture, affect, and flexible work rather than only industrial production.

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29. Question 29

    To whom is the term “thick description” attributed?

    1. AJohn Storey
    2. BClifford Geertz
    3. CDeleuze and Guattari
    4. DJames Clifford

    Answer: (B) Clifford Geertz

    Explanation

    Clifford Geertz made ‘thick description’ central to interpretive anthropology and cultural analysis. Gilbert Ryle introduced the phrase, but Geertz is the relevant theorist among these options and the one conventionally associated with its scholarly use.

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30. Question 30

    The subject matter of Cultural Studies as it emerged as a “proto-discipline” in the 1960s was predominantly exploration of

    1. AHigh Culture
    2. BPopular Culture
    3. CSubaltern History
    4. DContemporary Politics

    Answer: (B) Popular Culture

    Explanation

    Early cultural studies treated popular culture, everyday life, media, and working-class practices as serious subjects of inquiry rather than limiting culture to elite art.

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31. Question 31

    What does CCCS stand for in Cultural Studies?

    1. AConsortium of Cooperative Culture and Society
    2. BConference on Contemporary Culture and Society
    3. CCentre for Contemporary Cultural Studies
    4. DConclave for Collective Consciousness and Socialisation

    Answer: (C) Centre for Contemporary Cultural Studies

    Explanation

    CCCS stands for the Centre for Contemporary Cultural Studies, established at the University of Birmingham and closely associated with British cultural studies.

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32. Question 32

    According to Stuart Hall, the concept of ______ played a seminal role in Cultural Studies.

    1. AInterpellation
    2. BDispositive
    3. CHegemony
    4. DSociety

    Answer: (C) Hegemony

    Explanation

    Hall’s cultural studies repeatedly uses Gramsci’s concept of hegemony to explain how power wins consent through culture and institutions.

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33. Question 33

    Political Shakespeare: Essays in Cultural Materialism was jointly edited by

    1. AGilles Deleuze and Felix Guattari
    2. BAlan Sinfield and Jonathan Dollimore
    3. CBill Ashcroft and Helen Tiffin
    4. DTheodor Adorno and Max Horkheimer

    Answer: (B) Alan Sinfield and Jonathan Dollimore

    Explanation

    Alan Sinfield and Jonathan Dollimore jointly edited Political Shakespeare, a foundational cultural-materialist collection.

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34. Question 34

    Identify the work NOT authored by Raymond Williams.

    1. AThe Country and the City
    2. BCulture and Society
    3. CModern Tragedy
    4. DThe Making of the English Working Class

    Answer: (D) The Making of the English Working Class

    Explanation

    E. P. Thompson wrote The Making of the English Working Class. The other three are Raymond Williams works central to cultural-materialist criticism.

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35. Question 35

    Second Language is

    1. AThe language second in importance in terms of use by a learner
    2. BThe language used by a second-generation learner
    3. CAny language other than the learner’s native language or mother tongue
    4. DThe language which is the learner’s native language but not the mother tongue

    Answer: (C) Any language other than the learner’s native language or mother tongue

    Explanation

    A second language is any language acquired in addition to a learner’s first or mother tongue. It is not defined by rank of importance or by generation.

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36. Question 36

    When a learner’s second-language learning system seems to freeze or get stuck at a deviant stage, the phenomenon is known as

    1. AFreezer
    2. BFossilization
    3. CLanguage Learning Blockade
    4. DLanguage Scaffolding

    Answer: (B) Fossilization

    Explanation

    Fossilization is the persistent stabilisation of non-target forms in an interlanguage despite further exposure or instruction.

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37. Question 37

    Integrative motivation refers to

    1. ALanguage learning for immediate goals
    2. BLanguage learning for practical goals
    3. CLanguage learning for personal growth and cultural enrichment
    4. DNone of these

    Answer: (C) Language learning for personal growth and cultural enrichment

    Explanation

    Integrative motivation involves a desire to participate in, identify with, or understand the target-language community and culture. Immediate practical goals describe instrumental motivation.

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38. Question 38

    In 1835, which language was replaced by English as the official language of the East India Company?

    1. ASanskrit
    2. BPersian
    3. CArabic
    4. DHindi

    Answer: (B) Persian

    Explanation

    Persian had long served as the Company’s official language. In 1835 English replaced it in administration under the new language policy.

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39. Question 39

    Choose the correct option.

    1. AThe “Magna Carta” of Indian Education refers to the Missionary Clause, 1698
    2. BIt refers to the Indian Education Commission, 1882
    3. CIt refers to Macaulay’s Minute, 1835
    4. DIt refers to Wood’s Education Despatch of 1854

    Answer: (D) It refers to Wood’s Education Despatch of 1854

    Explanation

    Wood’s Despatch of 1854 is called the Magna Carta of English education in India because it set out a comprehensive policy for education administration, grants, and universities.

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40. Question 40

    Which Shakespeare play was translated into Bengali and directed by Girish Chandra Ghosh?

    1. AThe Tempest
    2. BHamlet
    3. CMacbeth
    4. DKing Lear

    Answer: (C) Macbeth

    Explanation

    Girish Chandra Ghosh translated and staged Macbeth in Bengali. His work was central to nineteenth-century Bengali theatre’s engagement with Shakespeare.

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41. Question 41

    Which works of Browning are pure dramas?

    A. Strafford
    B. The Last Ride Together
    C. A Blot in the ’Scutcheon
    D. Pippa Passes
    E. Porphyria’s Lover

    1. AA and C
    2. BB and E
    3. CC and D
    4. DB and C

    Answer: (A) A and C

    Explanation

    Strafford and A Blot in the ’Scutcheon are Browning’s stage plays. ‘The Last Ride Together’ and ‘Porphyria’s Lover’ are poems, while Pippa Passes is a dramatic poem rather than a pure drama.

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42. Question 42

    Who among the following poets have lived in Australia?

    A. Judith Wright
    B. Yusef Komunyakaa
    C. Kath Walker
    D. Thomas Kinsella
    E. T. S. Eliot

    1. AA and B
    2. BA, B and C
    3. CA, B and D
    4. DA and E

    Answer: (B) A, B and C

    Explanation

    Judith Wright and Kath Walker, also known as Oodgeroo Noonuccal, are Australian poets. Yusef Komunyakaa is American but lived in Australia, so the wording ‘have lived’ includes him.

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43. Question 43

    In An Essay on Criticism, Pope

    A. analyses causes of faulty criticism and praises great critics
    B. analyses causes of faulty criticism and characterises the good critic
    C. analyses structure of a good essay and praises great critics
    D. analyses structure of a good essay and suggests conversion into good criticism
    E. analyses the merits of Wordsworth’s poetry and praises great critics

    1. AA and B
    2. BA, B and C
    3. CC, D and E
    4. DA and D

    Answer: (A) A and B

    Explanation

    Pope examines errors in criticism, defines qualities of the good critic, and honours exemplary critics. The poem predates Wordsworth and is not an essay on the structure of a good essay.

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44. Question 44

    Which are plays written by Harold Pinter?

    A. Family Voices
    B. A Moon for the Misbegotten
    C. The Room
    D. No Man’s Land
    E. Krapp’s Last Tape

    1. AA, B and E
    2. BB, C and D
    3. CA, C and D
    4. DC, D and E

    Answer: (C) A, C and D

    Explanation

    Pinter wrote Family Voices, The Room, and No Man’s Land. A Moon for the Misbegotten is by Eugene O’Neill and Krapp’s Last Tape is by Samuel Beckett.

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45. Question 45

    Which have NOT been written by Mahesh Dattani?

    A. Dance Like a Man
    B. Fire and the Rain
    C. On a Muggy Night in Mumbai
    D. A Touch of Brightness
    E. Bravely Fought the Queen

    1. AA and C
    2. BB and D
    3. CC and E
    4. DB and E

    Answer: (B) B and D

    Explanation

    Dattani wrote Dance Like a Man, On a Muggy Night in Mumbai, and Bravely Fought the Queen. Fire and the Rain is by Girish Karnad, while A Touch of Brightness is not Dattani’s play.

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46. Question 46

    Which dramas fall within the Theatre of the Absurd?

    A. The Birthday Party
    B. Endgame
    C. Mrs Warren’s Profession
    D. Rhinoceros
    E. Riders to the Sea

    1. AA, B and E
    2. BB, C and D
    3. CA, B and D
    4. DC, D and E

    Answer: (C) A, B and D

    Explanation

    Pinter’s The Birthday Party, Beckett’s Endgame, and Ionesco’s Rhinoceros are major Absurdist dramas. Shaw’s and Synge’s plays belong to other dramatic traditions.

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47. Question 47

    Which playwrights have been correctly matched?

    A. William Wycherly – The Rivals
    B. Ben Jonson – Volpone, or the Fox
    C. William Congreve – The Country Wife
    D. Aphra Behn – The Dutch Lover
    E. Richard Sheridan – A School for Scandal

    1. AC, D and E
    2. BB, C and D
    3. CA, C and E
    4. DB, D and E

    Answer: (D) B, D and E

    Explanation

    Jonson wrote Volpone, Behn wrote The Dutch Lover, and Sheridan wrote The School for Scandal. The Rivals is Sheridan’s and The Country Wife is Wycherley’s, so A and C are false.

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48. Question 48

    Choose the plays written by Lord Byron.

    A. Sardanapalus
    B. Hellas
    C. Cain
    D. The Two Foscari: An Historical Tragedy
    E. The Cenci

    1. AA, B and C
    2. BB, C and E
    3. CA, B and D
    4. DA, C and D

    Answer: (D) A, C and D

    Explanation

    Byron wrote Sardanapalus, Cain, and The Two Foscari. Hellas and The Cenci are by Percy Bysshe Shelley.

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49. Question 49

    John Bunyan authored

    A. The Pilgrim’s Progress
    B. Grace Abounding
    C. Short View
    D. The Holy War
    E. Thoughts on Education

    1. AA, B and C
    2. BA, C and D
    3. CA, D and E
    4. DA, B and D

    Answer: (D) A, B and D

    Explanation

    Bunyan wrote The Pilgrim’s Progress, Grace Abounding, and The Holy War. Thoughts Concerning Education is by Locke, not Bunyan.

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50. Question 50

    Which works were authored by Thomas De Quincey?

    A. Confessions of an English Opium-Eater
    B. The French Revolution
    C. Hudibras
    D. Autobiography
    E. Suspiria de Profundis

    1. AA, B and C
    2. BA, C and D
    3. CA, D and E
    4. DA, B and D

    Answer: (C) A, D and E

    Explanation

    De Quincey wrote Confessions of an English Opium-Eater, Autobiography, and Suspiria de Profundis. Carlyle wrote The French Revolution and Butler wrote Hudibras.

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51. Question 51

    Which works were written by Thomas Carlyle?

    A. Of Heroes and Hero-Worship
    B. The French Revolution
    C. Of Human Bondage
    D. The Hour and the Man
    E. Hudibras

    1. AA and B
    2. BA and C
    3. CA and D
    4. DA and E

    Answer: (A) A and B

    Explanation

    Carlyle wrote On Heroes, Hero-Worship, and the Heroic in History and The French Revolution. Maugham wrote Of Human Bondage and Butler wrote Hudibras.

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52. Question 52

    Which books are written by Julia Kristeva?

    A. Desire in Language
    B. Illuminations
    C. Syntax and Semantics
    D. La révolution du langage poétique
    E. The Madwoman in the Attic

    1. AA and C
    2. BB and A
    3. CA and D
    4. DB and E

    Answer: (C) A and D

    Explanation

    Kristeva wrote Desire in Language and La révolution du langage poétique. Benjamin’s essays are collected as Illuminations, while Gilbert and Gubar wrote The Madwoman in the Attic.

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53. Question 53

    To which theories is New Historicism indebted?

    A. Marxism
    B. Formalism
    C. Reader-response Theory
    D. Existentialism
    E. Hermeneutics

    1. AA and C
    2. BB and A
    3. CA and E
    4. DB and C

    Answer: (A) A and C

    Explanation

    New Historicism reads literature through power, ideology, and historical circulation, drawing on Marxist concerns and the active role of interpretation. It is not principally an offshoot of existentialism or formalism.

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54. Question 54

    Which statements are true about cyberpunk?

    A. It is science fiction
    B. It uses postmodernist techniques and posthumanist themes
    C. Events usually take place within virtual reality
    D. It is fiction written using online platforms
    E. The first cyberpunk was written by Thomas Sterne

    1. AA, B and D
    2. BA, C and D
    3. CA, B and C
    4. DA, C and E

    Answer: (C) A, B and C

    Explanation

    Cyberpunk is science fiction shaped by postmodern form, technology, and posthuman themes, often using virtual or cyberspace settings. It is not defined by online publication and Sterne was not a cyberpunk writer.

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55. Question 55

    Identify correct pairs.

    A. Gabriel García Márquez – The Feast of the Goat
    B. Jorge Luis Borges – The Autumn of the Patriarch
    C. Salman Rushdie – The Enchantress of Florence
    D. E. L. Doctorow – Ragtime
    E. A. S. Byatt – Possession

    1. AA, B and C
    2. BA, B and E
    3. CB, C and D
    4. DC, D and E

    Answer: (D) C, D and E

    Explanation

    Rushdie wrote The Enchantress of Florence, Doctorow wrote Ragtime, and Byatt wrote Possession. Vargas Llosa wrote The Feast of the Goat and García Márquez wrote The Autumn of the Patriarch.

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56. Question 56

    Which books are written by Aravind Adiga?

    A. The Blue Bedspread
    B. Between the Assassinations
    C. The House of the Blue Mangoes
    D. Last Man in Tower
    E. The White Tiger

    1. AA, B and C
    2. BB, D and E
    3. CB, C and D
    4. DA, C and D

    Answer: (B) B, D and E

    Explanation

    Adiga wrote Between the Assassinations, Last Man in Tower, and The White Tiger. The other titles are by different Indian writers.

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57. Question 57

    Which are correct?

    A. J. M. Coetzee – South Africa
    B. Margaret Atwood – Canada
    C. Philip Roth – Australia
    D. Orhan Pamuk – Turkey
    E. Graham Swift – New Zealand

    1. AA, B and C
    2. BA, B and D
    3. CB, C and E
    4. DB, D and E

    Answer: (B) A, B and D

    Explanation

    Coetzee is South African, Atwood Canadian, and Pamuk Turkish. Roth was American and Graham Swift is English.

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58. Question 58

    Which statements are correct about R. K. Narayan?

    A. The Guide is open-ended
    B. Most characters are elite
    C. He wrote “The Martyr’s Corner”
    D. He received the Booker Prize for The Vendor of Sweets
    E. Malgudi is a real city

    1. AA, B and C
    2. BA and C
    3. CA, C and D
    4. DA, C and E

    Answer: (B) A and C

    Explanation

    The Guide leaves Raju’s final spiritual status open, and Narayan wrote ‘The Martyr’s Corner’. His characters are not mostly elite, Malgudi is fictional, and he did not win the Booker for The Vendor of Sweets.

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59. Question 59

    Identify correct pairs.

    A. J. C. Ransom – Criticism, Inc.
    B. William Empson – Seven Types of Ambiguity
    C. Cleanth Brooks and R. P. Warren – Understanding Poetry
    D. R. P. Blackmur – In Search of the New Criticism
    E. Allen Tate – The New Apologists for Poetry

    1. AA, B and C
    2. BA, B and D
    3. CB, C and E
    4. DB, D and E

    Answer: (A) A, B and C

    Explanation

    Ransom wrote ‘Criticism, Inc.’, Empson wrote Seven Types of Ambiguity, and Brooks and Warren wrote Understanding Poetry. The remaining attributions are incorrect.

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60. Question 60

    Thomas Rymer coined “poetic justice” to imply

    A. Rewards and punishments in proportion to virtue and vice
    B. Literary work governed by decorum and morality
    C. Random workings of actual life
    D. Metaphysical nature of poetic experience
    E. Justification of poetry in the Ideal Republic

    1. AA and B
    2. BB and C
    3. CC and D
    4. DD and E

    Answer: (A) A and B

    Explanation

    Rymer’s poetic justice requires fiction to distribute reward and punishment according to moral desert, preserving decorum and moral order rather than copying life’s randomness.

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61. Question 61

    Which are written by Roland Barthes?

    A. Allegories of Reading
    B. Mythologies
    C. The Pleasure of the Text
    D. Some Versions of Pastoral
    E. What Is an Author?

    1. AB and C
    2. BA and C
    3. CA, C and D
    4. DA, C and E

    Answer: (A) B and C

    Explanation

    Barthes wrote Mythologies and The Pleasure of the Text. De Man wrote Allegories of Reading, Empson wrote Some Versions of Pastoral, and Foucault wrote ‘What Is an Author?’.

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62. Question 62

    Which are correctly matched?

    A. Jonathan Culler – Culture and Society
    B. Raymond Williams – Literary Theory: A Very Short Introduction
    C. Terry Eagleton – Criticism and Ideology
    D. Walter Benjamin – Illuminations
    E. Stanley Fish – The Implied Reader

    1. AB, C and E
    2. BC and D
    3. CA, C and D
    4. DB, C and D

    Answer: (B) C and D

    Explanation

    Eagleton wrote Criticism and Ideology and Benjamin’s essays appear in Illuminations. Williams wrote Culture and Society, Culler wrote the short introduction, and Iser wrote The Implied Reader.

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63. Question 63

    Which are true about methods and methodologies in literary research?

    A. They are identical
    B. Methods concern how research is conducted
    C. Methodologies concern how research is conducted
    D. Methodologies concern perspectives brought to bear
    E. Methods concern those perspectives

    1. AA, D and E
    2. BB, C and E
    3. CA and C
    4. DB and D

    Answer: (D) B and D

    Explanation

    Methods are the practical procedures used to conduct research. Methodology is the theoretical rationale or perspective governing those procedures, so B and D are true.

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64. Question 64

    According to the English Subject Centre report, postgraduate English skills include

    A. Library searching
    B. Editorial skills
    C. Bibliographic skills
    D. Peer management
    E. IT skills

    1. AA, C and D
    2. BB, C, D and E
    3. CA, B and D
    4. DA, B, C and E

    Answer: (D) A, B, C and E

    Explanation

    The listed transferable postgraduate skills include library searching, editorial and bibliographic work, and IT competence. ‘Peer management’ is not part of that specified list.

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65. Question 65

    Which are possible ways of turning a topic into an argument?

    A. For or against an existing critical position
    B. Value of a new theoretical approach
    C. Historical or literary-historical argument
    D. Proving a theme is not at all related to texts
    E. Arguing only about a well-known author or work

    1. AA, B and C
    2. BB, C, D and E
    3. CA, C and D
    4. DA, B, C and D

    Answer: (A) A, B and C

    Explanation

    A research argument can test an existing position, show the value of a new approach, or make a historical claim. D is an implausible absolute and E names a topic, not an argument.

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66. Question 66

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Sri Aurobindo	I. Other Poems
    B. Kamala Das	II. Calcutta: A Long Poem
    C. P. Lal	III. A Sheaf Gleaned in French
    D. Toru Dutt	IV. Savitri

    1. AA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    2. BA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    3. CA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    4. DA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

    Answer: (A) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Explanation

    Sri Aurobindo wrote Savitri, Kamala Das wrote Other Poems, P. Lal wrote Calcutta: A Long Poem, and Toru Dutt wrote A Sheaf Gleaned in French.

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67. Question 67

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Walt Whitman	I. Howl
    B. A. D. Hope	II. A Far Cry from Africa
    C. Derek Walcott	III. Beat! Beat! Drums!
    D. Allen Ginsberg	IV. Australia

    1. AA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    2. BA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    4. DA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

    Answer: (C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Explanation

    Whitman wrote ‘Beat! Beat! Drums!’, Hope wrote ‘Australia’, Walcott wrote ‘A Far Cry from Africa’, and Ginsberg wrote ‘Howl’.

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68. Question 68

    Match List-I with List-II.

    Quotation	Play
    A. “Come what come may...”	I. Othello
    B. “When sorrows come...”	II. King Lear
    C. “I am a man more sinned against than sinning.”	III. Macbeth
    D. “I will wear my heart upon my sleeve...”	IV. Hamlet

    1. AA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    4. DA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

    Answer: (C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Explanation

    ‘Come what come may’ is from Macbeth, ‘When sorrows come’ from Hamlet, Lear says he is ‘more sinned against’, and Iago will wear his heart on his sleeve in Othello.

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69. Question 69

    Match List-I with List-II.

    Quotation	Play
    A. “You can’t eat the orange...”	I. Man and Superman
    B. “Liberty means responsibility...”	II. A Doll’s House
    C. “Nobody thinks, nobody cares...”	III. Death of a Salesman
    D. “I have been your doll-wife...”	IV. Look Back in Anger

    1. AA-I, B-III, C-II, D-I
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    3. CA-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
    4. DA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    Answer: (D) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    Explanation

    ‘You can’t eat the orange’ is from Death of a Salesman, ‘Liberty means responsibility’ from Shaw’s Man and Superman, the apathy line from Look Back in Anger, and Nora’s doll-wife speech from A Doll’s House.

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70. Question 70

    Match List-I with List-II.

    Term	Writer
    A. Anthropology	I. Edward Soja
    B. Postmodern Geography	II. Martin Heidegger
    C. Diaspora Space	III. Claude Lévi-Strauss
    D. Dasein	IV. Avtar Brah

    1. AA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    2. BA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    3. CA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    4. DA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

    Answer: (C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    Explanation

    Lévi-Strauss is associated with anthropology, Soja with postmodern geography, Brah with diaspora space, and Heidegger with Dasein.

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71. Question 71

    Match List-I with List-II.

    Work	Author
    A. The Poetics of Prose	I. Wolfgang Iser
    B. Structuralist Poetics	II. Tzvetan Todorov
    C. The Implied Reader	III. Stanley Fish
    D. Is There a Text in This Class?	IV. Jonathan Culler

    1. AA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    4. DA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

    Answer: (B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

    Explanation

    Todorov wrote The Poetics of Prose, Culler Structuralist Poetics, Iser The Implied Reader, and Fish Is There a Text in This Class?.

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72. Question 72

    Match List-I with List-II.

    Writer	Work
    A. Plato	I. Rhetoric
    B. Aristotle	II. Symposium
    C. P. B. Shelley	III. Apology for Poetry
    D. Philip Sidney	IV. Defence of Poetry

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
    3. CA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    4. DA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Answer: (D) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Explanation

    Plato wrote Symposium, Aristotle wrote Rhetoric, Shelley wrote A Defence of Poetry, and Sidney wrote An Apology for Poetry.

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73. Question 73

    Match List-I with List-II.

    Writer	Work
    A. Bertrand Russell	I. The Verbal Icon
    B. T. S. Eliot	II. The Well Wrought Urn
    C. W. K. Wimsatt	III. History of Western Philosophy
    D. Cleanth Brooks	IV. The Sacred Wood

    1. AA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    2. BA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    3. CA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    4. DA-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

    Answer: (A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    Russell wrote History of Western Philosophy, Eliot The Sacred Wood, Wimsatt The Verbal Icon, and Brooks The Well Wrought Urn.

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74. Question 74

    Match List-I with List-II.

    Term	Writer
    A. Negative Capability	I. Matthew Arnold
    B. Sweetness and Light	II. S. T. Coleridge
    C. Esemplastic	III. T. S. Eliot
    D. Dissociation of Sensibility	IV. John Keats

    1. AA-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    2. BA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    3. CA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (D) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Explanation

    Keats coined negative capability, Arnold wrote of sweetness and light, Coleridge used esemplastic, and Eliot described dissociation of sensibility.

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75. Question 75

    Match List-I with List-II.

    Character	Novel
    A. Munira	I. Things Fall Apart
    B. Nnu Ego	II. Petals of Blood
    C. Ikemefuna	III. July’s People
    D. Maureen	IV. The Joys of Motherhood

    1. AA-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    2. BA-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
    3. CA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    4. DA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Answer: (A) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

    Explanation

    Munira is in Ngũgĩ wa Thiong’o’s Petals of Blood, Nnu Ego in Emecheta’s The Joys of Motherhood, Ikemefuna in Achebe’s Things Fall Apart, and Maureen in Gordimer’s July’s People.

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76. Question 76

    Choose the correct chronological sequence.

    A. Lycidas
    B. Hero and Leander
    C. Masque of Comus
    D. Paradise Lost
    E. The Waste Land

    1. AA, B, D, E, C
    2. BB, C, A, D, E
    3. CB, A, E, C, D
    4. DB, E, D, C, A

    Answer: (B) B, C, A, D, E

    Explanation

    Marlowe’s Hero and Leander predates Milton’s Comus and Lycidas, followed by Paradise Lost and Eliot’s The Waste Land.

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77. Question 77

    Arrange the poets by year of birth.

    A. Rudyard Kipling
    B. Robert Browning
    C. John Masefield
    D. A. E. Housman
    E. John Donne

    1. AE, A, B, D, C
    2. BE, B, A, C, D
    3. CE, B, A, D, C
    4. DA, D, B, C, E

    Accepted answers: (A) E, A, B, D, C, (B) E, B, A, C, D, (C) E, B, A, D, C, (D) A, D, B, C, E

    Explanation

    NTA dropped this item because its valid chronological order is E–B–D–A–C, which does not appear among the displayed options. Every displayed selection is therefore accepted.

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78. Question 78

    Arrange the works chronologically.

    A. Rajmohan’s Wife
    B. A Bend in the Ganges
    C. Kanthapura
    D. Untouchable
    E. Distant Drum

    1. AA, B, C, D, E
    2. BA, C, D, E, B
    3. CA, D, C, B, E
    4. DA, E, D, C, B

    Answer: (C) A, D, C, B, E

    Explanation

    Bankim’s Rajmohan’s Wife comes first, then Anand’s Untouchable, Rao’s Kanthapura, Desai’s A Bend in the Ganges, and Kamala Markandaya’s The Nowhere Man is not listed. The sequence required by the options is A–D–C–B–E.

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79. Question 79

    Find the chronological order of Dickens’s novels.

    A. Oliver Twist
    B. Dombey and Son
    C. Pickwick Papers
    D. Bleak House
    E. David Copperfield

    1. AA, D, C, B, E
    2. BD, E, B, C, A
    3. CB, D, C, A, E
    4. DC, A, B, D, E

    Accepted answers: (A) A, D, C, B, E, (B) D, E, B, C, A, (C) B, D, C, A, E, (D) C, A, B, D, E

    Explanation

    NTA dropped this item. The actual order is C–A–B–E–D, which none of the options supplies, so every displayed selection is accepted.

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80. Question 80

    Arrange the plays by staging or publication.

    A. A Woman Killed with Kindness
    B. John Bull’s Other Island
    C. The Double Dealer
    D. The Shoemaker’s Holiday
    E. The Conscious Lovers

    1. AB, D, C, A, E
    2. BD, A, C, E, B
    3. CC, D, A, B, E
    4. DE, B, D, C, A

    Answer: (B) D, A, C, E, B

    Explanation

    Dekker’s The Shoemaker’s Holiday precedes Heywood’s A Woman Killed with Kindness, Congreve’s The Double Dealer, Steele’s The Conscious Lovers, and Shaw’s John Bull’s Other Island.

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81. Question 81

    Arrange the drama studies chronologically.

    A. The Theatre of Revolt
    B. The Theatre of the Absurd
    C. The Playwright as Thinker
    D. Modern American Drama
    E. Modern Drama in Theory and Practice

    1. AA, D, C, D, E
    2. BE, C, D, A, B
    3. CB, D, A, E, C
    4. DC, B, A, E, D

    Answer: (D) C, B, A, E, D

    Explanation

    Bentley’s The Playwright as Thinker precedes Esslin’s The Theatre of the Absurd, Brustein’s The Theatre of Revolt, Styan’s Modern Drama in Theory and Practice, and Bigsby’s Modern American Drama.

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82. Question 82

    Choose publication chronology.

    A. Madness and Civilization
    B. The Archaeology of Knowledge
    C. The Language of the Self
    D. The Birth of the Clinic
    E. Culture and Anarchy

    1. AE, B, D, C, A
    2. BE, A, D, B, C
    3. CE, B, D, A, C
    4. DC, A, B, D, E

    Answer: (B) E, A, D, B, C

    Explanation

    Culture and Anarchy predates Foucault’s Madness and Civilization, The Birth of the Clinic, and The Archaeology of Knowledge. Lacan’s The Language of the Self follows in its cited English edition, so E–A–D–B–C is the valid sequence.

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83. Question 83

    Choose chronology of theories.

    A. Structuralism
    B. Psychoanalysis
    C. Ecocriticism
    D. Orientalism
    E. New Criticism

    1. AE, B, D, C, A
    2. BE, A, C, B, D
    3. CB, E, D, A, C
    4. DB, E, A, D, C

    Answer: (D) B, E, A, D, C

    Explanation

    Psychoanalysis begins with Freud, New Criticism develops in the early twentieth century, structuralism follows, Said’s Orientalism comes in 1978, and ecocriticism is later.

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84. Question 84

    Arrange works chronologically.

    A. Culture and Anarchy
    B. The Anatomy of Melancholy
    C. Leviathan
    D. Studies in the History of the Renaissance
    E. P. B. Shelley’s Defence of Poetry

    1. AB, C, E, A, D
    2. BA, B, C, D, E
    3. CC, D, E, A, B
    4. DD, C, B, A, E

    Answer: (A) B, C, E, A, D

    Explanation

    Burton’s Anatomy precedes Hobbes’s Leviathan, Shelley’s posthumously published Defence, Arnold’s Culture and Anarchy, and Pater’s Studies.

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85. Question 85

    Arrange works chronologically.

    A. Structuralist Poetics
    B. Course in General Linguistics
    C. The Pursuit of Signs
    D. The Pleasure of the Text
    E. The Implied Reader

    1. AA, C, D, E, B
    2. BB, D, E, A, C
    3. CC, D, A, B, E
    4. DD, E, A, C, B

    Answer: (B) B, D, E, A, C

    Explanation

    Saussure’s Course comes first, then Barthes’s Pleasure, Iser’s The Implied Reader, Culler’s Structuralist Poetics, and Culler’s The Pursuit of Signs.

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86. Question 86

    Statement I: The Theatre of Revolt was written by Robert Brustein.
    Statement II: The Theatre of Revolt is written in the context of the French Revolution.

    1. ABoth statements are true
    2. BBoth statements are false
    3. CI is true and II is false
    4. DI is false and II is true

    Answer: (C) I is true and II is false

    Explanation

    Brustein wrote The Theatre of Revolt. The study concerns modern drama and revolution in theatre, not the historical context of the French Revolution.

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87. Question 87

    Statement I: Stanislavski collaborated with Anton Chekhov to stage dramas.
    Statement II: My Life in Art was written by Stanislavski.

    1. ABoth statements are false
    2. BBoth statements are true
    3. CI is true and II is false
    4. DI is false and II is true

    Answer: (B) Both statements are true

    Explanation

    Stanislavski staged Chekhov at the Moscow Art Theatre and wrote the theatrical autobiography My Life in Art. Both statements are true.

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88. Question 88

    Statement I: Human bodies, like those of other living organisms, are only “sexed” from a particular narrow perspective.
    Statement II: Most of the reproductions that we undertake in our lifetimes has nothing to do with “sex”.

    1. ABoth statements are true
    2. BBoth statements are false
    3. CI is true but II is false
    4. DI is false but II is true

    Answer: (A) Both statements are true

    Explanation

    The statements advance a theoretical distinction between biological reproduction and the narrow cultural category of sex. They are presented as mutually compatible, so both are true.

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89. Question 89

    Assertion (A): Co-operative learning activities require students to work together to complete a task or solve a problem.
    Reason (R): They identify a weak learner and separate that learner for special care.

    1. ABoth are correct and R explains A
    2. BBoth are correct but R does not explain A
    3. CA is correct but R is not correct
    4. DA is not correct but R is correct

    Answer: (C) A is correct but R is not correct

    Explanation

    Co-operative learning is collaborative work toward a shared task. Separating a learner is the opposite of its group-learning principle, so the assertion alone is true.

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90. Question 90

    Assertion (A): In the same second-language classroom, some students progress rapidly while others struggle.
    Reason (R): Some learners never achieve native-like command of a second language.

    1. ABoth are correct and R explains A
    2. BBoth are correct but R does not explain A
    3. CA is correct but R is not correct
    4. DA is not correct but R is correct

    Answer: (B) Both are correct but R does not explain A

    Explanation

    Learners differ in rate and outcome, and some do not reach native-like proficiency. The latter is one possible outcome, not a full causal explanation of variation within a classroom.

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91. Question 91

    Which of the following statements is true?

    Philip Larkin’s ‘Talking in Bed’ contrasts the expectation that intimate conversation should be easy with growing silence, emotional distance, and difficulty finding words that are both truthful and kind.

    1. AThe poet says that talking in bed is very easy
    2. BThe poet says that talking in bed is not very easy
    3. CThe poet says that talking in bed should be easy but it is not
    4. DThe poet says that talking in bed can never be easy

    Answer: (C) The poet says that talking in bed should be easy but it is not

    Explanation

    Larkin’s poem begins from the expectation that intimate conversation should be easy, then records the failure of that expectation through silence and distance.

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92. Question 92

    In Philip Larkin’s ‘Talking in Bed’, two people lying together are described as

    Philip Larkin’s ‘Talking in Bed’ contrasts the expectation that intimate conversation should be easy with growing silence, emotional distance, and difficulty finding words that are both truthful and kind.

    1. AAn emblem of two people being honest
    2. BTwo hypocrites
    3. CTwo innocent fellows
    4. DNone of these

    Answer: (A) An emblem of two people being honest

    Explanation

    Larkin calls lying together ‘an emblem of two people being honest’. The phrase expresses the ideal of intimacy even as the poem shows how difficult honest and kind speech becomes.

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93. Question 93

    The poet says that while lying in bed he and his companion pass time

    Philip Larkin’s ‘Talking in Bed’ contrasts the expectation that intimate conversation should be easy with growing silence, emotional distance, and difficulty finding words that are both truthful and kind.

    1. ABy talking between themselves
    2. BBy observing the trees outside the window
    3. CSilently
    4. DBy playing cards

    Answer: (C) Silently

    Explanation

    The poem’s central experience is silence and the failure to speak. The couple do not resolve their distance through conversation.

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94. Question 94

    The poet and his companion are

    Philip Larkin’s ‘Talking in Bed’ contrasts the expectation that intimate conversation should be easy with growing silence, emotional distance, and difficulty finding words that are both truthful and kind.

    1. AIn a hotel in the middle of a town
    2. BIn a room of a hotel on the margin of the town
    3. CIn a hotel corridor far away from towns
    4. DIn a place away from the towns

    Answer: (D) In a place away from the towns

    Explanation

    The poem places the couple in a setting ‘far from the towns’, intensifying their isolation rather than locating them in a hotel.

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95. Question 95

    While lying in bed with one’s companion it is difficult to find words which are

    Philip Larkin’s ‘Talking in Bed’ contrasts the expectation that intimate conversation should be easy with growing silence, emotional distance, and difficulty finding words that are both truthful and kind.

    1. AAt once honest and caring
    2. BAt once true and unkind
    3. CAt once pure and impure
    4. DAt once honest and touching

    Answer: (A) At once honest and caring

    Explanation

    The poem closes on the difficulty of finding words that are both true and kind. ‘Honest and caring’ best preserves that paired requirement.

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96. Question 96

    Caudwell’s statement that poetry “continually distorts and denies the structure of reality to exalt the structure of the self” implies

    Christopher Caudwell contrasts poetry’s foregrounding of language and affect with the novel’s construction of a ‘mock reality’ of scenes, actions, and people.

    1. AThe pragmatic function of poetry reflecting social reality
    2. BPoetry drawing attention to itself as an aesthetic object or artefact
    3. CThe “egotistical sublime”
    4. DThe mimetic function of poetry

    Answer: (B) Poetry drawing attention to itself as an aesthetic object or artefact

    Explanation

    Caudwell contrasts poetry’s self-conscious shaping of language and affect with the novel’s constructed world. The claim points to poetry’s foregrounding as an artefact rather than simple mimesis.

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97. Question 97

    What does “assonance” mean?

    Christopher Caudwell contrasts poetry’s foregrounding of language and affect with the novel’s construction of a ‘mock reality’ of scenes, actions, and people.

    1. ARepetition of identical or similar consonants
    2. BRepetition of identical or similar vowels
    3. CRepetition of identical or similar phrases
    4. DRepetition of identical or similar clauses

    Answer: (B) Repetition of identical or similar vowels

    Explanation

    Assonance is the repetition of vowel sounds in nearby words. Repeated consonant sounds are called consonance or alliteration depending on position.

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98. Question 98

    What does Caudwell imply when he says the novel substitutes a consistent “mock reality” between the reader and external reality?

    Christopher Caudwell contrasts poetry’s foregrounding of language and affect with the novel’s construction of a ‘mock reality’ of scenes, actions, and people.

    1. AFiction is symbolized by words, but emotional responses attach to the moving current of its mock reality
    2. BFictional reality is not dependent on words, and affective states are not triggered by words
    3. CMock reality obtrusively exposes the writer’s strategy
    4. DThe novel is metonymic while poetry is metaphoric

    Answer: (A) Fiction is symbolized by words, but emotional responses attach to the moving current of its mock reality

    Explanation

    Caudwell says the novel’s words symbolize a coherent mock world of scenes, actions, and people. Emotional associations attach to that moving fictional world, rather than to the words as words.

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99. Question 99

    What is “mock reality” in the passage?

    Christopher Caudwell contrasts poetry’s foregrounding of language and affect with the novel’s construction of a ‘mock reality’ of scenes, actions, and people.

    1. AReality contrived by novelists through strategic use of words
    2. BReality evoked through figurative devices
    3. CQuasi-reality effected through poetic devices
    4. DReality approximately corresponding to external reality

    Answer: (A) Reality contrived by novelists through strategic use of words

    Explanation

    For Caudwell, mock reality is the coherent fictional world a novelist constructs through words, scenes, actions, and characters.

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100. Question 100

     If rhythm, “preciousness”, and style are alien to the novel, in which genre are they distinctive features?

     Christopher Caudwell contrasts poetry’s foregrounding of language and affect with the novel’s construction of a ‘mock reality’ of scenes, actions, and people.

     1. ADrama
     2. BPoetry
     3. CProse
     4. DNon-fiction

     Answer: (B) Poetry

     Explanation

     Caudwell presents rhythm, verbal preciousness, and style as distinctive features of poetry, in contrast to the novel’s mock-realist construction.

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