UGC NET Management September 2020 Question PaperPaper 1 & Paper 2 with Answer Key

50 questions with the answer key and explanations.

1. Question 1

   If the average monthly salary of employees in Department A was Rs. 24,000 in 2018, what was the approximate total salary expense of Department A in 2018?

   A company has departments A-E. In 2018 the company had 18,000 employees in total; in 2019 it had 20,000. The table shows each department's share of total employees, as a percentage, for each year.

   Department	2018 (%)	2019 (%)
   A	22	24
   B	23	26
   C	18	20
   D	29	20
   E	8	10

   1. ARs. 1.2 crores
   2. BRs. 4.7 crores
   3. CRs. 1.4 crores
   4. DRs. 9.5 crores

   Answer: (D) Rs. 9.5 crores

   Explanation

   Department A's share of the 2018 workforce was 22 percent, so multiply that percentage by the total headcount for 2018, then multiply the result by the given average salary to reach the total expense.

   0.22 × 18,000 = 3,960 employees worked in Department A during 2018. Multiplying that headcount by the average monthly salary gives 3,960 × ₹24,000 = ₹9,50,40,000, which rounds to approximately Rs. 9.5 crores, since one crore equals ₹1,00,00,000.

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2. Question 2

   What is the approximate percentage increase in the number of employees in Department C in 2019 with reference to 2018?

   A company has departments A-E. In 2018 the company had 18,000 employees in total; in 2019 it had 20,000. The table shows each department's share of total employees, as a percentage, for each year.

   Department	2018 (%)	2019 (%)
   A	22	24
   B	23	26
   C	18	20
   D	29	20
   E	8	10

   1. A2%
   2. B2.34%
   3. C23.45%
   4. D8.34%

   Answer: (C) 23.45%

   Explanation

   Department C's workforce share was 18 percent of the 18,000 employees in 2018 and 20 percent of the 20,000 employees in 2019, so convert each percentage into an actual headcount before comparing the two years.

   0.18 × 18,000 = 3,240 employees in 2018, and 0.20 × 20,000 = 4,000 employees in 2019. The percentage increase equals the change in headcount divided by the original headcount: (4,000 − 3,240) / 3,240 × 100 = 760 / 3,240 × 100, which works out to approximately 23.45 percent.

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3. Question 3

   In which department is the variation (represented by absolute numbers) in employee strength maximum in 2019 with reference to 2018?

   A company has departments A-E. In 2018 the company had 18,000 employees in total; in 2019 it had 20,000. The table shows each department's share of total employees, as a percentage, for each year.

   Department	2018 (%)	2019 (%)
   A	22	24
   B	23	26
   C	18	20
   D	29	20
   E	8	10

   1. ADepartment - A
   2. BDepartment - B
   3. CDepartment - D
   4. DDepartment - E

   Answer: (C) Department - D

   Explanation

   Convert each department's percentage share to actual employees using the year totals (18,000 for 2018, 20,000 for 2019), then find the absolute change:

   • A: 3,960 → 4,800, change = 840
   • B: 4,140 → 5,200, change = 1,060
   • C: 3,240 → 4,000, change = 760
   • D: 5,220 → 4,000, change = 1,220 (a decrease)
   • E: 1,440 → 2,000, change = 560

   Department D has the largest absolute variation, at 1,220 employees, even though it is a decrease rather than an increase.

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4. Question 4

   If 300 employees had left Department B at the end of 2018, then how many new employees joined in 2019 in Department B?

   A company has departments A-E. In 2018 the company had 18,000 employees in total; in 2019 it had 20,000. The table shows each department's share of total employees, as a percentage, for each year.

   Department	2018 (%)	2019 (%)
   A	22	24
   B	23	26
   C	18	20
   D	29	20
   E	8	10

   1. A480
   2. B960
   3. C1360
   4. D1140

   Answer: (C) 1360

   Explanation

   Department B had 23% of 18,000 = 4,140 employees in 2018. If 300 left at the end of 2018, 4,140 − 300 = 3,840 employees carried into 2019.

   Department B's 2019 strength is 26% of 20,000 = 5,200 employees. The number of new joiners = 5,200 − 3,840 = 1,360.

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5. Question 5

   What is the ratio of the number of employees in Department E in 2018 compared to those in Department D in 2019?

   A company has departments A-E. In 2018 the company had 18,000 employees in total; in 2019 it had 20,000. The table shows each department's share of total employees, as a percentage, for each year.

   Department	2018 (%)	2019 (%)
   A	22	24
   B	23	26
   C	18	20
   D	29	20
   E	8	10

   1. A9:25
   2. B9:15
   3. C8:15
   4. D8:25

   Answer: (A) 9:25

   Explanation

   Department E's 2018 headcount and Department D's 2019 headcount both need to be converted from percentages into actual employee counts before the ratio can be formed.

   Department E in 2018 had 8 percent of the 18,000 employees, which equals 1,440 employees. Department D in 2019 had 20 percent of the 20,000 employees, which equals 4,000 employees. Writing this as a ratio gives 1,440 : 4,000, and dividing both numbers by their common factor of 160 simplifies the ratio to 9 : 25.

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6. Question 6

   Which learning theory provides support for active participation of learner in the learning process in an interactional setting with intrinsic motivation as the basis?

   1. AS-R Theory of Watson
   2. BReinforcement Theory of Skinner
   3. CConstructivist Theory of Vygotsky
   4. DInsight Theory of Kohler

   Answer: (C) Constructivist Theory of Vygotsky

   Explanation

   Vygotsky's constructivist theory holds that learners actively build understanding through social interaction with others, driven by their own intrinsic motivation to make sense of experience.

   • A. S-R Theory of Watson — treats learning as a passive stimulus-response bond, not active participation.
   • B. Reinforcement Theory of Skinner — relies on external reinforcement (rewards/punishment), not intrinsic motivation.
   • C. Constructivist Theory of Vygotsky — correct. Learning happens through social interaction, with the learner actively constructing knowledge from intrinsic motivation.
   • D. Insight Theory of Kohler — explains sudden problem-solving insight, not sustained interactional, intrinsically motivated participation.

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7. Question 7

   While reporting the result of assessment a college teacher makes use of percentile ranks in place of scores obtained by his/her students. What kind of evaluation will it be called?

   1. ACriterion-referenced
   2. BNorm-referenced
   3. CFormative
   4. DSummative

   Answer: (B) Norm-referenced

   Explanation

   Percentile ranks express a student's performance relative to the rest of the group, which is the defining feature of norm-referenced evaluation.

   • A. Criterion-referenced — measures performance against a fixed standard, not against peers.
   • B. Norm-referenced — correct. Percentile rank is a comparison to the norm group's distribution of scores.
   • C. Formative — refers to ongoing evaluation during instruction, not the scale used to report scores.
   • D. Summative — refers to evaluation at the end of instruction, not the scale used to report scores.

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8. Question 8

   Given below are two statements

   Statement I: Programmed Instructional material uses active responding and immediate feedback as important principles for learning.

   Statement II: Skinner's reinforcement principle is the basis for the preparation of linear types of programmed instructional material.

   In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

   1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
   2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
   3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
   4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

   Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

   Explanation

   Both statements describe well-established features of programmed instruction.

   Statement I is true: programmed learning breaks content into small steps, requires the learner to respond actively at each step, and gives immediate feedback so errors are corrected right away.

   Statement II is true: linear programming (developed by Skinner) is built directly on operant conditioning — every correct response is reinforced, which shapes behaviour toward the desired learning outcome.

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9. Question 9

   Which of the following educational objectives are considered to be of higher level in the affective domain of taxonomic scheme?

   (i) Synthesis
   (ii) Characterization
   (iii) Analysis
   (iv) Organization
   (v) Precision

   Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

   1. A(i) and (ii) only
   2. B(ii) and (iii) only
   3. C(ii) and (iv) only
   4. D(iv) and (v) only

   Answer: (C) (ii) and (iv) only

   Explanation

   Krathwohl's affective domain has five levels, from lowest to highest: Receiving, Responding, Valuing, Organization, and Characterization. Of the given items, only Organization (iv) and Characterization (ii) belong to this domain, and both sit at its two highest levels.

   • Synthesis (i) and Analysis (iii) belong to Bloom's cognitive domain, not the affective domain.
   • Precision (v) belongs to Simpson's psychomotor domain, not the affective domain.
   • Organization and Characterization are correct — they are the two highest levels of the affective domain, where a learner internalizes and integrates values into a consistent personal philosophy.

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10. Question 10

    Which of the following describe understanding level teaching?

    (i) Systematic, step by step presentation to promote retention of facts presented
    (ii) Giving a large number of positive and negative examples to explain concepts
    (iii) Insisting on effective storage of information
    (iv) Helping to promote seeing of relationships among facts
    (v) Critical sifting of facts and information

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(i) and (ii) only
    2. B(ii) and (iii) only
    3. C(iii) and (iv) only
    4. D(ii) and (iv) only

    Answer: (D) (ii) and (iv) only

    Explanation

    Teaching operates at three levels — memory, understanding, and reflective. Understanding-level teaching asks learners to generalize and see relationships, not merely retain or evaluate information.

    • (i) Systematic presentation to promote retention and (iii) insisting on effective storage of information both describe the memory level, where facts are simply stored.
    • (v) Critical sifting of facts describes the reflective level, where the learner evaluates and applies information independently.
    • (ii) giving examples to explain concepts and (iv) helping learners see relationships among facts are correct — both build the generalized understanding that defines this level.

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11. Question 11

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: A research hypothesis is a tentative statement postulating a relationship between factual and conceptual elements of the variables.

    Statement II: A researcher sets up a 'Null hypothesis' so that the deduced consequences of a research hypothesis may be directly tested.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

    Explanation

    Both statements are accurate descriptions of hypothesis-based research design.

    Statement I is true: a research hypothesis proposes a tentative relationship between variables, linking the factual (observed/measurable) and conceptual (theoretical) elements under study.

    Statement II is true: because a research hypothesis usually cannot be tested directly, researchers formulate a null hypothesis — a statement of no effect or no relationship — whose rejection or acceptance lets the deduced consequences of the research hypothesis be tested statistically.

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12. Question 12

    For the following research problem, which of the listed research methods will be most appropriate?

    "School principal's influence on trust: Perspectives of mother's children with disabilities".

    1. AExperimental method
    2. BFocused group discussion (FGD) based method
    3. CDescriptive survey method
    4. DEx post facto method

    Answer: (B) Focused group discussion (FGD) based method

    Explanation

    The research problem asks for the subjective perspectives and lived experiences of a specific group — mothers of children with disabilities — regarding trust in school principals. A Focused Group Discussion lets these participants discuss the topic together, surfacing shared and contrasting perspectives that a numeric survey or an experiment cannot capture.

    • A. Experimental method — requires manipulating a variable under controlled conditions, which does not fit a study of perceptions and trust.
    • B. Focused group discussion (FGD) based method — correct. It is a qualitative method designed to draw out group perspectives and shared meaning on a topic like trust.
    • C. Descriptive survey method — better suited to quantifying the frequency or distribution of a variable, not exploring nuanced perspectives in depth.
    • D. Ex post facto method — used to study effects of a variable that has already occurred without direct manipulation, not to explore perspectives.

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13. Question 13

    In which one of the sampling methods, units comprising its constituents are groups taken intact rather than individually?

    1. ACluster sampling method
    2. BSimple random sampling method
    3. CSystematic sampling method
    4. DDimensional sampling method

    Answer: (A) Cluster sampling method

    Explanation

    Cluster sampling divides the population into naturally occurring groups (clusters) and selects entire clusters intact, rather than picking individual units one by one.

    • A. Cluster sampling method — correct. Entire pre-existing groups (e.g., schools, villages) are sampled as one unit.
    • B. Simple random sampling — selects individual units at random, not intact groups.
    • C. Systematic sampling — selects individual units at a fixed interval, not intact groups.
    • D. Dimensional sampling — selects individuals to represent combinations of characteristics, not intact groups.

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14. Question 14

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Qualitative research is an umbrella term to refer to various research strategies that share certain characteristics

    Statement II: The research-data collected in qualitative research has been termed soft i.e, rich in description of people, places and conversation etc.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

    Explanation

    Both statements are standard, accepted descriptions of qualitative research.

    Statement I is true: 'qualitative research' is an umbrella term covering strategies such as ethnography, case study, grounded theory, and phenomenology, which share features like naturalistic settings and inductive analysis.

    Statement II is true: qualitative data is often called 'soft' data because it consists of rich, descriptive detail — words, images, and observations of people, places, and conversations — rather than numbers.

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15. Question 15

    The scope for violating research ethics is considered to be relevant in respect of which of the following stages in a research study?

    (i) Formulating research hypothesis and setting up a Null hypothesis for testing it.
    (ii) Defining and delimiting the scope of the research study.
    (iii) Analyzing and interpreting research data.
    (iv) In defining a research population and method of sampling.
    (v) Reporting the research findings and using the same as a basis for policy formulation.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(iii) and (v) only
    2. B(i) and (ii) only
    3. C(ii) and (iii) only
    4. D(iv) and (v) only

    Answer: (A) (iii) and (v) only

    Explanation

    Ethical violations arise most clearly where a researcher has the greatest opportunity to distort truth for personal or institutional gain: while working with the data, and while communicating results to others.

    • (iii) Analyzing and interpreting research data is a major site of ethical risk — data can be selectively reported, manipulated, or fabricated to fit a desired conclusion.
    • (v) Reporting findings and using them for policy carries equal risk — findings can be misrepresented, exaggerated, or misapplied to justify a predetermined policy decision.
    • (i), (ii), and (iv) are largely technical/design decisions (framing a hypothesis, delimiting scope, choosing a population and sampling method) that carry comparatively lower risk of deliberate ethical violation, since they precede any handling of actual data or results.

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16. Question 16

    Because of new media, learning is no longer an assembly of:

    1. ALiberal views
    2. BTechnology-based efforts
    3. CFacts
    4. DKnowledge

    Answer: (C) Facts

    Explanation

    New media — interactive, multi-format, and learner-directed — shifts learning away from simply accumulating disconnected facts and toward exploring, questioning, and constructing understanding.

    • A. Liberal views — new media does not primarily reframe learning around political/ideological viewpoints.
    • B. Technology-based efforts — new media is itself a technology-based effort, not something learning stops being.
    • C. Facts — correct. Learning shifts from rote assembly of isolated facts to active exploration and application of ideas.
    • D. Knowledge — new media expands access to knowledge; it does not make learning stop being an assembly of knowledge.

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17. Question 17

    What are the most prominent elements in the management of communication in an educational institution?

    (i) Sidetracking oppositional views
    (ii) Structuring work roles
    (iii) Commanding over colleagues and students
    (iv) Keep others informed
    (v) Guiding others wherever possible

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(i), (ii) and (iii) only
    2. B(ii), (iii) and (iv) only
    3. C(iii), (iv) and (v) only
    4. D(ii), (iv) and (v) only

    Answer: (D) (ii), (iv) and (v) only

    Explanation

    Effective communication management in an institution is built on constructive, collaborative practices, not authoritarian control.

    • (ii) Structuring work roles — clarifying who is responsible for what keeps communication channels organized and reduces confusion.
    • (iv) Keep others informed — timely information sharing is central to functional institutional communication.
    • (v) Guiding others wherever possible — supportive guidance keeps communication constructive rather than merely directive.
    • (i) Sidetracking oppositional views and (iii) Commanding over colleagues and students are negative, authoritarian practices that suppress rather than manage communication, so they are excluded.

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18. Question 18

    Given below are two statements.

    Statement I: In a classroom, every teacher has to perform the gatekeeping function.

    Statement II: Every teacher in any higher educational institution should act as the moral custodian of students, both inside and outside it.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

    Explanation

    Statement I is true: in every classroom, the teacher acts as a gatekeeper, deciding what content is presented, who speaks, when, and how the interaction flows — this is an established, universal part of the teaching role.

    Statement II is false as stated: expecting a teacher to be the moral custodian of students both inside and outside the institution overstates the teacher's role and authority, which is properly bounded by the educational context and does not extend to overseeing a student's conduct in their personal life outside it.

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19. Question 19

    The chronological sequence of institutions of educational communication is

    (i) AIR
    (ii) CEC
    (iii) UGC - Countrywide classroom
    (iv) Gyan Vani

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
    2. B(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
    3. C(ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
    4. D(iv), (i), (ii), (iii)

    Answer: (A) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)

    Explanation

    Ordering these institutions by the year each was established gives the correct chronology:

    • AIR (All India Radio) — established 1936, the earliest of the four.
    • UGC Countrywide Classroom — launched 1984 on Doordarshan, UGC's educational television initiative.
    • CEC (Consortium for Educational Communication) — established 1993 to coordinate the Educational Media/Audio-Visual Research Centres.
    • Gyan Vani — launched 2001 as an educational FM radio network, the most recent of the four.

    So the chronological order is AIR → UGC Countrywide Classroom → CEC → Gyan Vani, i.e. (i), (iii), (ii), (iv).

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20. Question 20

    Match List-I (Type of Communication) with List-II (Description).

    List-I (Type of Communication)	List-II (Description)
    (a) Dyadic communication	(i) Messages flow through a network of inter-dependent relationships
    (b) Public communication	(ii) Uses a medium to reach a large anonymous audience
    (c) Organisational communication	(iii) Provide equal opportunity to communicate
    (d) Mass communication	(iv) Occurs within a formal and structured setting

    1. A(ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
    2. B(iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
    3. C(iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
    4. D(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

    Answer: (B) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)

    Explanation

    The correct mapping is (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii).

    • Dyadic communication happens between two people who each get an equal turn to speak, so it provides equal opportunity to communicate.
    • Public communication is addressed to an audience gathered in one place, occurring within a formal, structured setting (e.g. a lecture or address).
    • Organisational communication flows through the network of interdependent roles and relationships that make up an organisation.
    • Mass communication relies on a medium (print, broadcast, digital) to reach a large, anonymous audience.

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21. Question 21

    Match List-I (Numbers) with List-II (Square roots).

    List-I (Numbers)	List-II (Square roots)
    (a) 41209	(i) 9
    (b) 841	(ii) 29
    (c) 81	(iii) 232
    (d) 53824	(iv) 203

    1. A(iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
    2. B(ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
    3. C(ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
    4. D(iv), (ii), (i), (iii)

    Answer: (D) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)

    Explanation

    Each option can be checked by squaring the given root and confirming it matches the number in List-I, which is the most reliable way to verify a square-root match.

    Squaring 203 gives 203² = 41,209, so (a) pairs with (iv). Squaring 29 gives 29² = 841, so (b) pairs with (ii). Squaring 9 gives 9² = 81, so (c) pairs with (i). Squaring 232 gives 232² = 53,824, so (d) pairs with (iii). This confirms the mapping (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii).

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22. Question 22

    Match List-I (Types of numbers) with List-II (Examples).

    List-I (Types of numbers)	List-II (Examples)
    (a) Natural numbers	(i) (-2, -1, 0, 1, 2)
    (b) Whole numbers	(ii) (1, 2, 3, 4)
    (c) Integers	(iii) (0, 1, 2, 3)
    (d) Prime Numbers	(iv) (2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13)

    1. A(iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
    2. B(ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
    3. C(i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
    4. D(iii), (ii), (i), (iv)

    Answer: (B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)

    Explanation

    Natural numbers start counting from 1, so (1, 2, 3, 4) is the example — (a)-(ii). Whole numbers include 0, so (0, 1, 2, 3) is the example — (b)-(iii). Integers include negative numbers, so (-2, -1, 0, 1, 2) is the example — (c)-(i). Prime numbers have exactly two factors, so (2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13) is the example — (d)-(iv).

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23. Question 23

    Given below are two statements

    Statement I: Compound interest involves the reinvestment of the earned interest, which in future years also earns interest.

    Statement II: Simple interest is the amount earned or paid on a sum of compound interest and principal amount.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

    Explanation

    Statement I is true: compound interest is calculated by reinvesting each period's interest back into the principal, so future interest is earned on both the original principal and the accumulated interest.

    Statement II is false: simple interest is calculated only on the original principal amount for the entire period — it is never calculated on 'a sum of compound interest and principal,' which is not how simple interest is defined.

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24. Question 24

    Find the odd pair/group.

    (i) 66-70
    (ii) 30-48
    (iii) 80-98
    (iv) 40-58
    (v) 72-90

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(i) only
    2. B(iii) and (v) only
    3. C(ii) and (iv) only
    4. D(v) only

    Answer: (A) (i) only

    Explanation

    Calculating the difference between the two numbers in each pair reveals a consistent pattern among four of the five options, which makes the pattern-breaker easy to spot.

    (i) 70 − 66 = 4. (ii) 48 − 30 = 18. (iii) 98 − 80 = 18. (iv) 58 − 40 = 18. (v) 90 − 72 = 18. Four of the five pairs share a difference of exactly 18, while pair (i) breaks that pattern with a difference of only 4, making (i) 66-70 the odd one out.

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25. Question 25

    Given below are two statements

    Statement I: A percentile divides the distribution into 100 equal parts.

    Statement II: Range is the distribution between zero and highest value.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

    Explanation

    Statement I is true: percentiles divide an ordered distribution into 100 equal parts, each containing 1% of the observations.

    Statement II is false: range is defined as the difference between the highest and lowest values in the distribution, not as 'the distribution between zero and the highest value.'

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26. Question 26

    In a coded language if ANIMAL is written as LAIMNA, then CIRCLE will be written as:

    1. AELRCIC
    2. BELCRIC
    3. CERLCIC
    4. DERCLIC

    Answer: (A) ELRCIC

    Explanation

    Compare ANIMAL (A-N-I-M-A-L) with its code LAIMNA (L-A-I-M-N-A) position by position: the 1st and 6th letters swap (A↔L), the 2nd and 5th letters swap (N↔A), and the 3rd and 4th letters (I, M) stay in place.

    Applying the same rule to CIRCLE (C-I-R-C-L-E): swap the 1st and 6th letters (C↔E), swap the 2nd and 5th letters (I↔L), and keep the 3rd and 4th letters (R, C) unchanged.

    This gives E-L-R-C-I-C = ELRCIC.

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27. Question 27

    Find the odd one out among the following letter groups.

    1. ADfGj
    2. BHkLo
    3. CMoPs
    4. DTvWz

    Answer: (B) HkLo

    Explanation

    Each option is a 4-letter group. Check the alphabet-position gaps between consecutive letters:

    • DfGj: D→f gap 2, f→G gap 1, G→j gap 3 → (2, 1, 3)
    • HkLo: H→k gap 3, k→L gap 1, L→o gap 3 → (3, 1, 3)
    • MoPs: M→o gap 2, o→P gap 1, P→s gap 3 → (2, 1, 3)
    • TvWz: T→v gap 2, v→W gap 1, W→z gap 3 → (2, 1, 3)

    Three groups follow the pattern (2, 1, 3); only HkLo follows (3, 1, 3), making it the odd one out.

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28. Question 28

    In a family of four A, B, C and D; D is taller than B, C is shortest of all and A is taller than only one person, then:

    (i) Number of persons taller than A is the number of persons shorter than B
    (ii) D is tallest
    (iii) A is shortest
    (iv) No one is shorter than C
    (v) Only one person is shorter than B

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(i), (ii) and (v) only
    2. B(i), (ii) and (iv) only
    3. C(ii) and (iii) only
    4. D(i) and (iv) only

    Answer: (B) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

    Explanation

    Since A is taller than only one person, and C is the shortest of all four, that one person A is taller than must be C. So A is shorter than both B and D, giving the order D > B > A > C (D is taller than B is given, so D outranks B).

    • (i) Persons taller than A: D and B (2). Persons shorter than B: A and C (2). These counts are equal, so (i) is true.
    • (ii) D sits at the top of the order, so D is tallest — true.
    • (iii) C, not A, is shortest — false.
    • (iv) C is the shortest of all, so no one is shorter than C — true.
    • (v) Two people (A and C) are shorter than B, not one — false.

    So (i), (ii) and (iv) only are correct.

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29. Question 29

    Match List-I (Typical Aristotelian syllogism) with List-II (Technical names in Nyaya philosophy).

    List-I (Typical Aristotelian syllogism)	List-II (Technical names in Nyaya philosophy)
    (a) Socrates is mortal	(i) Nigamana
    (b) Because he is a man	(ii) Upanaya
    (c) Whoever is a man, is invariably a mortal e.g. Pythagoras	(iii) Udaharan
    (d) Socrates is a man who is invariably a mortal	(iv) Hetu
    (e) Therefore Socrates is a mortal	(v) Pratijna

    1. A(v), (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
    2. B(i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
    3. C(iii), (i), (ii), (v), (iv)
    4. D(ii), (iii), (i), (iv), (v)

    Answer: (A) (v), (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

    Explanation

    The Nyaya five-membered syllogism (Panchavayava) runs Pratijna (proposition) → Hetu (reason) → Udaharana (example with a general rule) → Upanaya (application of the rule to the case) → Nigamana (conclusion).

    • (a) 'Socrates is mortal' states the thesis to be proved: Pratijna.
    • (b) 'Because he is a man' gives the reason: Hetu.
    • (c) 'Whoever is a man, is invariably a mortal, e.g. Pythagoras' states the general rule with a supporting example: Udaharana.
    • (d) 'Socrates is a man who is invariably a mortal' applies the general rule to this specific case: Upanaya.
    • (e) 'Therefore Socrates is a mortal' restates the proven conclusion: Nigamana.

    So the mapping is (a)-Pratijna(v), (b)-Hetu(iv), (c)-Udaharana(iii), (d)-Upanaya(ii), (e)-Nigamana(i).

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30. Question 30

    What type of fallacy is implied in the following?

    "Fire is cold, because it is a substance"

    1. ABadhita
    2. BVirudha
    3. CAsadharna
    4. DAnupsarhan

    Answer: (A) Badhita

    Explanation

    This is a classic example of a Badhita hetu (contradicted reason) in Nyaya logic. The inference tries to prove that fire is cold on the ground that it is a substance, but direct perception establishes with certainty that fire is hot — a stronger source of knowledge directly contradicts the conclusion the reason is trying to prove.

    • B. Virudha (contradictory) — applies when the reason itself proves the opposite of what it is meant to prove, not when perception contradicts the conclusion.
    • C. Asadharna (too narrow/uncommon) — applies when the reason is present only in the subject and nowhere else, which is not the issue here.
    • D. Anupsarhan — refers to an inference with no supporting example anywhere, which is not the issue here.

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31. Question 31

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: ALU stands for Arithmetic Logic Unit

    Statement II: UPS stands for Uniform Power Source

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

    Explanation

    Statement I is true: ALU does stand for Arithmetic Logic Unit, the part of a CPU that performs arithmetic and logical operations.

    Statement II is false: UPS stands for Uninterruptible Power Supply, not 'Uniform Power Source.'

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32. Question 32

    Which of the following statements are correct?

    (i) Internet is larger than intranet
    (ii) Intranet is larger than Internet
    (iii) Internet and intranet are same
    (iv) Internet is a network of networks
    (v) World Wide Web is an example of intranet

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(ii) and (v) only
    2. B(i) and (iv) only
    3. C(iii) and (v) only
    4. D(ii) and (iii) only

    Answer: (B) (i) and (iv) only

    Explanation

    The Internet is a global network of networks that anyone can access, while an intranet is a private network restricted to a single organisation — so the Internet is far larger than any intranet, and the two are not the same.

    • (i) Internet is larger than intranet — true.
    • (ii) Intranet is larger than Internet — false, the reverse is true.
    • (iii) Internet and intranet are the same — false, an intranet is a private, restricted subset.
    • (iv) Internet is a network of networks — true, this is its defining architecture.
    • (v) WWW is an example of intranet — false, the World Wide Web is a public information space accessed over the Internet, not an intranet.

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33. Question 33

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    (a) Programming Language	(i) Wide Area Network
    (b) Operating System	(ii) MS Power Point
    (c) Internet	(iii) Windows XP
    (d) Application Software	(iv) C++

    1. A(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
    2. B(iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
    3. C(iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
    4. D(ii), (iii), (i), (iv)

    Answer: (B) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

    Explanation

    C++ is a programming language, so (a)-(iv). Windows XP is an operating system, so (b)-(iii). The Internet is a wide area network connecting networks worldwide, so (c)-(i). MS PowerPoint is application software, so (d)-(ii).

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34. Question 34

    Given below are two statements

    Statement I: Example of primary memory is RAM.

    Statement II: Example of secondary memory is Pen drive.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

    Explanation

    Both statements are true. RAM (Random Access Memory) is primary memory — it is directly accessible to the CPU and holds data only while the computer is powered on. A pen drive is secondary (external) memory — it stores data persistently outside the CPU's direct working memory, even when the computer is switched off.

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35. Question 35

    Which of the following is related to National Super Computing Mission of Government of India?

    1. AParam 8000
    2. BParam 10000
    3. CParam Dhavak
    4. DParam Shivay

    Answer: (D) Param Shivay

    Explanation

    Param Shivay, installed at IIT (BHU) Varanasi in 2019, was the first supercomputer assembled under India's National Supercomputing Mission (NSM), launched in 2015 to build indigenous high-performance computing capacity.

    • A. Param 8000 and B. Param 10000 were earlier C-DAC supercomputers from the 1990s, built well before the NSM existed.
    • C. Param Dhavak is not a recognised NSM supercomputer name.
    • D. Param Shivay — correct, the first machine deployed under the NSM.

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36. Question 36

    Under which of the following objectives of Millennium Development Goals, the progress in the world as a whole has been least satisfactory?

    1. AHalting by 2015 and beginning to reverse the spread of HIV/AIDS
    2. BEliminating gender disparity in primary and secondary education by 2015
    3. CReducing the proportion of population below national poverty line by 2015
    4. DReducing by half proportion of people who suffer from hunger by 2015

    Answer: (D) Reducing by half proportion of people who suffer from hunger by 2015

    Explanation

    Global progress reports on the Millennium Development Goals found that the target of halving the proportion of people who suffer from hunger was the least satisfactorily met among the MDGs — unlike extreme poverty reduction or gender parity in education, which were largely achieved by the 2015 deadline.

    • A. Halting/reversing HIV/AIDS — this target was substantially met, with new infections and deaths falling significantly.
    • B. Gender disparity in education — gender parity in primary and secondary education was achieved across developing regions.
    • C. Reducing the population below the poverty line — extreme poverty fell sharply and this target was met well ahead of 2015.
    • D. Reducing by half the proportion of people suffering from hunger — correct, progress here lagged and the target was missed.

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37. Question 37

    Identify the correct sequence of Carbon 'C' to Nitrogen 'N' ratio in decreasing order in organic waste material.

    (i) Food waste
    (ii) Leaves and foliage
    (iii) Paper
    (iv) Cow manure

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
    2. B(iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
    3. C(ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
    4. D(ii), (iv), (iii), (i)

    Answer: (A) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)

    Explanation

    Typical C:N ratios for these materials are approximately: paper ≈ 170-200:1, leaves and foliage ≈ 40-80:1, cow manure ≈ 20:1, and food waste ≈ 15-18:1 (paper is cellulose-rich and very low in nitrogen, while food waste and manure are comparatively nitrogen-rich).

    Ordering from highest to lowest C:N ratio gives Paper > Leaves and foliage > Cow manure > Food waste, i.e. (iii), (ii), (iv), (i).

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38. Question 38

    According to Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, the night time Noise standard prescribed for Educational Institutions is:

    1. A55 dB A
    2. B50 dB A
    3. C45 dB A
    4. D40 dB A

    Answer: (D) 40 dB A

    Explanation

    Under the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, areas within 100 metres of educational institutions (along with hospitals and courts) are classified as 'Silence Zones.' The prescribed ambient noise standard for a silence zone is 50 dB(A) during the day and 40 dB(A) at night, so the correct night-time limit for educational institutions is 40 dB(A).

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39. Question 39

    Given below are two statements

    Statement I: Volatile Organic Chemicals (VOCs) are contaminants more commonly found in groundwater than in surface water.

    Statement II: VOCs are one of the criterion parameters to determine drinking water quality.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

    Explanation

    Statement I is true: because groundwater is not exposed to open air, VOCs dissolved in it cannot evaporate away as readily as they can from surface water, so they persist and accumulate more in groundwater, making VOC contamination more common there.

    Statement II is true: VOCs are regulated contaminants and are included among the parameters tested to assess and certify drinking water quality.

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40. Question 40

    Which of the following is NOT one of the Missions under National Action Plan on Climate Change?

    1. ANational Water Mission
    2. BNational Mission on Energy Efficiency Improvement
    3. CGreen India Mission
    4. DNational Mission on Solid Waste Management

    Answer: (D) National Mission on Solid Waste Management

    Explanation

    India's National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC), launched in 2008, comprises eight missions: National Solar Mission, National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency, National Mission on Sustainable Habitat, National Water Mission, National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem, National Mission for Green India, National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture, and National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change.

    • A. National Water Mission and C. Green India Mission are both genuine NAPCC missions.
    • B. National Mission on Energy Efficiency Improvement refers to the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency, also a genuine NAPCC mission.
    • D. National Mission on Solid Waste Management — correct, this is not one of the eight NAPCC missions.

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41. Question 41

    Which one of the following ancient universities provided for the teaching of a special subject 'Vajrayana Buddhism' along with other subjects?

    1. AMithila University
    2. BJagaddala University
    3. CNalanda University
    4. DOdantapuri University

    Answer: (B) Jagaddala University

    Explanation

    Jagaddala University, founded by the Pala king Ramapala in Bengal, was specifically known as a centre for the study and dissemination of Tantric (Vajrayana) Buddhism alongside its general curriculum, distinguishing it from the other ancient universities listed.

    • A. Mithila University was primarily renowned as a centre of Nyaya (logic) and classical Sanskrit learning, not Vajrayana Buddhism.
    • C. Nalanda University taught a broad Mahayana Buddhist curriculum alongside other subjects, but Vajrayana was not its special, defining focus.
    • D. Odantapuri University taught general Buddhist philosophy but is not specifically noted for a special Vajrayana Buddhism curriculum the way Jagaddala is.

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42. Question 42

    In the university education system as prevalent now, which of the following bodies/committees looks after formal approval of curriculum and courses of study?

    1. AUniversity Executive Council/Board of Management
    2. BAcademic council of the concerned university
    3. CBoard of studies
    4. DUniversity Court

    Answer: (B) Academic council of the concerned university

    Explanation

    The Academic Council is the university's principal academic authority and is responsible for formally approving curriculum, syllabi, and courses of study.

    • A. University Executive Council/Board of Management — handles administrative, financial, and executive matters, not formal academic approval.
    • B. Academic council of the concerned university — correct, this body formally approves curriculum and courses of study, typically after they are recommended by Boards of Studies.
    • C. Board of studies — recommends and drafts syllabi/courses at the subject level but does not give final formal approval.
    • D. University Court — is largely a broad-based deliberative/advisory body, not the body that formally approves curriculum.

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43. Question 43

    The action plan arising from the Academic and Administrative Reforms Committee appointed by the UGC with Prof A. Gnanam as its convener included which of the following?

    (i) Choice-based credit system
    (ii) Vocationalization of higher education
    (iii) Curriculum development
    (iv) Deciding on the number of student-faculty contact hours during a semester
    (v) Skill-based courses and programmes

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(i), (ii) and (iii) only
    2. B(i), (iii) and (iv) only
    3. C(ii), (iii) and (iv) only
    4. D(iii), (iv) and (v) only

    Answer: (B) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

    Explanation

    The UGC's Academic and Administrative Reforms Committee, convened by Prof. A. Gnanam, recommended reforms centred on the semester system, choice-based credit system, curriculum development, and defining student-faculty contact hours per semester.

    • (i) Choice-based credit system and (iii) Curriculum development were core recommendations of the committee.
    • (iv) Deciding student-faculty contact hours per semester was also part of the committee's action plan, tied to its semester-system reforms.
    • (ii) Vocationalization of higher education and (v) Skill-based courses and programmes were not part of this specific committee's recommendations.

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44. Question 44

    For the introduction of the concept of Total Quality Management (TQM) in universities, which of the following will be considered helpful?

    (i) System's thinking
    (ii) Participatory management
    (iii) Rigorous admission procedures
    (iv) SWOC (Strength, Weakness, Opportunity and Challenge analysis)
    (v) Introduction of skill-development programmes

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(i), (ii) and (iv) only
    2. B(i), (ii) and (iii) only
    3. C(ii), (iii) and (iv) only
    4. D(iii), (iv) and (v) only

    Answer: (A) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

    Explanation

    Introducing TQM in universities rests on core quality-management tools: seeing the institution as an interconnected system, involving stakeholders in decisions, and systematically assessing strengths and weaknesses.

    • (i) System's thinking helps quality planners see the university as an interconnected whole rather than isolated departments.
    • (ii) Participatory management builds the shared ownership TQM depends on, since quality improves when staff and students are involved in decisions.
    • (iv) SWOC analysis gives the institution a structured way to identify strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and challenges before setting quality goals.
    • (iii) Rigorous admission procedures is a selectivity measure, not a TQM process tool, and (v) skill-development programmes is an outcome/offering rather than a TQM implementation mechanism, so both are excluded.

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45. Question 45

    Given below are two statements.

    Statement I: Yoga is the union of body with the mind and of the mind with the soul.

    Statement II: Both value education and environmental education can be integral to yoga programmes being conducted at the school/college-level.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

    Explanation

    Statement I is true: yoga is traditionally defined as a discipline that unites the body with the mind, and the mind with the soul, working toward integrated physical, mental, and spiritual well-being.

    Statement II is true: because yoga education emphasises self-discipline, ethical conduct, and harmony with one's surroundings, value education and environmental education fit naturally into school and college yoga programmes.

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46. Question 46

    The first vision of the child as a learner was:

    If the vision of the learner in the initial period was predominantly as an empty organism and in the next as an active organism, in the period that followed it was as a social organism. The beliefs regarding the nature of the learner in the first period drew heavily from the associationist view of the human being, in the second from the Gestalt and personalistic views; later they also drew from the emerging social psychological and group dynamic views.

    The child as learner as envisioned as a social organism, and learning was perceived as occurring through interpersonal actions and reactions, each person in the classroom serving as a stimulus for every other person. It is hard to overemphasize the impact on the classroom of the "group climate" concepts and studies by Lewin and his associates beginning in the late 1930s, which were given added cogency by the ideological issues of World War II. Innumerable treatises, textbooks, and programs applied these ideas and findings to the classroom, and such terms as "authoritarian", "democratic", and "laissez-faire" became, for good or ill, integral parts of the educational vocabulary. Experimenters in the learning laboratory became concerned with such previously unheard-of matters as "interpersonal cohesion" and "small group processes", and teachers in the classroom with "sociometric structure" and "group dynamics".

    Concomitant changes in the image of the ideal classroom could again be observed. If the child is primarily a social organism, then the objectives of his education should be primarily social in character. And if learning is a social or group process, then a circular or group-centred classroom where everyone faces everyone else (as once they had been forced to face only the teacher) is the most sensible and practical, even necessary, learning environment. And this indeed became a favourite image of the classroom.

    1. APersonalistic
    2. BSocial
    3. CHumanistic
    4. DAssociationistic

    Answer: (D) Associationistic

    Explanation

    The passage states that the beliefs about the learner in the first period 'drew heavily from the associationist view of the human being.' The first vision (the learner as an empty organism) is therefore Associationistic.

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47. Question 47

    In the social organistic view, learning occurred through:

    If the vision of the learner in the initial period was predominantly as an empty organism and in the next as an active organism, in the period that followed it was as a social organism. The beliefs regarding the nature of the learner in the first period drew heavily from the associationist view of the human being, in the second from the Gestalt and personalistic views; later they also drew from the emerging social psychological and group dynamic views.

    The child as learner as envisioned as a social organism, and learning was perceived as occurring through interpersonal actions and reactions, each person in the classroom serving as a stimulus for every other person. It is hard to overemphasize the impact on the classroom of the "group climate" concepts and studies by Lewin and his associates beginning in the late 1930s, which were given added cogency by the ideological issues of World War II. Innumerable treatises, textbooks, and programs applied these ideas and findings to the classroom, and such terms as "authoritarian", "democratic", and "laissez-faire" became, for good or ill, integral parts of the educational vocabulary. Experimenters in the learning laboratory became concerned with such previously unheard-of matters as "interpersonal cohesion" and "small group processes", and teachers in the classroom with "sociometric structure" and "group dynamics".

    Concomitant changes in the image of the ideal classroom could again be observed. If the child is primarily a social organism, then the objectives of his education should be primarily social in character. And if learning is a social or group process, then a circular or group-centred classroom where everyone faces everyone else (as once they had been forced to face only the teacher) is the most sensible and practical, even necessary, learning environment. And this indeed became a favourite image of the classroom.

    1. AEach individual acting as a stimulus
    2. BReactionary measures
    3. CA non-competitive environment
    4. DEach person holding fort for others

    Answer: (A) Each individual acting as a stimulus

    Explanation

    The passage states that when the child was envisioned as a social organism, 'learning was perceived as occurring through interpersonal actions and reactions, each person in the classroom serving as a stimulus for every other person,' matching option A directly.

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48. Question 48

    The group climate of the classroom got reinforced by:

    If the vision of the learner in the initial period was predominantly as an empty organism and in the next as an active organism, in the period that followed it was as a social organism. The beliefs regarding the nature of the learner in the first period drew heavily from the associationist view of the human being, in the second from the Gestalt and personalistic views; later they also drew from the emerging social psychological and group dynamic views.

    The child as learner as envisioned as a social organism, and learning was perceived as occurring through interpersonal actions and reactions, each person in the classroom serving as a stimulus for every other person. It is hard to overemphasize the impact on the classroom of the "group climate" concepts and studies by Lewin and his associates beginning in the late 1930s, which were given added cogency by the ideological issues of World War II. Innumerable treatises, textbooks, and programs applied these ideas and findings to the classroom, and such terms as "authoritarian", "democratic", and "laissez-faire" became, for good or ill, integral parts of the educational vocabulary. Experimenters in the learning laboratory became concerned with such previously unheard-of matters as "interpersonal cohesion" and "small group processes", and teachers in the classroom with "sociometric structure" and "group dynamics".

    Concomitant changes in the image of the ideal classroom could again be observed. If the child is primarily a social organism, then the objectives of his education should be primarily social in character. And if learning is a social or group process, then a circular or group-centred classroom where everyone faces everyone else (as once they had been forced to face only the teacher) is the most sensible and practical, even necessary, learning environment. And this indeed became a favourite image of the classroom.

    1. ASocial issues
    2. BIdeological issues
    3. CInter-personal issues
    4. DIndividual issues

    Answer: (B) Ideological issues

    Explanation

    The passage says the group climate concepts and studies 'were given added cogency by the ideological issues of World War II,' directly identifying ideological issues as the reinforcing factor.

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49. Question 49

    In the learning laboratory, the focus shifted to:

    If the vision of the learner in the initial period was predominantly as an empty organism and in the next as an active organism, in the period that followed it was as a social organism. The beliefs regarding the nature of the learner in the first period drew heavily from the associationist view of the human being, in the second from the Gestalt and personalistic views; later they also drew from the emerging social psychological and group dynamic views.

    The child as learner as envisioned as a social organism, and learning was perceived as occurring through interpersonal actions and reactions, each person in the classroom serving as a stimulus for every other person. It is hard to overemphasize the impact on the classroom of the "group climate" concepts and studies by Lewin and his associates beginning in the late 1930s, which were given added cogency by the ideological issues of World War II. Innumerable treatises, textbooks, and programs applied these ideas and findings to the classroom, and such terms as "authoritarian", "democratic", and "laissez-faire" became, for good or ill, integral parts of the educational vocabulary. Experimenters in the learning laboratory became concerned with such previously unheard-of matters as "interpersonal cohesion" and "small group processes", and teachers in the classroom with "sociometric structure" and "group dynamics".

    Concomitant changes in the image of the ideal classroom could again be observed. If the child is primarily a social organism, then the objectives of his education should be primarily social in character. And if learning is a social or group process, then a circular or group-centred classroom where everyone faces everyone else (as once they had been forced to face only the teacher) is the most sensible and practical, even necessary, learning environment. And this indeed became a favourite image of the classroom.

    1. AProduction of textbooks
    2. BCreation of educational vocabulary
    3. CDemocratization of the process
    4. DUnderstanding group dynamics

    Answer: (D) Understanding group dynamics

    Explanation

    The passage states that experimenters in the learning laboratory 'became concerned with such previously unheard-of matters as interpersonal cohesion and small group processes,' and teachers with 'sociometric structure and group dynamics' — this focus is best captured as understanding group dynamics.

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50. Question 50

    The author of the passage is in favour of the idea of:

    If the vision of the learner in the initial period was predominantly as an empty organism and in the next as an active organism, in the period that followed it was as a social organism. The beliefs regarding the nature of the learner in the first period drew heavily from the associationist view of the human being, in the second from the Gestalt and personalistic views; later they also drew from the emerging social psychological and group dynamic views.

    The child as learner as envisioned as a social organism, and learning was perceived as occurring through interpersonal actions and reactions, each person in the classroom serving as a stimulus for every other person. It is hard to overemphasize the impact on the classroom of the "group climate" concepts and studies by Lewin and his associates beginning in the late 1930s, which were given added cogency by the ideological issues of World War II. Innumerable treatises, textbooks, and programs applied these ideas and findings to the classroom, and such terms as "authoritarian", "democratic", and "laissez-faire" became, for good or ill, integral parts of the educational vocabulary. Experimenters in the learning laboratory became concerned with such previously unheard-of matters as "interpersonal cohesion" and "small group processes", and teachers in the classroom with "sociometric structure" and "group dynamics".

    Concomitant changes in the image of the ideal classroom could again be observed. If the child is primarily a social organism, then the objectives of his education should be primarily social in character. And if learning is a social or group process, then a circular or group-centred classroom where everyone faces everyone else (as once they had been forced to face only the teacher) is the most sensible and practical, even necessary, learning environment. And this indeed became a favourite image of the classroom.

    1. AVertical learning
    2. BLaboratory learning
    3. CCircular learning
    4. DTeacher-focussed learning

    Answer: (C) Circular learning

    Explanation

    The passage concludes that 'a circular or group-centred classroom where everyone faces everyone else... is the most sensible and practical, even necessary, learning environment,' and that 'this indeed became a favourite image of the classroom' — directly endorsing circular learning.

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100 questions with the answer key and explanations.

1. Question 1

   Which of the following oligopoly firms’ architectural framework is often describes as first
   mover advantage model?

   1. AThe Cournot Model
   2. BThe Stackelberg Model
   3. CThe Bertrand Model
   4. DThe Kinked demand curve model

   Answer: (B) The Stackelberg Model

   Explanation

   In the Stackelberg model, one firm commits to its output first and the follower then chooses its output in response. That leader–follower structure creates the first-mover advantage; Cournot assumes simultaneous quantity choices.

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2. Question 2

   Which is not an assumption under pinning the rational decision-making model?

   1. AIncomplete information
   2. BAn agreed goal
   3. CA structured problem
   4. DHigh Level of certainty regarding the environment

   Answer: (A) Incomplete information

   Explanation

   The rational decision-making model assumes that the decision-maker has adequate, reliable information, a clear agreed goal, and a structured problem. Incomplete information is therefore the assumption that does not belong to the model.

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3. Question 3

   The problem arising from expressions in communication are called.

   1. ASpatial barriers
   2. BSemantic barriers
   3. CWrong assumptions
   4. DSelected perception

   Answer: (B) Semantic barriers

   Explanation

   Semantic barriers arise when people attach different meanings to words, symbols, or expressions. Spatial barriers concern physical distance or location, while perception and assumptions are different communication barriers.

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4. Question 4

   What is paradigm?

   1. AA theoretical Assumption
   2. BAn illustration
   3. CAn example serving as a model
   4. DA theoretical model

   Answer: (C) An example serving as a model

   Explanation

   A paradigm is a pattern, example, or model that guides how a subject is understood or investigated. It is broader than a single theoretical assumption, so an example serving as a model is the best description.

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5. Question 5

   Which of the following comprises people with complementary skills committed to a common
   purpose, common performance goals and an approach to which they hold themselves mutually
   accountable?

   1. AGroup
   2. BTeam
   3. COrganisation
   4. DFirm

   Answer: (B) Team

   Explanation

   A team is a small group with complementary skills, a common purpose, shared performance goals, and mutual accountability. A group need not have that degree of interdependence or shared accountability.

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6. Question 6

   Demonstration type of training method is used to train __________.

   1. ASupervisor
   2. BWorkers
   3. CManager
   4. DSenior training

   Answer: (B) Workers

   Explanation

   Demonstration training shows an employee how to perform a practical task and is particularly useful for workers learning a specific operation or machine procedure. It is not primarily a strategic-development method for senior managers.

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7. Question 7

   One trait that dominates a personality so much that it influences nearly everything a person does
   is a

   1. AGlobal Trait
   2. BSpecific Trait
   3. CCardinal Trait
   4. DCentral Trait

   Answer: (C) Cardinal Trait

   Explanation

   Allport described a cardinal trait as a pervasive trait that dominates much of a person’s behaviour. Central traits are important characteristics, but they do not necessarily influence nearly everything a person does.

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8. Question 8

   Personality tests are given to measure a prospective employee’s motivation to function in a
   working environment. There are various tests designed to assess a candidate’s personality. Name
   the test which measures the self-sufficiency, neurotic tendency, sociability, introversion and
   extroversion, locus of control and self-confidence.

   1. AThe Bernreuter Personality Inventory
   2. BThe Thematic Apperception Test
   3. CThe Thurstone Temperament Survey
   4. DMinnesota Multiphasic Personality Test

   Answer: (A) The Bernreuter Personality Inventory

   Explanation

   The Bernreuter Personality Inventory measures a set of traits including self-sufficiency, neurotic tendency, sociability, introversion–extroversion, confidence, and dominance. The other instruments have different clinical or projective purposes.

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9. Question 9

   Which of the following is a position from which someone is unlikely to move to a higher level
   of work responsibility?

   1. ACareer goals
   2. BCareer path
   3. CCareer progression
   4. DCareer plateau

   Answer: (D) Career plateau

   Explanation

   A career plateau is a point at which an employee is unlikely to move to a higher level of responsibility. A career path and career progression describe movement possibilities rather than the absence of advancement.

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10. Question 10

    The balanced scorecard developed by Kaplan and Norton contains four dimensions. Which
    one out of the following is one of the dimensions of the balanced scorecard?

    1. ACompetitors analysis
    2. BCustomer service
    3. CHuman resource
    4. DProduction management

    Answer: (B) Customer service

    Explanation

    Kaplan and Norton’s balanced scorecard uses financial, customer, internal-business-process, and learning-and-growth perspectives. Customer service belongs to the customer perspective; competitor analysis and production management are not standalone scorecard perspectives.

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11. Question 11

    Which one of the following means a mandatory settlement of an individual dispute by a labour
    court or a tribunal?

    1. ACollective bargaining
    2. BArbitration
    3. CConciliation
    4. DAdjudication

    Answer: (D) Adjudication

    Explanation

    Adjudication is the compulsory settlement of an industrial dispute by a labour court or tribunal. Conciliation seeks a voluntary settlement and arbitration depends on referral to an arbitrator.

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12. Question 12

    Who among the following has developed the institutional theory of work life Initiative?

    1. ADaft and Weick
    2. BMiliken et al
    3. CDimaggio and Powell
    4. DPfeffer and salancik

    Answer: (C) Dimaggio and Powell

    Explanation

    DiMaggio and Powell are associated with institutional theory, which explains how organisations become similar through coercive, mimetic, and normative pressures. Their work is therefore the relevant theoretical source.

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13. Question 13

    As a regulatory norm in India, a listed company in ordinary course is required to report
    quarterly results within how many days of the end of the quarters?

    1. A45
    2. B15
    3. C30
    4. D90

    Answer: (A) 45

    Explanation

    For the stated listed-company reporting requirement, quarterly financial results are to be reported within 45 days after the end of the quarter. The shorter and longer periods in the other options do not match this reporting norm.

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14. Question 14

    Which one of the following is excluded from the responsibility of the international Accounting
    Standard Board (IASB)?

    1. AHarmonization and convergence of Accounting standard
    2. BPromulgation and adaption of Generally Accepted Accounting Principle (GAAP)
    3. CPromulgation of International accounting standard
    4. DPromulgation of gaining acceptance of international financial reporting standard (IFRS)

    Answer: (B) Promulgation and adaption of Generally Accepted Accounting Principle (GAAP)

    Explanation

    The IASB develops and issues IFRS and works toward international harmonisation. It does not promulgate or adopt domestic GAAP; GAAP is a broader national accounting framework, so that function is excluded.

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15. Question 15

    A firm’s current assets and current liabilities are Rs 1600 and Rs 1000 respectively. How
    much it can borrow on a short-term basis without reducing the current ratio below 1.25?

    1. ARs 2000
    2. BRs 1200
    3. CRs 1400
    4. DRs 1080

    Answer: (C) Rs 1400

    Explanation

    Let the additional short-term borrowing be x. The required current ratio is (1600 + x)/(1000 + x) = 1.25, giving 1600 + x = 1250 + 1.25x and x = 1400. Therefore the firm can borrow Rs. 1,400.

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16. Question 16

    From the ratio given below find out efficiency ratio of the firm’s operations:
    Budgeted production: 880 units, Actual production 750 units standard hours per unit is 10 hour,
    Actual working hours: 6000 hours

    1. A125 %
    2. B80%
    3. C75 %
    4. D120 %

    Answer: (A) 125 %

    Explanation

    Efficiency ratio = (standard hours for actual output / actual hours worked) × 100. Standard hours are 750 × 10 = 7,500; therefore 7,500 / 6,000 × 100 = 125%.

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17. Question 17

    Given the interest rate on one-year loan is 14.5 % and inflation is expected to be 6.5% in India.
    What should be the interest rate on one-year maturity loan in Thailand when expected inflation rate
    is 8.5%?

    1. A18.35%
    2. B14.65 %
    3. C16.65 %
    4. D16.35 %

    Answer: (C) 16.65 %

    Explanation

    Using the international Fisher relationship, preserve the real rate: India’s real rate is approximately 14.5% − 6.5% = 8%. Adding Thailand’s expected inflation of 8.5% gives approximately 16.5%; the listed choice is 16.65%.

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18. Question 18

    The linear relationship between the excess return on individual securities and overall market
    at every point in time is known as

    1. ACapital Market Line (CML)
    2. BSecurity Market Line (SML)
    3. CSecurity Characteristic Line (SCL)
    4. DMarket Specification Bias (MSB)

    Answer: (C) Security Characteristic Line (SCL)

    Explanation

    A security characteristic line plots the excess return on an individual security against the excess return on the market. The capital market line and security market line are equilibrium pricing relationships, not this observed return regression.

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19. Question 19

    What should be the economic order quantity (EOQ) for procurement of 20000 units annually
    at a price of Rs 12 per unit for consumption in production, when the cost per order is Rs 2000 and
    the inventory carrying cost is 25 % percent of Inventory value?

    1. A6000 units
    2. B5164 units
    3. C6145 units
    4. D5416 units

    Answer: (B) 5164 units

    Explanation

    EOQ balances ordering cost against inventory-carrying cost: EOQ = √(2DS/H). Here D = 20,000, S = 2,000, and H = 25% × 12 = 3, so √(80,000,000/3) ≈ 5,164 units. None of the other quantities satisfies this calculation.

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20. Question 20

    Which one the following describes the relationship between market value of a firm’s securities
    and replacement cost of its physical assets?

    1. ATobin’s q- ratio
    2. BResidual analysis
    3. CRetention ratio
    4. DBook to price ratio

    Answer: (A) Tobin’s q- ratio

    Explanation

    Tobin’s q compares the market value of a firm’s securities with the replacement cost of its physical assets. A q greater than one indicates that the market values the firm above the replacement cost of those assets.

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21. Question 21

    What are the segmentation variables used to segment the market for toothpaste as a product?

    1. ADemographic Segmentation Bases
    2. BPsychological Segmentation Bases
    3. CBehavioural Segmentation Bases
    4. DGeographical Segmentation Bases

    Answer: (C) Behavioural Segmentation Bases

    Explanation

    Toothpaste buyers are commonly segmented by benefits sought, usage, and loyalty—behavioural variables. Demographic or geographic variables can supplement a segmentation study, but they are not the principal basis implied here.

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22. Question 22

    The stages of a turnaround process are

    1. ARealignment, Retrenchment and Recovery
    2. BRealignment, Stabilise and Recovery
    3. CReassess, Stabilise and Survival
    4. DReassess, Retrenchment and Survival

    Answer: (A) Realignment, Retrenchment and Recovery

    Explanation

    A turnaround normally begins with realignment of the business, proceeds through retrenchment to restore viability, and then moves to recovery. The alternatives omit the standard retrenchment-and-recovery sequence.

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23. Question 23

    In Porter’s Generic Strategies Model, a focus strategy involves

    1. ASelling a limited range of products.
    2. BSelling to a narrow customers segment.
    3. CSelling simple products that are cheap to produce.
    4. DSelling simple products that are cheap to produce.

    Answer: (B) Selling to a narrow customers segment.

    Explanation

    A focus strategy targets a narrow, well-defined customer segment or niche. It does not simply mean selling a limited product range or producing inexpensive products.

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24. Question 24

    This system of distribution channel consists of producers, wholesaler and the retailers acting
    as a unified system. One channel member owns their other, has contracts with them or wields so
    much power that they must cooperate. Name this system of channel distribution

    1. AConvectional Distribution Channel
    2. BVertical Marketing System (VMS)
    3. CConsumer Distribution System
    4. DNational Marketing Distribution System

    Answer: (B) Vertical Marketing System (VMS)

    Explanation

    A vertical marketing system coordinates producers, wholesalers, and retailers as one system through ownership, contracts, or channel power. Conventional channels operate as independent firms instead.

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25. Question 25

    Complex buying behaviour is characterised by:

    1. AProducts are of low risks, but the involvement level is high.
    2. BWhen the level of involvement is high and the significant difference the brand is low.
    3. CWhen the level of involvement is low and significant difference among the brand is high.
    4. DWhen the level of involvement is high and significant difference among the brand is high.

    Answer: (D) When the level of involvement is high and significant difference among the brand is high.

    Explanation

    Complex buying behaviour occurs when purchase involvement is high and buyers perceive meaningful differences among brands. This is common for costly, risky, or infrequent purchases.

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26. Question 26

    A brand extension strategy refers to

    1. AExtending existing brand names to forms of an existing product strategy.
    2. BExtending an existing brand name to a new or modified product in a new category.
    3. CComing out with different brands in a given product category.
    4. DAll the above

    Answer: (B) Extending an existing brand name to a new or modified product in a new category.

    Explanation

    Brand extension uses an established brand name for a new or modified product in a new category. Different brands in one category are multibranding, so they do not define brand extension.

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27. Question 27

    Coke has started coke parlours- the red lounge - for tech crazy adolescent called “Experience
    Outlets”. What type of differentiation strategy this can be called?

    1. ADifferentiating the service utilizing brand image.
    2. BDifferentiating through people.
    3. CDifferentiating a process.
    4. DDifferentiating through physical evidence.

    Answer: (D) Differentiating through physical evidence.

    Explanation

    The Coke parlour changes the tangible service environment customers experience: the themed lounge is physical evidence. It is not a change to the production process or to the people delivering the service.

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28. Question 28

    The CRM strategy adopted by Big Bazaar in India is all about

    1. AFrequency marketing Program
    2. BClub Membership Program
    3. CStructural relationship Program
    4. DExperiential Relationship Program

    Answer: (A) Frequency marketing Program

    Explanation

    Big Bazaar’s CRM approach rewarded repeat purchases and encouraged customers to return, which is frequency marketing. Club membership and structural programmes use different relationship mechanisms.

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29. Question 29

    Six Sigma levels of Quality Management results in

    1. A34 defects per one million
    2. B3.4 Defects per million
    3. C3.0 defects per million
    4. D3.2 defects per million

    Answer: (B) 3.4 Defects per million

    Explanation

    Six Sigma quality targets about 3.4 defects per million opportunities. The other defect rates are not the standard Six Sigma benchmark.

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30. Question 30

    Automobile Assembly or Manufacturing follows which one of the following type of layouts?

    1. AProcess layout
    2. BFixed position Layout
    3. CProduction Focussed Layout
    4. DCellular layout

    Answer: (C) Production Focussed Layout

    Explanation

    Automobile assembly follows a product- or production-focused layout because workstations are arranged in the sequence of operations for a standardized product. A process layout instead groups similar functions together.

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31. Question 31

    Which one of the following is not a method of primary data collection?

    1. AInterview
    2. BQuestionnaire
    3. CDelphi Technique
    4. DDocuments

    Answer: (D) Documents

    Explanation

    Documents are secondary data because they already exist before the researcher collects them. Interviews, questionnaires, and the Delphi technique obtain information directly for the study.

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32. Question 32

    One use of regression line is

    1. ATo determine if any X value are outlets
    2. BTo determine if any value are outliers
    3. CTo determine if any change in x cases a change in y
    4. DTo estimate the change in Y or one-unit change of x

    Answer: (D) To estimate the change in Y or one-unit change of x

    Explanation

    A regression line estimates the expected change in the dependent variable Y for a one-unit change in X. It shows association for prediction; it does not by itself establish that a change in X causes Y.

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33. Question 33

    Which one of the following International Trade theories, the ‘Leontief paradox’ pertains to

    1. AComparative Advantage theory
    2. BProduct life cycle theory
    3. CHeckscher-Ohlin Theory
    4. DAbsolute advantage theory

    Answer: (C) Heckscher-Ohlin Theory

    Explanation

    The Leontief paradox challenged the Heckscher–Ohlin prediction by finding that a capital-abundant United States exported relatively labour-intensive goods. It is therefore linked to the Heckscher–Ohlin theory.

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34. Question 34

    FDI in multi- brand retailing in India is

    1. ACapped to 49 % and had to approach to Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP)
       for permission
    2. BCapped to 51 % but not under automatic route in India
    3. CCapped to 51 % but under Automatic route in India
    4. DCapped to 51% but under automatic route with few strings attached

    Answer: (B) Capped to 51 % but not under automatic route in India

    Explanation

    At the relevant time, FDI in multi-brand retail was permitted up to 51% but was not under the automatic route. The investor needed government approval, so the automatic-route alternatives are incorrect.

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35. Question 35

    The current Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) announced by Government of India covers the policy
    period

    1. A1995- 2000
    2. B2000- 2005
    3. C1996- 2001
    4. D2015 – 2020

    Answer: (D) 2015 – 2020

    Explanation

    The Foreign Trade Policy then in force covered 2015–2020. The other periods refer to earlier trade-policy cycles.

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36. Question 36

    An information system that captures and records fundamental business events is a (n)

    1. ATransaction Processing System
    2. BExecutive Information System
    3. CDecision Support System
    4. DExpert System

    Answer: (A) Transaction Processing System

    Explanation

    A transaction processing system records routine, fundamental business events such as sales, payments, and inventory movements. DSS and executive systems use information for analysis rather than capturing transactions at source.

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37. Question 37

    Under the Sick Industrial Companies (Special Provision) Act, 1985. A Sick Industrial
    Company means

    1. ABeing a company registered for not less than 10 years, which has at the end of any financial
       year accumulated losses equals to 50 % of its net worth.
    2. BBeing a company registered for not less than five years which has at the end of any financial
       year accumulated losses exceeding its entire net worth.
    3. CBeing a company, which has accumulated losses equal to its entire net worth.
    4. DBeing a company which immediately after start, has accumulated losses which eats up 50 % of
       its entire net worth.

    Answer: (B) Being a company registered for not less than five years which has at the end of any financial
    year accumulated losses exceeding its entire net worth.

    Explanation

    Under the Sick Industrial Companies Act, a sick industrial company had to be registered for at least five years and have accumulated losses equal to or exceeding its entire net worth at the end of a financial year.

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38. Question 38

    Disruptive Innovations in business are those that

    1. ACreate new market by offering value products.
    2. BInvolve often, new technology or a new business model to offer value to the market.
    3. CDisplace established market leading firms, Products and alliances.
    4. DAll the above.

    Answer: (D) All the above.

    Explanation

    Disruptive innovation can create new value markets, use new technology or a new business model, and ultimately displace established products or firms. Since all three statements describe disruption, “All the above” is correct.

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39. Question 39

    Marketing support/assistance to MSMEs for Bar code allows

    1. AReimbursement of 80% of the onetime registration fees and 80% of the annual recurring fees
       for first three year paid by MSMEs to GST India for bar coding.
    2. BReimbursement of 75% of the onetime registration fees only paid by MSMES to GS1 India for
       bar-coding.
    3. CReimbursement of 75% of the recurring fees for first three years paid by MSMEs to GS1 India
       for bar-coding.
    4. DReimbursement of 75% of the onetime registration fees and 75% of the annual recurring fees
       for the first three year paid by MSMEs to GS1 India for bar coding.

    Answer: (D) Reimbursement of 75% of the onetime registration fees and 75% of the annual recurring fees
    for the first three year paid by MSMEs to GS1 India for bar coding.

    Explanation

    The barcode assistance reimbursed 75% of both the one-time registration fee and annual recurring fee for the first three years paid to GS1 India. Options that reimburse only one component are incomplete.

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40. Question 40

    The MSMED Act to cover Micro, Small and Medium Industries in India was introduced in

    1. AJune 2006
    2. BJune 2005
    3. CJune 2007
    4. DAugust 2008

    Answer: (A) June 2006

    Explanation

    The Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act was enacted in June 2006. The other dates do not match the statute’s introduction.

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41. Question 41

    The approaches to management thinking which were developed during the first half of the 20th
    century is
    a. Scientific management, general administrative, quantitative and contingency approach
    b. Scientific management, general administrative, quantitative and organisational behaviour
    c. General administrative, globalisation, organisational behaviour and quantities
    d. System approach, scientific management, general administrative and organisational behaviour
    Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

    1. Aa and b
    2. Bb and c
    3. Cb only
    4. Dd only

    Answer: (C) b only

    Explanation

    The early twentieth-century approaches include scientific management, general administrative theory, quantitative methods, and organisational behaviour. The option containing only statement b is therefore the correct listed combination.

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42. Question 42

    In a rising income scenario, the obvious decision choices of firms having very low income
    elasticity for their products would be:
    a. Search for new markets
    b. Product innovation
    c. Discontinuation of product line
    d. Product line extension
    e. Exporting
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

    1. Aa, b and c only
    2. Bc, d and e only
    3. Cb and d only
    4. Db and e only

    Answer: (C) b and d only

    Explanation

    When income elasticity is very low, rising income alone will not substantially expand demand. Product innovation and product-line extension are sensible ways to create new demand, which is why b and d are selected.

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43. Question 43

    The underlying principles of the Combined Code of Corporate Governance and Conduct are
    (a) Acceptability
    (b) Openness
    (c) Integrity
    (d) Accountability and Responsibility
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa only
    2. Ba and c only
    3. Cb and d
    4. Dd only

    Answer: (C) b and d

    Explanation

    The relevant Combined Code principles here are openness plus accountability and responsibility. “Acceptability” and “integrity” are not the listed pair in this formulation, so b and d is correct.

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44. Question 44

    Which of the following HR decision can be influenced by HR analytics?
    a. HR planning
    b. Succession Planning
    c. Hiring
    d. Performance
    e. Compensation and Rewards
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa, c, d only
    2. Bc and e only
    3. Cc, d, e only
    4. Da, b, c, d and e

    Answer: (D) a, b, c, d and e

    Explanation

    HR analytics can inform workforce planning, succession, hiring, performance management, and rewards by turning workforce data into evidence for decisions. It is not limited to only one or two HR processes.

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45. Question 45

    Which of the following should be avoided by the interviewers?
    a. Establish an easy and informal relationship
    b. Analyse career and interests to reveal strength, weakness, pattern of behaviour
    c. Ask leading questions
    d. Plunge too quickly into demanding questions
    e. Encourage the candidates to talk
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the questions given below:

    1. Aa, c, d only
    2. Bc, d only
    3. Cc, d, e only
    4. Db, c only

    Answer: (B) c, d only

    Explanation

    Interviewers should avoid leading questions because they suggest the desired answer, and should not plunge immediately into demanding questions because that can inhibit the candidate. Building rapport and encouraging discussion are appropriate.

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46. Question 46

    What out of the following are the involvements of the Strategic Human Resource Management
    in Corporate Strategy?
    a. Human Resource Management is fully integrated with strategy and strategic needs of the firms.
    b. Human Resource policies cohere both across policy areas and across hierarchies.
    c. Human Resource practices are adjusted, accepted and use by line managers and employees as
    part of their daily work.
    d. Human Resource architecture is composed of the systems, practices, competencies and employee
    performance behaviour that reflect the development and management of the firm’s human resource.
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the question given below:

    1. Aa, b and c only
    2. Bb, c and d only
    3. Ca, b and d only
    4. Da, c, d only

    Answer: (C) a, b and d only

    Explanation

    Strategic HRM integrates HR with business strategy, aligns HR policies across levels, and builds an HR architecture of systems, competencies, and practices. The line-manager acceptance statement is useful operationally but is not one of the core listed involvements.

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47. Question 47

    Award under the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947 is
    (a) Interim determination of Labour Court.
    (b) Not an arbitration award under section 10 A
    (c) Final determination of Labour Court
    (d) Not final determination of Labour Court
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa and c only
    2. Ba and b only
    3. Ca, b and c only
    4. Db and d only

    Answer: (C) a, b and c only

    Explanation

    An award under the Industrial Disputes Act is an interim or final determination of a labour court, tribunal, or arbitrator; it is distinct from an arbitration award under section 10A. Thus a, b, and c are included.

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48. Question 48

    Which of the following labour laws are related to working hours, conditions of services and
    employment?
    a. The Payment of Wages Act, 1936
    b. The Trade Union Act, 1926
    c. The Factories Act, 1948
    d. The Mines Act, 1952
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa and c only
    2. Ba and d only
    3. Cc and d only
    4. Db, c and d only

    Answer: (C) c and d only

    Explanation

    The Factories Act and Mines Act directly regulate working hours, service conditions, and employment in their respective workplaces. The Payment of Wages Act and Trade Unions Act address different labour-law matters.

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49. Question 49

    Which of the following statements are included in financial statements?
    a. Cash flow statements
    b. Funds flow statement
    c. Balance sheet
    d. Statement of change in equity
    e. Income statement
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa, b , c and d only
    2. Ba, c, d and e only
    3. Cb, c, d and e only
    4. Db, c and e only

    Answer: (B) a, c, d and e only

    Explanation

    A complete financial-statement set includes the balance sheet, income statement, cash-flow statement, and statement of changes in equity. A funds-flow statement is not part of the standard set, so a, c, d, and e are correct.

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50. Question 50

    Which of the following cause conflicting ranking of an investment opportunity under NPV
    and IRR criteria?
    a. Cash flow disparity
    b. Investment size dispute
    C. Investment life disparity
    d. Product life cycle disparity
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

    1. Aa, b and c only
    2. Bb, c and d only
    3. Ca, c and d only
    4. Da, b and d only

    Answer: (A) a, b and c only

    Explanation

    NPV and IRR can rank projects differently when their cash-flow timing differs, initial investment size differs, or project lives differ. Product-life-cycle disparity is not the standard technical cause of the conflict.

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51. Question 51

    For which of the following considerations, Investor prefers current (near) cash flows over
    future (distant) cash flows?
    a. Inflation and value erosion.
    b. Risk aversion and avoidance
    c. Liquidity preference
    d. Return generation and value promotion
    e. Risk appetite and tolerance
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa, b and e only
    2. Ba, d and e only
    3. Ca, d and e only
    4. Da, b, c and d only

    Answer: (D) a, b, c and d only

    Explanation

    Investors prefer nearer cash flows because inflation erodes future purchasing power, risk rises with time, liquidity is valuable, and earlier cash can be reinvested. Risk appetite is not a reason to prefer earlier cash.

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52. Question 52

    Based on asymmetric information, managers prefer to finance firm’s capital structure in which
    orders are postulated in the pecking order theory?
    a. Retained earnings and internal sources
    b. External debt financing
    c. Hybrid security and convertible bonds
    d. New issues of equity share
    Choose the correct order from the options given below:

    1. Aa, d, c and b
    2. Ba, b, c and d
    3. Cb, c, a and d
    4. Dc, d, a and b

    Answer: (B) a, b, c and d

    Explanation

    Pecking-order theory ranks financing as internal funds first, then debt, then hybrid securities, and equity last because asymmetric information makes new equity costly. The sequence is a, b, c, d.

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53. Question 53

    Which of the followings are integral dimensions of a firm’s credit policy?
    a. Credit standards
    b. Credit appraisal
    c. Credit period
    d. Cash discount
    e. Collection period
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

    1. Aa, b, c and d
    2. Ba, c, d and e only
    3. Ca, b, c and d only
    4. Da. b. c and e only

    Answer: (A) a, b, c and d

    Explanation

    Credit standards, credit appraisal, credit period, and cash discount are core dimensions of credit policy. They determine whom to lend to, on what terms, and at what collection incentive.

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54. Question 54

    According to the Ansoff Product Market Expansion Grid, intensification can be achieved
    through three distinct strategies. Identify them out of the following:
    a. Market attractiveness
    b. Market penetration
    c. Market development
    d. Product development
    Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

    1. Aa, b and c only
    2. Bb, c and d only
    3. Ca, b and d only
    4. Da, c and d only

    Answer: (B) b, c and d only

    Explanation

    Ansoff’s growth choices are market penetration, market development, and product development. Market attractiveness is an assessment criterion, not one of the three growth strategies.

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55. Question 55

    Under the cost-based pricing, the following methods approaches commonly are commonly
    used:
    a. Marginal costing pricing
    b. Mark up pricing (cost plus pricing)
    c. Absorption cost pricing (full cost pricing)
    d. Return on investment pricing
    Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

    1. Aa, b and c only
    2. Bb, c and d only
    3. Ca, c and d only
    4. Da, b, c and d - all

    Answer: (D) a, b, c and d - all

    Explanation

    Cost-based pricing may use marginal-cost, markup/full-cost, and target-return or ROI approaches. Since each listed method is cost-based, all four apply.

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56. Question 56

    Planning, implementing and controlling the physical flow of material, final goods and related
    information from point of origin to point of consumption to meet customer requirements at a profit
    is known as:
    a. Inventory management
    b. Marketing logistics
    c. Physical Distribution
    d. Selling management
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa and b only
    2. Bb and c only
    3. Cc and d only
    4. Da and d only

    Answer: (B) b and c only

    Explanation

    Marketing logistics plans, implements, and controls the physical and information flow from origin to consumption to meet customer needs profitably. Physical distribution is its narrower traditional label.

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57. Question 57

    Customer Relationship Management performs several tasks and bring several benefits. Identify
    them out of the following
    a. Support cross selling and up selling to existing customers
    b. Manages customer interactions and customer services
    c. Serves as sustainable competitive advantages
    d. Helps convert buyer into profitable customers, build enduring relationship with them and retain
    them as customers for life.
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa, b and c only
    2. Bb, c, d only
    3. Ca, c and d only
    4. Da, b, c, d- all

    Answer: (D) a, b, c, d- all

    Explanation

    CRM supports cross-selling, manages interactions and service, can provide an advantage, and aims to build profitable lifetime relationships. Therefore all four benefits apply.

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58. Question 58

    Identify the most important type of retail stores:
    a. Convenience
    b. Online store
    c. Departmental stores
    d. Direct selling stores
    e. Superstore
    Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

    1. Aa, b and c only
    2. Ba, c and e only
    3. Cb, c and d only
    4. Da, d and e only

    Answer: (B) a, c and e only

    Explanation

    Convenience stores, department stores, and superstores are major retail-store types. Online and direct selling are retailing methods or channels rather than the store types requested.

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59. Question 59

    For calculating arithmetic means for grouped data sets assumptions are:
    a. The class interval must be closed
    b. The width of each class interval should be equal
    c. The mid value of each class interval must represent the average of all the values in that class.
    d. All values of the observations cannot be evenly distributed
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa and b only
    2. Ba, b and c only
    3. Ca and c only
    4. Da, b, c and d only

    Answer: (B) a, b and c only

    Explanation

    For grouped-data means, classes should be closed and normally equal in width, and each class midpoint is used as the representative value. The claim that observations cannot be evenly distributed is not an assumption.

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60. Question 60

    The function which states the determinants of quantity to be either maximised or minimised is
    called as:
    a. Feasible function
    b. Optimal function
    c. Criterion function
    d. Sustainability function
    e. Objective function
    Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

    1. Aa, b and c only
    2. Bc and d only
    3. Cc and e only
    4. Dc, d and e only

    Answer: (C) c and e only

    Explanation

    An objective (criterion) function expresses the quantity that an optimisation problem seeks to maximise or minimise. A feasible function describes constraints, not the target.

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61. Question 61

    What is the social enterprise concerned with?
    a. Profit maximisation
    b. Maximising market share
    c. Providing public services
    d. Running a business to create social benefits
    e. To maximise improvements in financial, social and environmental wellbeing.
    Choose the most appropriate correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa, d and e only
    2. Bc, d and e only
    3. Cd and e only
    4. Da, b, d and e only

    Answer: (C) d and e only

    Explanation

    A social enterprise operates a business primarily to create social benefit while maintaining financial viability. It is not defined by profit or market-share maximisation alone.

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62. Question 62

    At the time of exporting goods from India, what documents are to be filed for custom clearance
    of goods?
    a. Shipping bill
    b. Airway bill
    c. Invoice (Commercial Invoice)
    d. Packing list
    e. Marine insurance policy
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa, c, d only
    2. Ba, b, c, d only
    3. Ca, c, d, e only
    4. Da, c, e only

    Answer: (A) a, c, d only

    Explanation

    For export customs clearance, the shipping bill, commercial invoice, and packing list are the core documents. An airway bill applies only to air carriage, and marine insurance is not a universal clearance filing.

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63. Question 63

    Identify the techniques of artificial Intelligence from the following:
    a. Artificial Neural Network
    b. Heuristics
    c. Fuzzy models
    d. Support vector
    e. Genetic algorithms
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa, c and d only
    2. Ba, c and e only
    3. Cc, d and e only
    4. Da, b and c only

    Answer: (B) a, c and e only

    Explanation

    Artificial neural networks, fuzzy models, and genetic algorithms are recognised AI techniques. Support-vector methods are machine-learning classifiers, but the intended management-syllabus set is a, c, and e.

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64. Question 64

    International Cooperation scheme under marketing promotion scheme to MSME entrepreneurs
    are available for what kind of activities?
    a. Participation in international exhibitions and trade fairs
    b. Giving advertisement in international trade journals
    c. Participation in buyer seller meets in foreign country
    d. For meeting overseas agents and negotiating business
    e. For availing overseas grants and aids
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa and c only
    2. Ba, b and c only
    3. Ca, c and d only
    4. Da and d only

    Answer: (C) a, c and d only

    Explanation

    The scheme supports international exhibitions and trade fairs, buyer–seller meetings abroad, and meeting overseas agents to negotiate business. It does not fund trade-journal advertising or overseas grants.

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65. Question 65

    The statement that entrepreneurship is the mother of foresights and willingness to assume risks
    in undertaking particularly a new one, who has said above the underlined portion of the statement
    a. Richard Cantillon
    b. Leon Walras
    c. William Diamond
    d. Peter f ducker

    e. J. A Schumpeter
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa and c only
    2. Bb and c only
    3. Cd and e only
    4. Dc and e only

    Answer: (A) a and c only

    Explanation

    Cantillon is classically associated with the entrepreneur as a risk bearer, and the intended pairing includes William Diamond. The other proposed pairings do not match the statement’s attribution.

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66. Question 66

    Match List I with List II.

    List I	List II
    Consumer clinics	A consumer shop in a store simulated on a computer screen, where products and a shopping cart are selected by touch
    Market experiments	Actual-marketplace studies that record consumer responses after changes in demand determinants
    Virtual shopping	A computer-screen simulated consumer shop
    Virtual management	Computer-model simulation of consumer behaviour to assess managerial decisions

    1. Aa-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
    2. Ba-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
    3. Ca-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
    4. Da-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

    Answer: (B) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

    Explanation

    Consumer clinics are simulated-store laboratory studies; market experiments occur in real markets; virtual shopping uses a computer store; and virtual management uses computer modelling. That yields a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii.

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67. Question 67

    Match List I with List II.

    List I	List II
    I am OK, you are OK	Competent
    I am OK, you are not OK	Bossing
    I am not OK, you are OK	Diffident
    I am not OK, you are not OK	Avoidant

    1. Aa-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
    2. Ba-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
    3. Ca-ii, b-iv, c-iv, d-i
    4. Da-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i

    Answer: (B) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

    Explanation

    Transactional-analysis life positions map as: I am OK/you are OK = competent; I am OK/you are not OK = bossing; I am not OK/you are OK = diffident; and I am not OK/you are not OK = avoidant. That exact mapping produces a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i.

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68. Question 68

    Match List I with List II.

    List I	List II
    Labour welfare is a desirable state of physical, mental, moral and emotional well-being	Total concept
    Welfare planning considers more than the individual alone	Social concept
    Welfare work differs over time and place	Relative concept
    Welfare includes minimum biologically and socially determined conditions	Positive concept

    1. Aa-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
    2. Ba-iii, b-ii, c-I, d-iv
    3. Ca-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
    4. Da-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

    Answer: (D) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

    Explanation

    Labour welfare is a total concept, planning is social, welfare differs by time and place so it is relative, and minimum desired conditions make it a positive concept. The sequence is a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii.

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69. Question 69

    Match List I with List II.

    List I	List II
    Ind AS 8	Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates and Errors
    Ind AS 110	Consolidated Financial Statements
    Ind AS 7	Statement of Cash Flows
    Ind AS 24	Related Party Disclosures

    1. Aa-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
    2. Ba-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
    3. Ca-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
    4. Da-iv, b-ii, c- i, d-iii

    Answer: (C) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

    Explanation

    Ind AS 8 covers accounting policies and errors; Ind AS 110 consolidated statements; Ind AS 7 cash flows; and Ind AS 24 related-party disclosures. The only matching option is a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii.

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70. Question 70

    Match List I with List II.

    List I	List II
    Value creation	Mergers and acquisitions
    Value protection	Time value of money
    Asset pricing	CAPM and APT
    Price discovery	Options and futures

    1. Aa-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
    2. Ba-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
    3. Ca-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
    4. Da-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

    Answer: (A) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

    Explanation

    Value creation links to mergers and acquisitions, value protection to time value of money, asset pricing to CAPM/APT, and price discovery to options and futures.

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71. Question 71

    Match List I with List II.

    List I	List II
    Corporate strategy	Parenting strategy
    Directional strategy	Growth strategy
    Retrenchment strategy	Turnaround strategy
    Stability strategy	Pause/proceed-with-caution strategy

    1. Aa-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
    2. Ba-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
    3. Ca-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
    4. Da-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii

    Answer: (B) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

    Explanation

    Corporate strategy includes parenting; directional strategy concerns growth; retrenchment uses turnaround; and stability uses pause/proceed with caution.

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72. Question 72

    Match List I with List II.

    List I	List II
    Product	Brand
    Price	EDLP
    Place	Disintermediation
    Promotion	Click-and-mortar companies

    1. Aa-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
    2. Ba-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
    3. Ca-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
    4. Da-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

    Answer: (C) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

    Explanation

    Product relates to brand, price to EDLP, place to disintermediation, and promotion to click-and-mortar companies. EDLP is explicitly a pricing policy, whereas disintermediation changes the place/channel function.

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73. Question 73

    Match List I with List II.

    List I	List II
    Coefficient of range	(H − L)/(H + L)
    Coefficient of quartile deviation	(Q3 − Q1)/(Q3 + Q1)
    Coefficient of mean absolute deviation	Mean absolute deviation divided by mean or median
    Coefficient of variation	(σ/mean) × 100

    1. Aa-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
    2. Ba-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
    3. Ca-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
    4. Da-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

    Answer: (C) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

    Explanation

    Coefficient of range is (H−L)/(H+L), coefficient of quartile deviation is (Q3−Q1)/(Q3+Q1), coefficient of MAD uses mean absolute deviation divided by mean/median, and CV is (σ/mean)×100.

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74. Question 74

    Match List I with List II.

    List I	List II
    Bali Package	Ninth Ministerial Conference, 2013
    Doha Declaration	Fourth Ministerial Conference, 2001
    Uruguay Round	Within GATT, 1986
    Bretton Woods Conference	United Nations Conference, 1944

    1. Aa-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
    2. Ba-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
    3. Ca-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
    4. Da-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

    Answer: (D) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

    Explanation

    The Bali Package was the 2013 ninth ministerial conference; Doha was the 2001 fourth ministerial; Uruguay Round began within GATT in 1986; and Bretton Woods was in 1944.

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75. Question 75

    Match List I with List II.

    List I	List II
    Invest to grow	Stimulate entrepreneurship
    Manage earnings/protect market	Reward managerial skills
    Harvest earnings/reinvest elsewhere	Stress cost control
    Total reward strategy	Reward personal growth

    1. Aa-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
    2. Ba-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
    3. Ca-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
    4. Da-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii

    Answer: (B) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

    Explanation

    A growth strategy rewards entrepreneurship; protecting market rewards managerial skills; harvesting stresses cost control; and total rewards support personal growth.

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76. Question 76

    Find the correct sequence of management theories in their origin
    a. Bertalanffy’s system theory
    b. Elton Mayo – Human Relation Management theory
    c. Max Weber- Bureaucracy management theory
    d. F.W Taylor- scientific management theory

    e. Henri Fayol – Administrative management theory
    Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

    1. Aa-b-c-d-e
    2. Be-d-a-b-c
    3. Cc-b-d-a-e
    4. Dd-e-c-b-a

    Answer: (D) d-e-c-b-a

    Explanation

    Scientific management (Taylor) preceded Fayol’s administrative theory, Weber’s bureaucracy, Mayo’s human-relations work, and Bertalanffy’s systems theory. Thus d, e, c, b, a is chronological.

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77. Question 77

    Logically, arrange in sequence the following activities to create the architecture of the ideal
    manufacturing firm.
    a. Seamlessly integrates the physical and virtual resources
    b. Operates extremely efficient factories and plants
    c. Concentrates on the core competencies and outsources all other operations
    d. Real time enterprise to respond instantaneously to changes in its business
    e. Learning organisation facilitating cross fertilization of ideas.
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Ab, c, a, d, e
    2. Bd, e, c, a, b
    3. Cc, e, b, a, d
    4. Dc, b, a, e, d

    Answer: (C) c, e, b, a, d

    Explanation

    The ideal manufacturing architecture begins by focusing on core competences and outsourcing the rest, develops a learning organisation and efficient plants, integrates physical and virtual resources, and becomes a real-time enterprise.

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78. Question 78

    Arrange in sequence the following accounting construct and principles in order of their
    precedence.
    a. Conservation
    b. Full disclosure
    c. Separate entity and going concern
    d. Matching principle
    e. Revenue recognition
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa, b, d, c, e
    2. Bc, a, e, d, b
    3. Cc, d, e, b, a
    4. Da, d, c, e, b

    Answer: (B) c, a, e, d, b

    Explanation

    Separate entity and going concern are foundational assumptions. Conservatism guides prudence, revenue recognition precedes matching, and full disclosure follows in presenting information; hence c, a, e, d, b.

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79. Question 79

    Arrange in sequence the following steps in construction of the optimum portfolio as per the
    Sharpe Single Index Model
    a. Ranking of investment opportunity
    b. Determining investment wages
    c. Identification of invest opportunity
    d. Ascertaining the cut-off point
    e. Allocation and commitment of final resources
    Choose the correct sequence from the options given below:

    1. Ac, a, d, b, e
    2. Ba, b, c, d, e
    3. Cc, b, a, d, e
    4. Dc, d, a, b, e

    Answer: (A) c, a, d, b, e

    Explanation

    Sharpe’s single-index procedure identifies opportunities, ranks them, finds the cutoff point, determines investment weights, and finally commits resources.

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80. Question 80

    Consumers passes through five stages with every purchase arrange the stages mentioned below
    in the correct sequence starting from the first stage.

    a. Information search
    b. Evaluation of alternatives
    c. Post purchase behaviour
    d. Need recognition
    e. Purchase behaviour
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below

    1. Aa, b, c, d, e
    2. Bb, c, d, e, a
    3. Cd, a, e, b, c
    4. Dd, e, a, b, c

    Answer: (C) d, a, e, b, c

    Explanation

    Consumer buying normally follows need recognition, information search, evaluation of alternatives, purchase, and post-purchase behaviour. The printed options appear to transpose evaluation and purchase; the closest keyed sequence is d, a, e, b, c, so this item remains source-ambiguous.

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81. Question 81

    Arrange the following in descending order of importance
    a. Free trade Area
    b. Customs union
    c. Economic Cooperation
    d. Economic union
    e. Common markets
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa-d-a-e-b
    2. Ba-c-d-b-e
    3. Cc-a-d-e-b
    4. Dc-a-b-e-d

    Answer: (D) c-a-b-e-d

    Explanation

    Integration deepens from economic cooperation to a free-trade area, customs union, common market, and economic union. That sequence is c, a, b, e, d.

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82. Question 82

    The correct sequence in a business plan can be
    a. Executive summary
    b. Details about entrepreneur
    c. Marketing and economic details
    d. Financial details
    e. Human resource details
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa-b-c-d-e
    2. Bb-c-e-d-a
    3. Cb-c-a-e-d
    4. Da-b-e-d-c

    Answer: (B) b-c-e-d-a

    Explanation

    A business plan develops entrepreneur details, marketing/economic analysis, human-resource requirements, and financial projections before drafting the executive summary.

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83. Question 83

    Arrange the following group task performance according to the ascending stages of group
    development.
    a. Clarify all misunderstandings
    b. Termination of task
    c. Highly productive
    d. work output is low, focus on defining the goals and tasks
    e. Issues are resolved, group norm develop
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa, b, e, c, b
    2. Bd, a, c, e, b
    3. Cd, a, e, c, b
    4. Dd, a, e, b, c

    Answer: (C) d, a, e, c, b

    Explanation

    Group development moves from low-output goal definition, through clarification and norm formation, to high productivity and finally termination.

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84. Question 84

    Choose the correct set of options in defining the process of ‘Six Sigma’ in strategy
    implementation
    a. Define
    b. Measure
    c. Establish
    d. Improve
    e. Analyse
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Ac-d-b-e-a
    2. Bd-b-a-e-c
    3. Ce-d-b-a-c
    4. Da-b-e-d-c

    Answer: (D) a-b-e-d-c

    Explanation

    DMAIC is Define, Measure, Analyse, Improve, and Control; with “Establish” used as the final control-like stage, the sequence is a, b, e, d, c.

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85. Question 85

    Arrange the following steps involved in choosing the target market in sequence starting from
    first step
    a. Profile the stage of each segment characteristics, needs, benefits, sought, preference and buying
    behaviour.
    b. Look for segments which are relatively less satisfied by current offers for competing brands in
    the market.
    c. Identify the segment(s), look at each segment as a distinct marketing opportunity grasp what
    makes each segment unique.
    d. Evaluate whether the segment meet all attributes of effective segments. Check one presents the
    best opportunity.
    e. Finally, select the best segment- choose segments that are most appropriate for the firms as a
    target.
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa, b, c, d, e
    2. Bb, c, d, e, a
    3. Cc, a, b, d, e
    4. Dd, a, b, c, e

    Answer: (C) c, a, b, d, e

    Explanation

    Targeting starts by identifying segments and their unique characteristics, profiling them, seeking underserved segments, evaluating attractiveness, and selecting the best target.

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86. Question 86

    Given below are two statements one labelled as assertion and the other labelled as Reason R
    Assertion (A): At some point, a product sales growth will slow down, and it will enter the maturity
    stage. This maturity stage normally last longer than the previous stage of PLC and it possess strong
    challenges to the marketing management.
    Reason (R): Slowdown in sales growth is due to the acceptance of the product by most potential
    buyers. It is also due to the entry of competing firms in the market and price competition stiffening.
    In the light of the above statement choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are true, but R is not correct explanation of A
    3. CA is true but R is false.
    4. DA is False but R is true.

    Answer: (A) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of A

    Explanation

    Both statements are true: sales growth slows in maturity because most potential buyers have adopted the product and competition intensifies, explaining the assertion.

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87. Question 87

    Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
    reason R
    Assertion (A): Investors around the world are demanding socially and environmentally conscious
    options in equities, bonds, ETF or hedge funds.

    Reason (R): Climate change and environment has become “defining factors in companies’ long-term
    process in significant reallocation of capital as shortage of clean water and air has become
    existential questions.
    In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are true, and R is not correct explanation of A
    3. CA is true but R is false.
    4. DA is False but R is true.

    Answer: (A) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of A

    Explanation

    Demand for environmentally conscious investments rises because climate and resource risks materially affect long-term value and capital allocation; the reason explains the assertion.

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88. Question 88

    Given below are two statements
    Statement I: Power of the employee to remove dissatisfaction is low when the position in the
    organisation is extremely important.
    Statement II: The more the employees can believe that a union can obtain positive work aspects,
    the more the instrumental is the union for the employees.
    In the light of the above statement choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth statement I and Statement II are true.
    2. BBoth Statement I and statement II are false.
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false.
    4. DStatement I is False but Statement II is true.

    Answer: (D) Statement I is False but Statement II is true.

    Explanation

    The first statement is false: important positions can give employees greater power to address dissatisfaction. The second is true because perceived union effectiveness raises union instrumentality.

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89. Question 89

    Given below are two statements
    Statement I: In psychographic segmentation of the market, the science of psychology is used for
    understanding and segmenting the consumers.
    Statement II: Segmenting consumers based on psychographics rests on identifying consumer’s state
    of mind and hence helps in piecing together with a more incisive profile of the target consumers.
    In the light of the above statement choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth statement I and Statement II are true.
    2. BBoth Statement I and statement II are false.
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false.
    4. DStatement I is False but Statement II is true

    Answer: (A) Both statement I and Statement II are true.

    Explanation

    Psychographic segmentation draws on psychology to understand lifestyles, motives, attitudes, and states of mind, producing a richer target-customer profile.

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90. Question 90

    Given below are two statements:
    Statement I: Quota sampling is the non random method of selecting a sample from a population.
    Statement II: The standard error of the estimate is inversely proportional to the square root of the
    sample size.
    In the light of the above statement choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth statement I and Statement II are true.
    2. BBoth Statement I and statement II are false.
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false.
    4. DStatement I is False but Statement II is true

    Answer: (A) Both statement I and Statement II are true.

    Explanation

    Quota sampling is non-probability sampling, and sampling error falls as sample size rises because standard error varies inversely with the square root of n.

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91. Question 91

    What is the role played by marketing in the organisation?

    1. AIt is considered as an entrepreneurial function of business
    2. BIt is considered as a strategic function of the business
    3. CIt is considered as entrepreneurial and strategic functions of the business
    4. DIt is considered as subordinate role of business.

    Answer: (C) It is considered as entrepreneurial and strategic functions of the business

    Explanation

    Marketing is both entrepreneurial, because it identifies opportunities and creates value, and strategic, because it shapes customer and competitive choices.

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92. Question 92

    The main function of marketing is to ___?

    1. AGenerate profits
    2. BBuild relationship with customers
    3. CMeet customer needs
    4. DMeet customer needs, build relationship with customers and also generate profit

    Answer: (D) Meet customer needs, build relationship with customers and also generate profit

    Explanation

    Marketing must meet customer needs, build lasting customer relationships, and generate profit; treating only one of these as its main function is incomplete.

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93. Question 93

    Which one of the following different concepts of marketing holds the generating customer
    satisfaction is the main task of marketing?

    1. AExchange concept
    2. BProduct concept
    3. CSelling concept
    4. DMarketing concept

    Answer: (D) Marketing concept

    Explanation

    The marketing concept makes customer satisfaction central to achieving organisational goals. Product and selling concepts focus more narrowly on product quality or sales volume.

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94. Question 94

    Name the process which involves selecting the values to be offered, creating the values,
    communicating the value, delivering the value and capturing the value back from the market.

    1. AProduct –delivery process
    2. BCorporate brand delivery process
    3. CValue delivery process
    4. DMarketing process

    Answer: (C) Value delivery process

    Explanation

    The described sequence—selecting, creating, communicating, delivering, and capturing value—is the value delivery process. The printed “ANS. B” is inconsistent with the concept and is not followed.

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95. Question 95

    Marketing myopia concept refers to_________?

    1. AA narrow perception of marketing.
    2. BThe value concept of marketing.
    3. CSocial marketing concept of marketing.
    4. DGreen marketing concept of marketing. Read the passage and attempt the questions that follow:
       Mr. Mohan an MBA with specialisation in Human Resources joined a company XYZ into the
       business of garments in Delhi. Before joining the company XYZ, he had a prior experience of
       working in corporates for 5 years. He has worked in the area of compensation dealing with workers
       and employees. In the company XYZ, Mr. Mohan was entrusted with the work of dealing with both
       workers and executives and look towards their compensation both in theory and as prescribed by
       the government of Delhi. The company XYZ believed in both types of benefits to be given to their
       employees- both workers and executives- fringe benefits and non-fringe benefits. For executives,
       the company XYZ believes in equity both within the company and outside also. All policies of the
       company relating to compensation management were told to Mr Mohan and he must follow them
       objectively.

    Answer: (A) A narrow perception of marketing.

    Explanation

    Marketing myopia is a narrow, short-sighted view of the business, often focused on the product rather than the customer need or value being served.

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96. Question 96

    Executives ask the company XYZ to give them perquisites and Mr. Mohan has to decide. Out
    of the following which one is perquisite?

    1. AGroup Insurance
    2. BMedical allowance
    3. CClub Membership
    4. DProvident fund

    Answer: (C) Club Membership

    Explanation

    Club membership is a perquisite: a non-cash benefit or privilege attached to an executive role. Provident fund and insurance are employee-benefit provisions, while medical allowance is cash.

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97. Question 97

    If you were Mr. Mohan, which of the following is an example of payment that is consistent
    from period to period despite the number of hours worked?

    1. AWage
    2. BSalary
    3. CReward
    4. DIncentive

    Answer: (B) Salary

    Explanation

    Salary is a fixed periodic payment that does not vary with hours worked. Wages commonly depend on hours or output, and incentives vary with performance.

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98. Question 98

    Management of XYZ company asks Mr. Mohan to answer the question that,’ A behaviour
    which has a rewarding experience is likely to be repeated’ is postulated by ________?

    1. ABehavioural theory
    2. BReinforcement and expectancy theory
    3. CAgency theory
    4. DContingency theory

    Answer: (B) Reinforcement and expectancy theory

    Explanation

    Reinforcement theory states that behaviour followed by a rewarding consequence is more likely to be repeated. Agency and contingency theories address different organisational relationships.

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99. Question 99

    From the knowledge acquired by Mr Mohan during the MBA program, He has to explain to
    the management of the company XYZ that out of the following, which one is not a part of the
    Remuneration Model?

    1. AJob Description
    2. BJob Analysis
    3. CJob hierarchy
    4. DJob Evaluation

    Answer: (A) Job Description

    Explanation

    A remuneration model uses job analysis, job evaluation, and job hierarchy to establish relative job worth and pay structure. Job description is an output of job analysis, not a core remuneration-model component.

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100. Question 100

     Mr. Mohan, Hr Executive of XYZ Company, has to design a compensation plan that must be

     1. AUnderstandable, Workable, Acceptable
     2. BReasonable, Workable, Acceptable
     3. CUnderstandable, feasible, Acceptance
     4. DUnderstandable, workable, compensable

     Answer: (A) Understandable, Workable, Acceptable

     Explanation

     A compensation plan must be understandable to employees, workable for the organisation, and acceptable to both parties. The other combinations omit one of these core design requirements.

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