UGC NET Management December 2023 Question PaperPaper 1 & Paper 2 with Answer Key

50 questions with the answer key and explanations.

1. Question 1

   The percentage (%) distribution of 12th class students scoring (i) 95% or more marks, and (ii) between 90-95% marks, along with the ratio of Girls to Boys among them, is given for six schools A-F of Delhi. Total numbers of students scoring 95% or more marks and between 90-95% marks are 6000 and 10000, respectively.

   The number of boys of schools E and F together who scored 95% or more marks is approximately ______ % less than the number of girls of schools B and E together who scored between 90-95% marks.

   School	95% and above %	Girls : Boys	90-95% %	Girls : Boys
   A	13%	11 : 5	16%	3 : 2
   B	18%	5 : 7	6%	1 : 4
   C	17%	3 : 5	10%	5 : 3
   D	8%	7 : 1	28%	2 : 3
   E	24%	5 : 4	21%	9 : 5
   F	20%	5 : 3	19%	3 : 4

   Percentage distribution and Girls:Boys ratio of 12th class students scoring 95%+ and 90-95% marks across schools A-F

   1. A24
   2. B26
   3. C20
   4. D22

   Answer: (B) 26

   Explanation

   Boys scoring 95%+ in E: 6000 x 24% = 1440 students, split 5:4 (Girls:Boys), so boys = 1440 x 4/9 = 640. In F: 6000 x 20% = 1200 students, split 5:3, so boys = 1200 x 3/8 = 450. Boys of E and F together = 640 + 450 = 1090. Girls scoring 90-95% in B: 10000 x 6% = 600 students, split 1:4, so girls = 600 x 1/5 = 120. In E: 10000 x 21% = 2100 students, split 9:5, so girls = 2100 x 9/14 = 1350. Girls of B and E together = 120 + 1350 = 1470. Percentage less = (1470 - 1090)/1470 x 100 = 380/1470 x 100 ≈ 25.85%, which is closest to 26%.

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2. Question 2

   The percentage (%) distribution of 12th class students scoring (i) 95% or more marks, and (ii) between 90-95% marks, along with the ratio of Girls to Boys among them, is given for six schools A-F of Delhi. Total numbers of students scoring 95% or more marks and between 90-95% marks are 6000 and 10000, respectively.

   What is the ratio of the number of boys of school C who scored between 90-95% marks to the number of boys who scored 95% or more marks in the same school?

   School	95% and above %	Girls : Boys	90-95% %	Girls : Boys
   A	13%	11 : 5	16%	3 : 2
   B	18%	5 : 7	6%	1 : 4
   C	17%	3 : 5	10%	5 : 3
   D	8%	7 : 1	28%	2 : 3
   E	24%	5 : 4	21%	9 : 5
   F	20%	5 : 3	19%	3 : 4

   Percentage distribution and Girls:Boys ratio of 12th class students scoring 95%+ and 90-95% marks across schools A-F

   1. A5 : 9
   2. B10 : 17
   3. C10 : 13
   4. D12 : 17

   Answer: (B) 10 : 17

   Explanation

   Students scoring 90-95% in school C = 10000 x 10% = 1000, split Girls:Boys = 5:3, so boys = 1000 x 3/8 = 375. Students scoring 95%+ in school C = 6000 x 17% = 1020, split Girls:Boys = 3:5, so boys = 1020 x 5/8 = 637.5. Ratio = 375 : 637.5 = 10 : 17 (dividing both by 37.5).

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3. Question 3

   The percentage (%) distribution of 12th class students scoring (i) 95% or more marks, and (ii) between 90-95% marks, along with the ratio of Girls to Boys among them, is given for six schools A-F of Delhi. Total numbers of students scoring 95% or more marks and between 90-95% marks are 6000 and 10000, respectively.

   Average number of boys who scored between 90-95% marks from schools A-E together is:

   School	95% and above %	Girls : Boys	90-95% %	Girls : Boys
   A	13%	11 : 5	16%	3 : 2
   B	18%	5 : 7	6%	1 : 4
   C	17%	3 : 5	10%	5 : 3
   D	8%	7 : 1	28%	2 : 3
   E	24%	5 : 4	21%	9 : 5
   F	20%	5 : 3	19%	3 : 4

   Percentage distribution and Girls:Boys ratio of 12th class students scoring 95%+ and 90-95% marks across schools A-F

   1. A746
   2. B718
   3. C725
   4. D785

   Answer: (D) 785

   Explanation

   Boys scoring 90-95% per school (out of 10000 total): A = 10000 x 16% x 2/5 = 640; B = 10000 x 6% x 4/5 = 480; C = 10000 x 10% x 3/8 = 375; D = 10000 x 28% x 3/5 = 1680; E = 10000 x 21% x 5/14 = 750. Sum for A-E = 640 + 480 + 375 + 1680 + 750 = 3925. Average = 3925 / 5 = 785.

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4. Question 4

   The percentage (%) distribution of 12th class students scoring (i) 95% or more marks, and (ii) between 90-95% marks, along with the ratio of Girls to Boys among them, is given for six schools A-F of Delhi. Total numbers of students scoring 95% or more marks and between 90-95% marks are 6000 and 10000, respectively.

   For school E, the difference between the numbers of boys who scored 95% or more marks and boys who scored between 90-95% marks is:

   School	95% and above %	Girls : Boys	90-95% %	Girls : Boys
   A	13%	11 : 5	16%	3 : 2
   B	18%	5 : 7	6%	1 : 4
   C	17%	3 : 5	10%	5 : 3
   D	8%	7 : 1	28%	2 : 3
   E	24%	5 : 4	21%	9 : 5
   F	20%	5 : 3	19%	3 : 4

   Percentage distribution and Girls:Boys ratio of 12th class students scoring 95%+ and 90-95% marks across schools A-F

   1. A115
   2. B120
   3. C110
   4. D105

   Answer: (C) 110

   Explanation

   Total students scoring 95%+ in school E = 6000 x 24% = 1440, split Girls:Boys = 5:4 (9 parts total), so boys = 1440 x 4/9 = 640. Total students scoring 90-95% in school E = 10000 x 21% = 2100, split Girls:Boys = 9:5 (14 parts total), so boys = 2100 x 5/14 = 750. The required difference between these two boy counts = 750 - 640 = 110, which does not match options A (115), B (120), or D (105).

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5. Question 5

   The percentage (%) distribution of 12th class students scoring (i) 95% or more marks, and (ii) between 90-95% marks, along with the ratio of Girls to Boys among them, is given for six schools A-F of Delhi. Total numbers of students scoring 95% or more marks and between 90-95% marks are 6000 and 10000, respectively.

   The number of girls of school B who scored between 90-95% marks is approximately ______ % of the number of girls of school D who scored 95% or more marks.

   School	95% and above %	Girls : Boys	90-95% %	Girls : Boys
   A	13%	11 : 5	16%	3 : 2
   B	18%	5 : 7	6%	1 : 4
   C	17%	3 : 5	10%	5 : 3
   D	8%	7 : 1	28%	2 : 3
   E	24%	5 : 4	21%	9 : 5
   F	20%	5 : 3	19%	3 : 4

   Percentage distribution and Girls:Boys ratio of 12th class students scoring 95%+ and 90-95% marks across schools A-F

   1. A28.57
   2. B22.46
   3. C29.95
   4. D32.46

   Answer: (A) 28.57

   Explanation

   Total students scoring 90-95% in school B = 10000 x 6% = 600, split Girls:Boys = 1:4 (5 parts total), so girls = 600 x 1/5 = 120. Total students scoring 95%+ in school D = 6000 x 8% = 480, split Girls:Boys = 7:1 (8 parts total), so girls = 480 x 7/8 = 420. Required percentage = 120/420 x 100 = 28.57%, which does not match options B (22.46), C (29.95), or D (32.46).

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6. Question 6

   Which of the following statements is/are true?
   A. BIOS is an example of Application Software.
   B. A utility software is an example of firmware.
   C. Spyware is an example of malware.

   1. A(A) Only
   2. B(B) Only
   3. C(C) Only
   4. D(B) and (C) Only

   Answer: (C) (C) Only

   Explanation

   BIOS is firmware/system software that initializes hardware at boot, not application software, so A is false. Utility software (disk cleanup, antivirus tools) is a category of system software, not firmware, so B is false. Spyware, which secretly monitors and collects user data, is indeed a type of malicious software (malware), so C is true. Only statement C holds.

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7. Question 7

   Businesses use ICT to build positive customer relations by:

   1. ACalling customers at home
   2. BCreating targeted marketing campaigns
   3. CPlacing pop-up advertisements on websites
   4. DSending unsolicited e-mails

   Answer: (B) Creating targeted marketing campaigns

   Explanation

   ICT enables businesses to analyze customer data and behaviour to design targeted marketing campaigns that reach the right audience with relevant offers, strengthening customer relationships. Unsolicited calls, pop-up ads, and unsolicited e-mails (spam) are intrusive practices that typically damage rather than build customer goodwill.

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8. Question 8

   Which of the following statements regarding guided and unguided media in computer networking are correct?
   A. Guided media transmission supports higher data speeds than unguided media transmission.
   B. Guided media is subjected to less interference than unguided media.
   C. Unguided media transmission is more secure than guided media transmission.

   1. A(A) and (B) Only
   2. B(A) and (C) Only
   3. C(B) and (C) Only
   4. D(A), (B) and (C)

   Answer: (A) (A) and (B) Only

   Explanation

   Guided media (like fibre-optic and copper cables) physically confines the signal, allowing much higher data speeds than unguided (wireless) media, so A is correct. Because the signal travels through a controlled physical channel, guided media also experiences less external interference than unguided media broadcast through open air, so B is correct. Unguided (wireless) media is actually less secure than guided media because signals broadcast through open space can be intercepted by anyone within range, so C is false.

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9. Question 9

   Certain books are bought at prices ranging from Rs 400 to Rs 500 per book and are sold at prices ranging from Rs 500 to Rs 700 per book. Find the greatest possible profit that might be made in selling 10 books.

   1. ARs 4000
   2. BRs 3000
   3. CRs 3800
   4. DRs 7000

   Answer: (B) Rs 3000

   Explanation

   To maximize profit per book, buy at the lowest possible cost price (Rs 400) and sell at the highest possible selling price (Rs 700). Maximum profit per book = 700 - 400 = Rs 300. For 10 books, the greatest possible total profit = 300 x 10 = Rs 3000.

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10. Question 10

    In 1948, under whose chairpersonship was a University Commission appointed with the purpose of reconstruction of university education to meet the demand for scientific, technical and other manpower needed for the socio-economic development of the country?

    1. ADr. Zakir Husain
    2. BDr. S. Radhakrishnan
    3. CDr. A. L. Mudaliar
    4. DDr. D. S. Kothari

    Answer: (B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

    Explanation

    The Government of India appointed the University Education Commission on 4 November 1948 under the chairmanship of Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, then Vice-Chancellor of Banaras Hindu University and later President of India. It is popularly known as the Radhakrishnan Commission and submitted its report in August 1949, recommending reforms to align university education with the country's scientific and manpower needs. Zakir Husain and A. L. Mudaliar were members of this commission, not its chairman, and D. S. Kothari chaired the later Education Commission of 1964-66.

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11. Question 11

    Identify the advantages of close-ended questions in survey research:
    A. They allow unusual responses to be derived.
    B. It is easy to process their answers.
    C. They reduce the possibility of variability in the recording of answers.

    1. A(A) and (B) Only
    2. B(B) and (C) Only
    3. C(A) and (C) Only
    4. D(A), (B) and (C)

    Answer: (B) (B) and (C) Only

    Explanation

    Close-ended questions restrict respondents to a fixed set of pre-defined answers. Because responses fall into standard categories, they are quick and easy to code, tabulate, and process (B is true), and because the interviewer/respondent chooses from fixed options rather than writing free text, variability in how answers get recorded is reduced (C is true). Allowing unusual or unanticipated responses to emerge is instead a strength of open-ended questions, not close-ended ones, so A is false.

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12. Question 12

    Which of the following were established during the rule of the East India Company in India?
    A. St. Stephen's College, Delhi
    B. Hislop College, Nagpur
    C. Fort William College, Calcutta
    D. Serampore College, Serampore
    E. Poona Sanskrit College, Pune

    1. AA, B, C
    2. BB, C, D
    3. CA, B, E
    4. DC, D, E

    Answer: (D) C, D, E

    Explanation

    East India Company rule in India lasted until 1858. Fort William College, Calcutta was founded in 1800 to train Company officials, Serampore College was founded in 1818, and Poona Sanskrit College was established in 1821 — all three fall within the Company era, matching option D. St. Stephen's College, Delhi (founded 1881) and Hislop College, Nagpur (founded 1883) were both established later, after the British Crown took direct control of India, so A, B, C, and E (which includes B) are incorrect.

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13. Question 13

    If the statement "No professors are materialists" is given as true, then which of the following statements could be inferred to be true?

    1. AAll professors are materialists.
    2. BSome professors are materialists.
    3. CSome professors are not materialists.
    4. DSome materialists are professors.

    Answer: (C) Some professors are not materialists.

    Explanation

    "No professors are materialists" is a universal negative (E-type) proposition. By subalternation, if a universal proposition is true, its corresponding particular proposition of the same quality is also true (assuming the subject class is non-empty). The particular negative (O-type) proposition derived from this E statement is "Some professors are not materialists," which must be true. "All professors are materialists" (A) directly contradicts the given statement. "Some professors are materialists" (B) and "Some materialists are professors" (D) both assert an overlap between professors and materialists, which the given universal negative statement rules out.

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14. Question 14

    The Western Communication concept is characterised by:
    A. Polydirectionality
    B. Unidirectionality
    C. Transfer of meaning
    D. Message centredness
    E. Flexible sequencing

    1. AA, B, C
    2. BB, C, E
    3. CA, B, E
    4. DB, C, D

    Answer: (D) B, C, D

    Explanation

    The Western communication model is built on linear, sender-to-receiver transmission models (such as Shannon-Weaver). It is characteristically unidirectional (a message flows from sender to receiver), focused on transferring meaning through an encoded message, and message-centred (the message/content itself is the unit of analysis). This matches B, C, D. Polydirectionality and flexible sequencing (A, E) are instead associated with non-linear, relationship-oriented Eastern/indigenous communication concepts, which allow meaning to flow in multiple directions and be exchanged non-sequentially.

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15. Question 15

    A researcher gives the following options to a respondent while asking a question during a survey. Identify the options which suffer from ambiguity:
    A. Very often
    B. Quite often
    C. Not very often
    D. Not at all

    1. AA, B, C
    2. BB, C, D
    3. CA, C, D
    4. DA, B, C, D

    Answer: (A) A, B, C

    Explanation

    "Very often," "quite often," and "not very often" are all relative, subjective frequency terms with no fixed numerical meaning — different respondents will interpret how many times counts as "often" or "very often" quite differently, making these options ambiguous. "Not at all," by contrast, has one clear, unambiguous meaning: zero occurrences. So only A, B, and C suffer from ambiguity.

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16. Question 16

    Statement I: Due to technological developments, communication has become mass communication.
    Statement II: With the arrival of satellites and computers, communication has become more efficient and complex than ever before.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

    Explanation

    Technological developments such as print, broadcast, and digital media have indeed scaled communication from interpersonal exchange to mass communication reaching very large, dispersed audiences simultaneously, so Statement I is correct. The arrival of satellites and computers has further multiplied the speed, reach, and interactivity of communication while also adding new layers of complexity (network effects, real-time global transmission, multimedia integration), so Statement II is also correct.

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17. Question 17

    Identify the measures of dispersion:
    A. Range
    B. Quartile deviation
    C. Sum of the deviations about mean
    D. Standard deviation

    1. AA, B, C
    2. BB, C, D
    3. CA, B, D
    4. DA, C, D

    Answer: (C) A, B, D

    Explanation

    Range, quartile deviation, and standard deviation are all standard statistical measures that quantify how spread out a data set is, so A, B, and D are genuine measures of dispersion. The sum of the deviations of all values about their arithmetic mean is always mathematically zero by definition (positive and negative deviations exactly cancel), so it conveys no information about spread and is not a measure of dispersion. Hence only A, B, D qualify.

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18. Question 18

    Which of the following propositions are so related that they cannot both be true, although they can both be false?
    A. No professors are materialists
    B. Some professors are materialists
    C. All professors are materialists
    D. Some professors are not materialists

    1. AA, C
    2. BB, D
    3. CB, C
    4. DA, D

    Answer: (A) A, C

    Explanation

    In the traditional square of opposition, the universal negative (E: "No professors are materialists") and the universal affirmative (A: "All professors are materialists") are contraries. Contrary propositions cannot both be true at the same time, but they can both be false simultaneously (for example, if some but not all professors are materialists). This exactly matches statements A and C. Statements B and D (I and O propositions) are subcontraries, which can both be true but cannot both be false — the opposite relationship.

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19. Question 19

    Statement I: Teacher-centred methods of teaching are more effective than learner-centred methods in promoting deep learning.
    Statement II: Lecture method involves the use of open-ended problems to encourage critical thinking and problem solving.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

    Explanation

    Educational research generally shows learner-centred methods (which actively engage students in constructing knowledge) promote deeper, more durable learning than teacher-centred, transmission-style methods, so Statement I is incorrect. The lecture method is itself a classic teacher-centred technique in which the teacher delivers content while students largely listen and take notes; it does not inherently involve open-ended problems or structured critical-thinking exercises, so Statement II is also incorrect.

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20. Question 20

    In a certain code:
    (a) '3245' means 'you must study hard'
    (b) '567' means 'hard work pays'
    (c) '614' means 'work and study'
    Which of the following are the codes for 'pays' and 'work' respectively?

    1. A1 & 5
    2. B5 & 6
    3. C7 & 6
    4. D4 & 5

    Answer: (C) 7 & 6

    Explanation

    Compare pairs of statements that share a common word to isolate its digit. Statements (a) and (b) share the word 'hard'; the only digit common to '3245' and '567' is '5', so hard = 5. Statements (a) and (c) share the word 'study'; the only digit common to '3245' and '614' is '4', so study = 4. Statements (b) and (c) share the word 'work'; the only digit common to '567' and '614' is '6', so work = 6. In (b) '567', with hard = 5 and work = 6, the remaining digit 7 must code 'pays'. So pays = 7 and work = 6.

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21. Question 21

    What is the full form of CBOD?

    1. AComparative Biochemical Oxygen Demand
    2. BCommon Biochemical Oxygen Demand
    3. CCarbonaceous Biochemical Oxygen Demand
    4. DClassified Biochemical Oxygen Demand

    Answer: (C) Carbonaceous Biochemical Oxygen Demand

    Explanation

    CBOD stands for Carbonaceous Biochemical Oxygen Demand — the amount of dissolved oxygen consumed by micro-organisms specifically while breaking down carbon-containing organic matter in water, distinguished from the oxygen consumed by nitrifying bacteria (nitrogenous oxygen demand). It is a standard water-quality parameter used in environmental science and wastewater treatment monitoring.

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22. Question 22

    Statement I: Environmental communication includes human representation of nature.
    Statement II: For the purpose of promoting environmental communication, only mainstream conventional media should be employed.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    Explanation

    Environmental communication, as a field, studies how humans represent, discuss, and construct meaning about nature and environmental issues, so Statement I is correct. Effective environmental communication draws on a wide mix of channels — mainstream media, alternative and community media, social media, documentaries, and participatory/indigenous communication forms — rather than being restricted to only mainstream conventional media, so Statement II is incorrect.

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23. Question 23

    Mr. Johnson wants to create a mind map for his students to help them understand the concept of photosynthesis. Which of the following tools would be most suitable?

    1. AMindMeister
    2. BEdpuzzle
    3. CNearpod
    4. DHot Potatoes

    Answer: (A) MindMeister

    Explanation

    MindMeister is a dedicated online mind-mapping tool designed for visually organizing ideas into branching diagrams, making it the most suitable choice for building a mind map on photosynthesis. Edpuzzle is used for adding interactive questions to videos, Nearpod is used for creating interactive multimedia lessons/presentations, and Hot Potatoes is used to create interactive quizzes and exercises — none of these are mind-mapping tools.

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24. Question 24

    When two variables are related in such a way that when one increases, so does the other, you can conclude that:

    1. AThere is no problem with directionality.
    2. BThe two variables are positively associated.
    3. CThere are no latent variables affecting the relationship.
    4. DThere is a third variable responsible for the causation between them.

    Answer: (B) The two variables are positively associated.

    Explanation

    When an increase in one variable is accompanied by an increase in the other, this describes a positive association (positive correlation) between the two variables — that is the direct, safe conclusion one can draw. It does not, on its own, establish the direction of causality (A is unwarranted), rule out hidden/latent variables driving the relationship (C is unwarranted), or prove a specific third variable causes both (D is unwarranted) — correlation alone cannot establish any of these.

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25. Question 25

    The first Indian Universities Commission (1902) was headed by:

    1. AGurudas Bannerjee
    2. BSyed Hasan Bilgrami
    3. CWilliam Adam
    4. DThomas Raleigh

    Answer: (D) Thomas Raleigh

    Explanation

    The Indian Universities Commission was constituted in 1902 under Viceroy Lord Curzon and was chaired by Sir Thomas Raleigh, the Law Member of the Viceroy's Council, and is accordingly also known as the Raleigh Commission. Its recommendations led to the Indian Universities Act of 1904. Gurudas Bannerjee and Syed Hasan Bilgrami served as members of the commission, not as its head, and William Adam was a 19th-century educationist known for his earlier reports on indigenous education in Bengal and Bihar, unrelated to this 1902 commission.

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26. Question 26

    A woman, while introducing a man, says, "His wife is the only daughter of my father." How is that man related to the woman?

    1. AFather-in-law
    2. BBrother-in-law
    3. CHusband
    4. DBrother

    Answer: (C) Husband

    Explanation

    "The only daughter of my father" is the woman herself, since she is her father's only daughter. So the statement means "his wife is [the woman speaking]." That makes the man the woman's husband.

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27. Question 27

    Identify the advantages of content analysis:
    A. It is a very transparent research method.
    B. It is often referred to favourably as an unobtrusive method.
    C. It is a highly flexible method.

    1. A(A) and (B) Only
    2. B(B) and (C) Only
    3. C(A) and (C) Only
    4. D(A), (B) and (C)

    Answer: (D) (A), (B) and (C)

    Explanation

    Content analysis is widely recognized as a transparent method because its coding scheme and procedure are explicit and can be checked or replicated by other researchers (A is true). It is also unobtrusive because it analyzes existing documents, texts, or media without the researcher having to interact with or influence the subjects being studied (B is true). It is additionally a highly flexible method, applicable to a wide range of materials (text, audio, video, images) and research questions across disciplines (C is true). All three statements describe genuine advantages of content analysis.

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28. Question 28

    Statement I: Problem based learning is a learner-centred approach.
    Statement II: In guided discovery learning students are encouraged to construct their understanding without the assistance of teacher-guided questions and directions.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    Explanation

    Problem-based learning places students at the centre of the learning process, having them investigate and solve authentic problems with the teacher acting as a facilitator, so it is correctly described as a learner-centred approach (Statement I is correct). Guided discovery learning is, by definition, guided: the teacher provides structured questions, cues, and directions to steer students toward constructing understanding, rather than leaving them to explore entirely without assistance (that description instead fits pure/unguided discovery learning). So Statement II is incorrect.

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29. Question 29

    Which of the following pair of acronym and its expansion are incorrectly matched?

    1. ALED - Light Emitting Diode
    2. BCRT - Cathode Ray Tube
    3. CLCD - Liquid Control Display
    4. DVDU - Video Display Unit

    Answer: (C) LCD - Liquid Control Display

    Explanation

    LCD stands for Liquid Crystal Display, not "Liquid Control Display," so this pairing is incorrect. LED (Light Emitting Diode), CRT (Cathode Ray Tube), and VDU (Video Display Unit) are all correctly matched to their standard expansions.

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30. Question 30

    In analog media, contents are:

    1. ANon-linear
    2. BLinear
    3. CInteractive
    4. DCustomised

    Answer: (B) Linear

    Explanation

    Analog media (such as traditional television and radio broadcasts, print) present content in a fixed, sequential, linear order that the viewer/listener/reader follows from start to end without altering the sequence. Non-linear access, interactivity, and customisation are hallmark features of digital media, which allow users to jump between content, respond to it, or tailor it to their preferences — capabilities analog media lacks.

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31. Question 31

    A policeman goes 20 metres towards South and then turns to his right and walks 40 metres. He again turns to his left and walks 10 metres. How far is he now from his starting point?

    1. A37.5 metres
    2. B50 metres
    3. C30√2 metres
    4. D40 metres

    Answer: (B) 50 metres

    Explanation

    Starting at the origin (0,0), facing South and walking 20 m brings him to (0,-20). Facing South and turning right means he now faces West; walking 40 m West brings him to (-40,-20). Facing West and turning left means he now faces South again; walking 10 m South brings him to (-40,-30). His straight-line distance from the start = √(40² + 30²) = √(1600 + 900) = √2500 = 50 metres.

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32. Question 32

    Statement I: RSPM are those suspended particulate matters (SPM) whose aerodynamic diameter is more than 10 micron.
    Statement II: Fine particles are those SPM whose aerodynamic diameter is less than 2.5 micron.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Explanation

    RSPM (Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter, also called PM10) is defined as suspended particulate matter with an aerodynamic diameter of 10 microns or less (i.e., less than or equal to 10 micron) — it is the respirable fraction small enough to be inhaled into the lungs, not particles more than 10 micron, so Statement I is incorrect. Fine particles (PM2.5) are correctly defined as those with an aerodynamic diameter of less than 2.5 micron, so Statement II is correct.

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33. Question 33

    Which one of the following is responsible for the negative radiative forcing or cooling of the atmosphere?

    1. AWater vapour
    2. BTropospheric Ozone
    3. CStratospheric Ozone
    4. DBlack carbon

    Answer: (C) Stratospheric Ozone

    Explanation

    In IPCC radiative forcing assessments, changes and depletion in stratospheric ozone (driven largely by human-made halocarbons) produce a net negative radiative forcing after stratospheric temperature adjustment — IPCC AR5 assesses this at about -0.05 W/m^2, a cooling effect on the climate system. The sign describes the forcing associated with stratospheric-ozone change, not an inherent property of ozone itself. This is distinct from tropospheric ozone and water vapour, both greenhouse gases with positive (warming) radiative forcing, and from black carbon aerosol, which strongly absorbs sunlight and is likewise assigned a positive (warming) forcing unlike most other cooling aerosols.

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34. Question 34

    Statement I: (25)16 = (00100101)2
    Statement II: (00011011)2 = (1B)16

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

    Explanation

    Converting hexadecimal 25 to decimal: (2 x 16) + 5 = 37. Converting 37 to 8-bit binary gives 00100101, which matches Statement I, so it is correct. Converting binary 00011011 to decimal: 16 + 8 + 2 + 1 = 27. Converting 27 to hexadecimal gives 1B (1 x 16 + 11 = 27, where 11 = B), which matches Statement II, so it is also correct.

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35. Question 35

    Which DTH Channel deals with Social Science-1, Social and Behavioural Sciences?

    1. AChannel-02 - Sanskriti
    2. BChannel-06 - Vidhik
    3. CChannel-03 - Prabodh
    4. DChannel-05 - Prabandhan

    Answer: (C) Channel-03 - Prabodh

    Explanation

    Under the SWAYAM Prabha DTH channel scheme run by the Consortium for Educational Communication (CEC/UGC), Channel-03, named 'Prabodh', is dedicated to Social Science-1 (Social and Behavioural Sciences). Channel-02 'Sanskriti' covers language, literature, and fine arts; Channel-05 'Prabandhan' covers management-related content; and Channel-06 'Vidhik' covers law/legal studies — none of which is the Social Science-1 channel.

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36. Question 36

    "To solve our transportation problems, we have to put more money into production of bicycles. The CEO of ABCD Company Limited says so." Which of the following fallacy is committed in the above argument?

    1. ASlippery Slope
    2. BAppeal to Inappropriate Authority
    3. CAd Hominem
    4. DHasty Generalisation

    Answer: (B) Appeal to Inappropriate Authority

    Explanation

    The argument tries to justify a claim about solving transportation problems purely by citing that a company CEO said so, even though being a business CEO does not make someone an authority on urban transportation policy or engineering. Using an authority figure who is not actually qualified in the relevant subject to support a claim is the fallacy of Appeal to Inappropriate (or Irrelevant) Authority. It is not Slippery Slope (no chain of exaggerated consequences is claimed), Ad Hominem (no attack on a person's character in place of their argument), or Hasty Generalisation (no sweeping conclusion is drawn from too few cases).

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37. Question 37

    Which of the following statements is logically equivalent to the statement "No professors are materialists"?

    1. ASome non-materialists are not non-professors
    2. BSome professors are non-materialists
    3. CAll professors are non-materialists
    4. DAll non-materialists are non-professors

    Answer: (C) All professors are non-materialists

    Explanation

    "No professors are materialists" is a universal negative (E) proposition of the form "No S are P." By the valid immediate inference of obversion, an E proposition is logically equivalent to the corresponding A proposition with a negated predicate: "All S are non-P." Applying this here gives "All professors are non-materialists," which is exactly option C, making it logically equivalent to the original statement. "Some professors are non-materialists" (B) is only a particular claim implied by, but weaker than, the universal original, so it is not equivalent. Options A and D do not follow as valid equivalences of an E proposition under the traditional square of opposition.

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38. Question 38

    Statement I: The ancient university of Sridhanyakatak was situated on the banks of river Yamuna.
    Statement II: Sridhanyakatak attained celebrity as the seat of both Brahmanical and Buddhist learning during the time of Siddha Nagarjuna.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Explanation

    The ancient university of Sridhanyakataka (also identified with Nagarjunakonda) was situated on the banks of the river Krishna in present-day Andhra Pradesh, not the river Yamuna, so Statement I is incorrect. It did attain fame as a centre where both Brahmanical Hinduism and Buddhism flourished together, and it is closely associated with the Buddhist philosopher-teacher Nagarjuna, so Statement II is correct.

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39. Question 39

    Match List I with List II:

    List I	List II
    (A) Scientific Manpower Committee (1947)	(I) K. L. Shrimali
    (B) Committee on Higher Education in Rural Areas	(II) S. S. Bhatnagar
    (C) Committee on Model Act for Universities, 1961	(III) Suniti Kumar Chatterji
    (D) Sanskrit Commission	(IV) D. S. Kothari

    List I: education committees/commissions; List II: their chairpersons

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    4. DA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    Answer: (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Explanation

    The Scientific Manpower Committee (1947) was chaired by Dr. S. S. Bhatnagar (A-II). The Committee on Higher Education in Rural Areas was headed by K. L. Shrimali (B-I). The Committee on Model Act for Universities, 1961, was chaired by Dr. D. S. Kothari (C-IV). The Sanskrit Commission (1956-57) was chaired by the noted linguist Suniti Kumar Chatterji (D-III). This gives the matching A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III.

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40. Question 40

    According to Classical Indian School of Logic (Nyaya), which fallacy is committed in the following statement? "The sky rose is fragrant, because it is a rose like the rose on the earth."

    1. AAsadharana
    2. BBadhita
    3. CViruddha
    4. DAsraya siddha

    Answer: (D) Asraya siddha

    Explanation

    In Nyaya logic, this is the classic example of the Asrayasiddha (also spelt Ashrayasiddha) fallacy, traditionally illustrated with the 'sky-lotus is fragrant because it is a lotus' inference. The fallacy arises because the very subject (paksha) of the inference — a 'sky rose' — does not actually exist, so there is no real locus in which the reason (hetu, being a rose) can inhere; a middle term cannot be validly asserted about an unreal or baseless subject. This differs from Asadharana (a reason too narrow, found only in the subject), Viruddha (a reason that actually proves the opposite conclusion), and Badhita (a reason contradicted by a stronger proof), none of which concerns a non-existent subject.

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41. Question 41

    Find the number that can replace question mark (?) in the series: 1, 3, 2, 5, 3, 7, 4, 9, 5, 11, 6, 13, ?

    1. A15
    2. B7
    3. C19
    4. D8

    Answer: (B) 7

    Explanation

    The series interleaves two separate sub-sequences. The terms at odd positions (1st, 3rd, 5th, 7th, 9th, 11th, 13th) are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, ? — increasing by 1 each time, so the next term is 7. The terms at even positions (2nd, 4th, 6th, ...) are 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13 — increasing by 2 each time. Since the missing term is the 13th term (an odd position), it belongs to the first sub-sequence, giving 7.

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42. Question 42

    Statement I: Montreal Protocol is a multilateral environmental agreement that regulates the production and consumption of nearly 100 man-made chemicals.
    Statement II: Montreal Protocol is an international treaty designed to protect the environment.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

    Explanation

    The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is a multilateral environmental agreement adopted in 1987 that regulates the production and consumption of nearly 100 man-made ozone-depleting chemicals (CFCs, halons, and related substances), so Statement I is correct. As a treaty specifically negotiated to phase out these substances and protect the stratospheric ozone layer, it is indeed an international treaty designed to protect the environment, so Statement II is also correct.

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43. Question 43

    Which of the following statements are true about hardness in water?
    A. It is caused by ions of calcium and magnesium.
    B. It is of two types - temporary and permanent.
    C. Permanent hardness can easily be removed by heating the water.
    D. Hardness causes scales in hot water pipe systems.
    E. Hardness decreases soap consumption.

    1. AA, B, C, D
    2. BA, B, D
    3. CB, C, D, E
    4. DC, D, E

    Answer: (B) A, B, D

    Explanation

    Water hardness is caused by dissolved calcium and magnesium ions (A is true) and is classified into temporary hardness (due to bicarbonates, removable by boiling) and permanent hardness (due to sulphates/chlorides, not removable by boiling) (B is true). Because permanent hardness comes from sulphate and chloride salts that do not decompose on heating, it cannot be removed simply by heating the water — that only removes temporary hardness — so C is false. Hard water does deposit mineral scale inside pipes and hot water systems, restricting flow and reducing heating efficiency (D is true). Hardness actually increases soap consumption, since calcium and magnesium ions react with soap to form an insoluble scum before any lather forms, so E is false. The true statements are A, B, D.

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44. Question 44

    "When a pin pricks our finger we withdraw the finger." Such kind of behaviour is termed as:

    1. AEmotional Instincts
    2. BReflex Actions
    3. CBiological Instincts
    4. DIntellectual Instincts

    Answer: (B) Reflex Actions

    Explanation

    Withdrawing a finger automatically and immediately after a painful stimulus, without conscious thought or decision-making, is a classic example of a reflex action — an involuntary, rapid response of the nervous system to a stimulus that bypasses higher-order cognitive processing. It is not an instinct (a complex, unlearned behaviour pattern), whether described as emotional, biological, or intellectual, since instincts are broader inherited behaviour patterns rather than this kind of immediate protective muscular response.

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45. Question 45

    The process by which a message is transmitted via some form of medium is identified as ______ communication:

    1. AFormative
    2. BInter-connective
    3. CMediated
    4. DFormal

    Answer: (C) Mediated

    Explanation

    When a message travels from sender to receiver through some intervening channel or medium (such as print, television, radio, or digital platforms) rather than through direct face-to-face contact, the process is termed mediated communication. 'Formative,' 'inter-connective,' and 'formal' are not standard terms used to describe communication that is transmitted through a medium.

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46. Question 46

    Project Tiger turned 50 years old recently. An often repeated headline was how the numbers have increased from 2,967 individuals in 2018 to 3,167 in 2022. This hides the bitter truth: Indians aren't going to compromise Western lifestyles for the survival of the tiger. Most middle-class Indians would loathe giving up their second, investment home or driving to the hills on a multilaned highway for the national animal.

    You also can't change the needs of a tiger - it is a large, solitary animal. A female tiger needs about 15 square kilometres with a good prey base. If she reproduces, those cubs will require additional space. Data shows that 30% of tigers live outside protected areas, i.e. in our midst. The more we fragment their habitat with urbanization, highways, and industrial parks, the more they will be forced into unprotected areas.

    Let's modify our approach. I advocate three results by the 75th anniversary of Project Tiger. First, instead of endlessly increasing the tiger population, India can identify and achieve a metric, not much higher than the current numbers. Remember, 1000 tigers already roam around in farms and villages; more will be a disaster. Second, let's better protect what we have. Keeping protected tiger habitat undisturbed is key. Investment in keeping unprotected ecosystems intact should be financially viable and part of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) and more. Third, reducing confrontation with humans is essential. Monitoring and communications technology are key to this. Compensation for livestock killed must be rapidly assessed and pegged to market rates. For the next quarter century, let's think about quality.

    An increase in tiger population will result in:

    Project Tiger turned 50 years old recently. An often repeated headline was how the numbers have increased from 2,967 individuals in 2018 to 3,167 in 2022. This hides the bitter truth: Indians aren't going to compromise Western lifestyles for the survival of the tiger. Most middle-class Indians would loathe giving up their second, investment home or driving to the hills on a multilaned highway for the national animal.

    You also can't change the needs of a tiger - it is a large, solitary animal. A female tiger needs about 15 square kilometres with a good prey base. If she reproduces, those cubs will require additional space. Data shows that 30% of tigers live outside protected areas, i.e. in our midst. The more we fragment their habitat with urbanization, highways, and industrial parks, the more they will be forced into unprotected areas.

    Let's modify our approach. I advocate three results by the 75th anniversary of Project Tiger. First, instead of endlessly increasing the tiger population, India can identify and achieve a metric, not much higher than the current numbers. Remember, 1000 tigers already roam around in farms and villages; more will be a disaster. Second, let's better protect what we have. Keeping protected tiger habitat undisturbed is key. Investment in keeping unprotected ecosystems intact should be financially viable and part of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) and more. Third, reducing confrontation with humans is essential. Monitoring and communications technology are key to this. Compensation for livestock killed must be rapidly assessed and pegged to market rates. For the next quarter century, let's think about quality.

    1. ATigers killing each other
    2. BTigers dying
    3. CTigers posing a threat to the farms and villages nearby
    4. DTigers eating their own cubs

    Answer: (C) Tigers posing a threat to the farms and villages nearby

    Explanation

    The passage states that a tiger is a large, solitary animal needing significant space, and that 30% of tigers already live outside protected areas, forced into human-populated land as habitat fragments. It warns that 1,000 tigers already roam in farms and villages and that 'more will be a disaster' — meaning a further rise in tiger numbers would push more tigers into unprotected areas near people, increasing the threat to farms and villages nearby. Nothing in the passage supports tigers killing each other, tigers dying, or tigers eating their own cubs as a consequence of population growth.

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47. Question 47

    Project Tiger turned 50 years old recently. An often repeated headline was how the numbers have increased from 2,967 individuals in 2018 to 3,167 in 2022. This hides the bitter truth: Indians aren't going to compromise Western lifestyles for the survival of the tiger. Most middle-class Indians would loathe giving up their second, investment home or driving to the hills on a multilaned highway for the national animal.

    You also can't change the needs of a tiger - it is a large, solitary animal. A female tiger needs about 15 square kilometres with a good prey base. If she reproduces, those cubs will require additional space. Data shows that 30% of tigers live outside protected areas, i.e. in our midst. The more we fragment their habitat with urbanization, highways, and industrial parks, the more they will be forced into unprotected areas.

    Let's modify our approach. I advocate three results by the 75th anniversary of Project Tiger. First, instead of endlessly increasing the tiger population, India can identify and achieve a metric, not much higher than the current numbers. Remember, 1000 tigers already roam around in farms and villages; more will be a disaster. Second, let's better protect what we have. Keeping protected tiger habitat undisturbed is key. Investment in keeping unprotected ecosystems intact should be financially viable and part of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) and more. Third, reducing confrontation with humans is essential. Monitoring and communications technology are key to this. Compensation for livestock killed must be rapidly assessed and pegged to market rates. For the next quarter century, let's think about quality.

    According to the writer, the 75th anniversary of Project Tiger should not aim at the following:
    A. Keep the protected habitats intact
    B. Keep the tiger population about the same as at present
    C. Livestock killed by tigers should be adequately compensated for
    D. Focus on quantity instead of quality

    Project Tiger turned 50 years old recently. An often repeated headline was how the numbers have increased from 2,967 individuals in 2018 to 3,167 in 2022. This hides the bitter truth: Indians aren't going to compromise Western lifestyles for the survival of the tiger. Most middle-class Indians would loathe giving up their second, investment home or driving to the hills on a multilaned highway for the national animal.

    You also can't change the needs of a tiger - it is a large, solitary animal. A female tiger needs about 15 square kilometres with a good prey base. If she reproduces, those cubs will require additional space. Data shows that 30% of tigers live outside protected areas, i.e. in our midst. The more we fragment their habitat with urbanization, highways, and industrial parks, the more they will be forced into unprotected areas.

    Let's modify our approach. I advocate three results by the 75th anniversary of Project Tiger. First, instead of endlessly increasing the tiger population, India can identify and achieve a metric, not much higher than the current numbers. Remember, 1000 tigers already roam around in farms and villages; more will be a disaster. Second, let's better protect what we have. Keeping protected tiger habitat undisturbed is key. Investment in keeping unprotected ecosystems intact should be financially viable and part of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) and more. Third, reducing confrontation with humans is essential. Monitoring and communications technology are key to this. Compensation for livestock killed must be rapidly assessed and pegged to market rates. For the next quarter century, let's think about quality.

    1. AA, B
    2. BB, C, D
    3. CC, D
    4. DD

    Answer: (D) D

    Explanation

    The writer explicitly advocates for keeping protected habitat intact (A), achieving a population metric close to current numbers rather than endless growth (B), and rapidly compensating for livestock losses (C) — these are all things the writer wants Project Tiger to aim at. The passage ends with 'For the next quarter century, let's think about quality,' explicitly rejecting a focus on quantity (endlessly rising numbers) in favour of quality. So focusing on quantity instead of quality (D) is the one goal the writer says the anniversary should not aim at.

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48. Question 48

    Project Tiger turned 50 years old recently. An often repeated headline was how the numbers have increased from 2,967 individuals in 2018 to 3,167 in 2022. This hides the bitter truth: Indians aren't going to compromise Western lifestyles for the survival of the tiger. Most middle-class Indians would loathe giving up their second, investment home or driving to the hills on a multilaned highway for the national animal.

    You also can't change the needs of a tiger - it is a large, solitary animal. A female tiger needs about 15 square kilometres with a good prey base. If she reproduces, those cubs will require additional space. Data shows that 30% of tigers live outside protected areas, i.e. in our midst. The more we fragment their habitat with urbanization, highways, and industrial parks, the more they will be forced into unprotected areas.

    Let's modify our approach. I advocate three results by the 75th anniversary of Project Tiger. First, instead of endlessly increasing the tiger population, India can identify and achieve a metric, not much higher than the current numbers. Remember, 1000 tigers already roam around in farms and villages; more will be a disaster. Second, let's better protect what we have. Keeping protected tiger habitat undisturbed is key. Investment in keeping unprotected ecosystems intact should be financially viable and part of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) and more. Third, reducing confrontation with humans is essential. Monitoring and communications technology are key to this. Compensation for livestock killed must be rapidly assessed and pegged to market rates. For the next quarter century, let's think about quality.

    "The bitter truth" refers to:

    Project Tiger turned 50 years old recently. An often repeated headline was how the numbers have increased from 2,967 individuals in 2018 to 3,167 in 2022. This hides the bitter truth: Indians aren't going to compromise Western lifestyles for the survival of the tiger. Most middle-class Indians would loathe giving up their second, investment home or driving to the hills on a multilaned highway for the national animal.

    You also can't change the needs of a tiger - it is a large, solitary animal. A female tiger needs about 15 square kilometres with a good prey base. If she reproduces, those cubs will require additional space. Data shows that 30% of tigers live outside protected areas, i.e. in our midst. The more we fragment their habitat with urbanization, highways, and industrial parks, the more they will be forced into unprotected areas.

    Let's modify our approach. I advocate three results by the 75th anniversary of Project Tiger. First, instead of endlessly increasing the tiger population, India can identify and achieve a metric, not much higher than the current numbers. Remember, 1000 tigers already roam around in farms and villages; more will be a disaster. Second, let's better protect what we have. Keeping protected tiger habitat undisturbed is key. Investment in keeping unprotected ecosystems intact should be financially viable and part of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) and more. Third, reducing confrontation with humans is essential. Monitoring and communications technology are key to this. Compensation for livestock killed must be rapidly assessed and pegged to market rates. For the next quarter century, let's think about quality.

    1. ATigers living outside protected areas
    2. BHumans killing tigers
    3. CThe conflicting needs of human beings and tigers
    4. DTigers killing human beings

    Answer: (C) The conflicting needs of human beings and tigers

    Explanation

    Immediately after introducing the phrase, the passage explains what it means: 'Indians aren't going to compromise Western lifestyles for the survival of the tiger,' followed by the point that a tiger's territorial needs directly conflict with human land use (homes, highways, urbanization). So 'the bitter truth' refers to the fundamental conflict between the space and lifestyle needs of humans and the space and survival needs of tigers, not merely a factual detail like tigers living outside protected areas or violence between humans and tigers.

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49. Question 49

    Project Tiger turned 50 years old recently. An often repeated headline was how the numbers have increased from 2,967 individuals in 2018 to 3,167 in 2022. This hides the bitter truth: Indians aren't going to compromise Western lifestyles for the survival of the tiger. Most middle-class Indians would loathe giving up their second, investment home or driving to the hills on a multilaned highway for the national animal.

    You also can't change the needs of a tiger - it is a large, solitary animal. A female tiger needs about 15 square kilometres with a good prey base. If she reproduces, those cubs will require additional space. Data shows that 30% of tigers live outside protected areas, i.e. in our midst. The more we fragment their habitat with urbanization, highways, and industrial parks, the more they will be forced into unprotected areas.

    Let's modify our approach. I advocate three results by the 75th anniversary of Project Tiger. First, instead of endlessly increasing the tiger population, India can identify and achieve a metric, not much higher than the current numbers. Remember, 1000 tigers already roam around in farms and villages; more will be a disaster. Second, let's better protect what we have. Keeping protected tiger habitat undisturbed is key. Investment in keeping unprotected ecosystems intact should be financially viable and part of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) and more. Third, reducing confrontation with humans is essential. Monitoring and communications technology are key to this. Compensation for livestock killed must be rapidly assessed and pegged to market rates. For the next quarter century, let's think about quality.

    According to the writer, one of the aims of Project Tiger in the next quarter century should be:

    Project Tiger turned 50 years old recently. An often repeated headline was how the numbers have increased from 2,967 individuals in 2018 to 3,167 in 2022. This hides the bitter truth: Indians aren't going to compromise Western lifestyles for the survival of the tiger. Most middle-class Indians would loathe giving up their second, investment home or driving to the hills on a multilaned highway for the national animal.

    You also can't change the needs of a tiger - it is a large, solitary animal. A female tiger needs about 15 square kilometres with a good prey base. If she reproduces, those cubs will require additional space. Data shows that 30% of tigers live outside protected areas, i.e. in our midst. The more we fragment their habitat with urbanization, highways, and industrial parks, the more they will be forced into unprotected areas.

    Let's modify our approach. I advocate three results by the 75th anniversary of Project Tiger. First, instead of endlessly increasing the tiger population, India can identify and achieve a metric, not much higher than the current numbers. Remember, 1000 tigers already roam around in farms and villages; more will be a disaster. Second, let's better protect what we have. Keeping protected tiger habitat undisturbed is key. Investment in keeping unprotected ecosystems intact should be financially viable and part of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) and more. Third, reducing confrontation with humans is essential. Monitoring and communications technology are key to this. Compensation for livestock killed must be rapidly assessed and pegged to market rates. For the next quarter century, let's think about quality.

    1. AIncreasing tiger population
    2. BTraining the tigers to live in a contained area
    3. CProtecting the existing tiger population
    4. DEnsuring that the government stops building highways

    Answer: (C) Protecting the existing tiger population

    Explanation

    The writer's second advocated result is explicit: 'let's better protect what we have. Keeping protected tiger habitat undisturbed is key.' This directly supports protecting the existing tiger population as a stated aim. The writer explicitly argues against endlessly increasing the population (ruling out A), never suggests training tigers to live in a contained area (B), and while highways are cited as a cause of habitat fragmentation, the writer never calls for the government to stop building them altogether (D) — the actual proposals are about protecting habitat, achieving a stable population metric, and reducing human-tiger confrontation.

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50. Question 50

    Project Tiger turned 50 years old recently. An often repeated headline was how the numbers have increased from 2,967 individuals in 2018 to 3,167 in 2022. This hides the bitter truth: Indians aren't going to compromise Western lifestyles for the survival of the tiger. Most middle-class Indians would loathe giving up their second, investment home or driving to the hills on a multilaned highway for the national animal.

    You also can't change the needs of a tiger - it is a large, solitary animal. A female tiger needs about 15 square kilometres with a good prey base. If she reproduces, those cubs will require additional space. Data shows that 30% of tigers live outside protected areas, i.e. in our midst. The more we fragment their habitat with urbanization, highways, and industrial parks, the more they will be forced into unprotected areas.

    Let's modify our approach. I advocate three results by the 75th anniversary of Project Tiger. First, instead of endlessly increasing the tiger population, India can identify and achieve a metric, not much higher than the current numbers. Remember, 1000 tigers already roam around in farms and villages; more will be a disaster. Second, let's better protect what we have. Keeping protected tiger habitat undisturbed is key. Investment in keeping unprotected ecosystems intact should be financially viable and part of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) and more. Third, reducing confrontation with humans is essential. Monitoring and communications technology are key to this. Compensation for livestock killed must be rapidly assessed and pegged to market rates. For the next quarter century, let's think about quality.

    Over the last few years, the population of the tiger has:

    Project Tiger turned 50 years old recently. An often repeated headline was how the numbers have increased from 2,967 individuals in 2018 to 3,167 in 2022. This hides the bitter truth: Indians aren't going to compromise Western lifestyles for the survival of the tiger. Most middle-class Indians would loathe giving up their second, investment home or driving to the hills on a multilaned highway for the national animal.

    You also can't change the needs of a tiger - it is a large, solitary animal. A female tiger needs about 15 square kilometres with a good prey base. If she reproduces, those cubs will require additional space. Data shows that 30% of tigers live outside protected areas, i.e. in our midst. The more we fragment their habitat with urbanization, highways, and industrial parks, the more they will be forced into unprotected areas.

    Let's modify our approach. I advocate three results by the 75th anniversary of Project Tiger. First, instead of endlessly increasing the tiger population, India can identify and achieve a metric, not much higher than the current numbers. Remember, 1000 tigers already roam around in farms and villages; more will be a disaster. Second, let's better protect what we have. Keeping protected tiger habitat undisturbed is key. Investment in keeping unprotected ecosystems intact should be financially viable and part of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) and more. Third, reducing confrontation with humans is essential. Monitoring and communications technology are key to this. Compensation for livestock killed must be rapidly assessed and pegged to market rates. For the next quarter century, let's think about quality.

    1. ADecreased
    2. BRemained static
    3. CIncreased
    4. DDeclined substantially

    Answer: (C) Increased

    Explanation

    The passage opens by stating the tiger count rose from 2,967 individuals in 2018 to 3,167 in 2022, which is a direct, explicit statement that the population has increased over recent years, not decreased or stayed static.

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100 questions with the answer key and explanations.

1. Question 1

   Match List I with List II.

   List-I	List-II
   A. Balance Score Card	I. Heinz Weihrich
   B. TOWS Matrix	II. C. W. Hofer
   C. Product/Market Evolution Matrix	III. Robert Kaplan and David P. Norton
   D. VRIO Framework	IV. Jay Barney

   1. AA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
   2. BA-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
   3. CA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
   4. DA-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

   Answer: (B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

   Explanation

   The correct pairing is A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV.

   • Balanced Score Card was developed by Robert Kaplan and David P. Norton as a strategic performance-management tool that balances financial and non-financial measures.
   • TOWS Matrix was proposed by Heinz Weihrich as a structured way to generate strategic options from a SWOT analysis.
   • Product/Market Evolution Matrix was developed by C. W. Hofer to plot business units by product life-cycle stage and competitive position.
   • VRIO Framework (Value, Rarity, Imitability, Organization) was developed by Jay Barney as a resource-based-view tool for assessing sustainable competitive advantage.

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2. Question 2

   For making a single-channel, single-phase queuing model, which of the following assumptions are involved?

   A. Every arrival waits to be served regardless of the length of time.
   B. Arrivals are independent of preceding arrivals, but the average number of arrivals does not change over time.
   C. Arrivals come from a finite or very small population on LIFO basis.
   D. Service times follow the negative exponential distribution or are constant.
   E. The average service rate is greater than the average arrival rate.

   1. AA, B and C only
   2. BA, B, C and D only
   3. CA, B, D and E only
   4. DB, C, D and E only

   Answer: (C) A, B, D and E only

   Explanation

   The basic single-channel, single-phase queuing model (M/M/1) rests on options A, B, D and E.

   • A. Every arrival waits to be served regardless of the length of time — correct, the basic model assumes no balking or reneging.
   • B. Arrivals are independent, average arrival rate constant over time — correct, this describes a Poisson arrival process.
   • C. Arrivals come from a finite or very small population on LIFO basis — wrong. The basic model assumes an infinite (or very large) calling population served on a first-come, first-served (FIFO) basis, not LIFO from a small population.
   • D. Service times follow the negative exponential distribution or are constant — correct, this describes the service-time assumption of the standard queuing models.
   • E. The average service rate is greater than the average arrival rate — correct, this is the stability condition (μ > λ) needed for a queue not to grow infinitely.

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3. Question 3

   Which of the following consists of broad models of HRM/HRD?

   A. Hard variant of HRM (Matching Model of HRM)
   B. Soft variant of HRM (Harvard Model of HRM)
   C. 5P Model of HRM (Model of strategic HRM)
   D. Business Strategic Model of HRM (Business School Model)

   1. AA and B only
   2. BB and C only
   3. CA, B and C only
   4. DB, C and D only

   Answer: (C) A, B and C only

   Explanation

   The recognised broad models of HRM are A, B and C.

   • A. Hard variant (Matching Model) — the Michigan/Matching Model (Fombrun, Tichy and Devanna) that treats employees as a resource to be tightly aligned with business strategy.
   • B. Soft variant (Harvard Model) — the Beer et al. Harvard framework that treats employees as valued stakeholders needing development and commitment.
   • C. 5P Model — Randall Schuler's model linking Philosophy, Policies, Programmes, Practices and Process to strategic HRM.
   • D. "Business Strategic Model (Business School Model)" is not a recognised named model of HRM/HRD in the literature; it is a distractor invented to resemble the real models above.

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4. Question 4

   As per Ries and Trout, which one of the following is NOT a standard criterion for successful positioning?

   1. ACompetitiveness
   2. BConsistency
   3. CCredibility
   4. DCommitment

   Answer: (D) Commitment

   Explanation

   The standard set of criteria for successful positioning built on Ries and Trout's work is Clarity, Consistency, Credibility and Competitiveness — a position must be simply and clearly stated, held consistently over time, believable to the target audience, and defensible against competitors.

   • A. Competitiveness — a genuine criterion; positioning must differentiate the brand from rivals.
   • B. Consistency — a genuine criterion; the position must be reinforced consistently to lodge in the customer's mind.
   • C. Credibility — a genuine criterion; the position must be believable given the brand's actual capabilities.
   • D. Commitment — not part of this standard four-criteria list; it describes organisational buy-in to a strategy generally, not a defining test of a positioning statement itself.

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5. Question 5

   “Performance appraisal too often degenerates into a dishonest annual ritual.” Who stated this?

   1. AArmstrong and Murlis
   2. BNewton and Findlay
   3. CBarlow
   4. DGrint

   Answer: (A) Armstrong and Murlis

   Explanation

   Armstrong and Murlis made this observation in their writing on reward and performance management, criticising how annual appraisal exercises frequently become a box-ticking formality rather than an honest, developmental conversation between manager and employee — a widely cited critique in HR textbooks discussing the limitations of traditional annual appraisal systems.

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6. Question 6

   If Current Ratio = 2.5, Liquid Ratio = 1.5 and Working Capital = Rs 90,000, what is the value of inventory?

   1. ARs 60,000
   2. BRs 90,000
   3. CRs 1,50,000
   4. DRs 2,10,000

   Answer: (A) Rs 60,000

   Explanation

   Set up the ratios and solve for Current Liabilities (CL) first.

   Current Ratio = CA/CL = 2.5, so CA = 2.5 × CL.
   Working Capital = CA − CL = 90,000, so 2.5CL − CL = 1.5CL = 90,000 → CL = Rs 60,000.

   Then CA = 2.5 × 60,000 = Rs 1,50,000.
   Liquid Ratio = (CA − Inventory)/CL = 1.5, so Liquid Assets = 1.5 × 60,000 = Rs 90,000.

   Inventory = CA − Liquid Assets = 1,50,000 − 90,000 = Rs 60,000.

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7. Question 7

   Arrange the phases of Project Life Cycle in proper sequence:

   A. Concept
   B. Planning and Organising
   C. Definition
   D. Implementation
   E. Project Clean-up

   1. AA, C, B, D, E
   2. BA, B, C, D, E
   3. CC, A, B, D, E
   4. DA, D, C, B, E

   Answer: (A) A, C, B, D, E

   Explanation

   The Project Life Cycle runs Concept → Definition → Planning and Organising → Implementation → Project Clean-up.

   A project must first be conceived (Concept), then its scope and objectives fixed (Definition), before detailed plans and resources are organised (Planning and Organising), the work executed (Implementation), and the project formally closed out (Project Clean-up). This gives the sequence A, C, B, D, E.

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8. Question 8

   Arrange the budgeting process in proper sequence:

   A. Obtaining estimates
   B. Communicating Budget
   C. Reporting interim progress towards budget objectives
   D. Implementing budget plan
   E. Co-ordinating estimates

   1. AB, A, E, D, C
   2. BA, E, C, B, D
   3. CA, E, B, C, D
   4. DA, E, B, D, C

   Answer: (A) B, A, E, D, C

   Explanation

   The budgeting process follows Communicating Budget → Obtaining estimates → Co-ordinating estimates → Implementing budget plan → Reporting interim progress.

   Top management first communicates the budget policy and guidelines (B) to department heads, who then submit their estimates (A). These are co-ordinated (E) to remove inconsistencies before the budget is approved and implemented (D), after which interim progress is reported (C) against the budget objectives on an ongoing basis. This gives B, A, E, D, C.

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9. Question 9

   Which of the following are unique features of services?

   A. Perishable
   B. Inseparability of production and consumption
   C. Perfect standardization
   D. Variability
   E. Highly tangible

   1. AA and D only
   2. BA and C only
   3. CC and D only
   4. DA and E only

   Answer: (A) A and D only

   Explanation

   The genuine, textbook-standard unique features of services listed among the options are A (Perishability) and D (Variability).

   • A. Perishable — correct; unlike goods, service capacity cannot be stored for later use.
   • B. Inseparability of production and consumption — also a real service characteristic (a service is produced and consumed at the same time), but it is not part of any answer combination offered here.
   • C. Perfect standardization — the opposite is true: services are heterogeneous, varying with who provides them, so this is false.
   • D. Variability — correct; service quality varies by provider, time and place.
   • E. Highly tangible — the opposite is true: services are fundamentally intangible, so this is false.

   Only A and D are both genuinely correct and appear together in one option, giving A and D only.

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10. Question 10

    The Parenting Fit Matrix was proposed by:

    1. AT. L. Wheelen, T. D. Hunger and K. Ranganjan
    2. BMarcus Alexander, Andrew Campbell and Michael Goold
    3. CG. D. Harrell, R. O. Kieper and A. Campbell
    4. DG. Hamel, L. Segel and A. C. Inkpen

    Answer: (B) Marcus Alexander, Andrew Campbell and Michael Goold

    Explanation

    The Parenting Fit Matrix (also called the Parenting Advantage Matrix) was developed by Marcus Alexander, Andrew Campbell and Michael Goold in their work on corporate-level strategy, as a tool to assess how well a parent company's skills and resources fit the needs of its business units.

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11. Question 11

    Given below are two statements about OD interventions:

    Statement I: OD interventions are structured activities designed to facilitate organisational improvement.
    Statement II: The range of OD interventions is extensive and interventions can solve most problems related to the human side of organisations.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    Explanation

    Statement I is correct: OD (Organization Development) interventions are, by definition, structured, planned activities directed at improving organisational functioning.

    Statement II is incorrect: while the range of OD interventions is genuinely wide (team building, survey feedback, sensitivity training, structural interventions, and more), the literature does not claim they can “solve most problems” related to the human side of organisations — OD is one set of tools among many, with well-documented limits, not a cure-all.

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12. Question 12

    Which of the following are performance appraisal techniques?

    A. Graphic Rating Scale
    B. Potential Rating
    C. Alternation Ranking
    D. Diversity Counts
    E. Paired Comparison

    1. AA, B and D only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DA, C and E only

    Answer: (D) A, C and E only

    Explanation

    The genuine performance appraisal techniques are A, C and E.

    • A. Graphic Rating Scale — a classic appraisal method rating an employee on a numeric/graphic scale for each trait.
    • B. Potential Rating — this assesses an employee's future potential for career/succession planning, a distinct HR activity from measuring past performance, so it is not itself a performance appraisal technique.
    • C. Alternation Ranking — a recognised technique that ranks employees from best to worst by repeatedly picking the best and worst of the remaining group.
    • D. Diversity Counts — not a recognised performance appraisal method; it is a distractor.
    • E. Paired Comparison — a recognised technique that compares each employee against every other employee in pairs.

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13. Question 13

    For service firms, which determinants are important in location focus?

    A. Service/image compatibility with demographics of the customer drawing area
    B. Proximity to raw materials and suppliers
    C. Quality of competition
    D. Uniqueness of the firm's and competitors' locations
    E. Operating policies of competitors

    1. AA, C and E only
    2. BC, D and E only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DB, D and E only

    Answer: (C) A, C and D only

    Explanation

    Heizer and Render's list of determinants for service-firm location focus includes service/image compatibility with the customer-drawing area's demographics, quality of the competition, and the uniqueness of the firm's and competitors' locations — giving A, C and D.

    • A. Correct — a listed service-location factor.
    • B. Proximity to raw materials and suppliers — this is a manufacturing location factor (minimising transport/input costs), not a service-location determinant, since services are located near customers, not inputs.
    • C. Correct — a listed service-location factor.
    • D. Correct — a listed service-location factor.
    • E. Operating policies of competitors — the textbook factor is the firm's own operating policies, not its competitors', so this option is a subtly altered distractor.

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14. Question 14

    Match List I with List II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Operational approach	I. McKinsey
    B. Behavioral approach	II. Vilfredo Pareto
    C. Social systems approach	III. Henry Fayol
    D. 7-S framework	IV. Elton Mayo

    1. AA-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
    2. BA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    4. DA-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

    Answer: (C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Explanation

    The correct pairing is A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I.

    • Operational approach is associated with Henry Fayol, seen as the father of the functional/process (operational) school of management.
    • Behavioral approach is associated with Elton Mayo, whose Hawthorne studies founded the human-relations/behavioural school.
    • Social systems approach is associated with Vilfredo Pareto, whose social-systems ideas (via the Harvard group) underpinned this school of management thought.
    • 7-S framework is associated with McKinsey, the consulting firm that developed the 7-S model of organisational effectiveness.

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15. Question 15

    Which of the following are summarised under the three Cs for HR development?

    A. Competence
    B. Communication
    C. Commitment
    D. Culture

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BA, C and D only
    3. CB, C and D only
    4. DA, B and D only

    Answer: (B) A, C and D only

    Explanation

    The “three Cs” framework used for HR development is Competence, Commitment and Culture.

    • A. Competence — the knowledge, skills and abilities the workforce brings to its roles.
    • C. Commitment — employees' psychological attachment and dedication to the organisation's goals.
    • D. Culture — the shared values and norms that HR development seeks to shape and reinforce.
    • B. Communication, while important to HR practice generally, is the fourth “C” in an extended four-Cs model and is not part of the core three-Cs framework being tested here.

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16. Question 16

    Which conditions make locating production abroad more advantageous than exporting?

    A. Production abroad is costlier than at home.
    B. Transportation costs are too high internationally.
    C. Companies lack domestic capacity.
    D. Governments inhibit import of foreign products.
    E. Products/services need not be altered substantially to gain sufficient demand abroad.

    1. AA, B and D only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DE, A and B only

    Answer: (B) B, C and D only

    Explanation

    Producing abroad beats exporting when B, C and D hold.

    • A. Production abroad is costlier than at home — this would favour exporting from the cheaper home base, not producing abroad, so it argues against foreign production.
    • B. Transportation costs are too high internationally — correct; high freight costs erode the case for exporting and favour local production.
    • C. Companies lack domestic capacity — correct; without enough capacity at home to serve foreign demand by exporting, a firm is pushed toward setting up production abroad.
    • D. Governments inhibit import of foreign products — correct; trade barriers make exporting difficult, favouring local production behind the barrier.
    • E. Products need not be altered substantially to gain demand abroad — this makes exporting easier (no costly adaptation needed), so it actually favours exporting, not local production.

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17. Question 17

    Which statement about NPV and IRR for projects A and B is correct?

    1. ANPV(A) + NPV(B) = NPV(A+B)
    2. BNPV(A) = NPV(B) ≠ NPV(A+B)
    3. CIRR(A) + IRR(B) = IRR(A+B)
    4. DIRR(A) × IRR(B) ≠ IRR(A-B)

    Answer: (A) NPV(A) + NPV(B) = NPV(A+B)

    Explanation

    NPV(A) + NPV(B) = NPV(A+B) is the correct statement, reflecting the value-additivity principle of Net Present Value: because NPV is calculated by discounting cash flows to present value and simply summing them, the NPV of a combination of projects always equals the sum of their individual NPVs.

    IRR does not have this property. IRR is the discount rate that equates a project's own cash-flow stream to zero NPV, and this rate does not combine linearly across projects — IRR(A) + IRR(B) generally does not equal IRR(A+B), which rules out option C. Options B and D do not follow from either principle and are not general truths.

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18. Question 18

    The co-operative credit system in India mainly consists of:

    A. Short-term agricultural credit institutions
    B. Long-term agricultural credit institutions
    C. Non-agricultural credit co-operatives
    D. Short-term industrial credit institutions

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA, B and C only
    3. CB, C and D only
    4. DA, C and D only

    Answer: (B) A, B and C only

    Explanation

    India's co-operative credit structure is built around A, B and C: short-term and long-term agricultural credit institutions (such as PACS and primary co-operative agriculture and rural development banks) plus non-agricultural credit co-operatives (such as urban co-operative banks).

    D. Short-term industrial credit institutions is not part of the co-operative credit system — industrial credit is provided through separate development financial institutions (such as IDBI and IFCI), not the co-operative structure.

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19. Question 19

    Assertion (A): Failure in an international market to connect firms with collaborators will entice a company to enter wholly owned operations/FDI.
    Reason (R): A company perceives operating advantages to overcome the liability of foreignness.

    1. ABoth (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. BBoth (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    3. C(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
    4. D(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

    Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

    Explanation

    Both statements are correct, and (R) explains (A). When a firm cannot find suitable local partners or collaborators abroad, it is pushed toward a higher-control entry mode such as a wholly owned subsidiary or FDI. It only takes this route, however, because it believes its own firm-specific advantages (technology, brand, capabilities) are strong enough to overcome the liability of foreignness — the extra costs of operating in an unfamiliar market. Without that perceived advantage, a firm facing partnering failure would simply exit the market rather than go it alone, so (R) is precisely why (A) happens.

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20. Question 20

    According to the passage, what is the consequence for companies that fail to meet the CSR spending requirement under the new amendments?

    In this modern digitalized world, businesses are required to be mindful both in terms of what they are doing and how they are doing it. A company's brand is not just dependent on the quality of products it offers but on the overall impact of its operations on society, environment and economy. A sense of social responsibility can provide a competitive edge. CSR is a holistic and integrated management concept whereby companies integrate social and environmental objectives with business objectives. It works on a Triple Bottom Line approach—People, Planet and Profit. India made CSR mandatory through the Companies Act, 2013. Earlier, companies that failed to spend the prescribed 2% could give reasons; under the amended provisions, companies are required to spend the amount within the prescribed time or transfer the unspent amount to specified government-run funds.

    1. AThey may file a suitable explanation
    2. BThey may seek grace from the Government
    3. CThey may get it done from sister companies
    4. DThey are required to transfer the unspent amount to government-run funds

    Answer: (D) They are required to transfer the unspent amount to government-run funds

    Explanation

    The passage states plainly that “under the amended provisions, companies are required to spend the amount within the prescribed time or transfer the unspent amount to specified government-run funds.” The earlier option of simply giving reasons for non-compliance (which fits option A) is explicitly described as the old, no-longer-applicable rule, making D the current consequence.

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21. Question 21

    Assertion (A): Companies are required to spend 2% of profits towards CSR within the given time limit.
    Reason (R): The Government of India made stringent provisions for CSR in the Companies Act, 2013.

    In this modern digitalized world, businesses are required to be mindful both in terms of what they are doing and how they are doing it. A company's brand is not just dependent on the quality of products it offers but on the overall impact of its operations on society, environment and economy. A sense of social responsibility can provide a competitive edge. CSR is a holistic and integrated management concept whereby companies integrate social and environmental objectives with business objectives. It works on a Triple Bottom Line approach—People, Planet and Profit. India made CSR mandatory through the Companies Act, 2013. Earlier, companies that failed to spend the prescribed 2% could give reasons; under the amended provisions, companies are required to spend the amount within the prescribed time or transfer the unspent amount to specified government-run funds.

    1. ABoth (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. BBoth (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    3. C(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
    4. D(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

    Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

    Explanation

    The passage confirms both statements: it states the 2% mandatory CSR spend within a prescribed time limit, and it states that “India made CSR mandatory through the Companies Act, 2013” with stringent unspent-fund transfer provisions. (R) directly explains (A): it is precisely because the Companies Act, 2013 made CSR spending compulsory and strict that companies are bound to the 2% requirement within the time limit.

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22. Question 22

    What is the significance of a company's social responsibility in the modern digitalized world?

    In this modern digitalized world, businesses are required to be mindful both in terms of what they are doing and how they are doing it. A company's brand is not just dependent on the quality of products it offers but on the overall impact of its operations on society, environment and economy. A sense of social responsibility can provide a competitive edge. CSR is a holistic and integrated management concept whereby companies integrate social and environmental objectives with business objectives. It works on a Triple Bottom Line approach—People, Planet and Profit. India made CSR mandatory through the Companies Act, 2013. Earlier, companies that failed to spend the prescribed 2% could give reasons; under the amended provisions, companies are required to spend the amount within the prescribed time or transfer the unspent amount to specified government-run funds.

    1. AIt has no impact on the brand
    2. BIt depends solely on quality of products
    3. CIt provides a competitive edge in a crowded marketplace
    4. DIt necessarily leads to higher profits

    Answer: (C) It provides a competitive edge in a crowded marketplace

    Explanation

    The passage states directly that “a sense of social responsibility can provide a competitive edge.” It also explicitly rejects options A and B by noting the brand is “not just dependent on the quality of products it offers but on the overall impact of its operations,” and it never claims CSR guarantees higher profits (option D), so the passage-supported answer is C.

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23. Question 23

    What does the Triple Bottom Line approach in CSR focus on?

    In this modern digitalized world, businesses are required to be mindful both in terms of what they are doing and how they are doing it. A company's brand is not just dependent on the quality of products it offers but on the overall impact of its operations on society, environment and economy. A sense of social responsibility can provide a competitive edge. CSR is a holistic and integrated management concept whereby companies integrate social and environmental objectives with business objectives. It works on a Triple Bottom Line approach—People, Planet and Profit. India made CSR mandatory through the Companies Act, 2013. Earlier, companies that failed to spend the prescribed 2% could give reasons; under the amended provisions, companies are required to spend the amount within the prescribed time or transfer the unspent amount to specified government-run funds.

    1. ACustomer satisfaction, revenue and profit
    2. BPeople, Planet and Profit
    3. CShareholder interest, environmental sustainability and innovation
    4. DReducing costs, increasing production and market share

    Answer: (B) People, Planet and Profit

    Explanation

    The passage names the Triple Bottom Line approach explicitly: “It works on a Triple Bottom Line approach—People, Planet and Profit.” This is the standard three-pillar CSR framework balancing social, environmental and economic performance.

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24. Question 24

    Statement I: CSR is a holistic and integrated management concept whereby companies integrate their industrial and future objectives with business objectives.
    Statement II: In the modern digitalized world businesses must be mindful of both what they do and how they do it.

    In this modern digitalized world, businesses are required to be mindful both in terms of what they are doing and how they are doing it. A company's brand is not just dependent on the quality of products it offers but on the overall impact of its operations on society, environment and economy. A sense of social responsibility can provide a competitive edge. CSR is a holistic and integrated management concept whereby companies integrate social and environmental objectives with business objectives. It works on a Triple Bottom Line approach—People, Planet and Profit. India made CSR mandatory through the Companies Act, 2013. Earlier, companies that failed to spend the prescribed 2% could give reasons; under the amended provisions, companies are required to spend the amount within the prescribed time or transfer the unspent amount to specified government-run funds.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Explanation

    Statement I misquotes the passage: the passage says companies integrate “social and environmental objectives with business objectives,” not “industrial and future objectives,” so Statement I is incorrect as worded.

    Statement II matches the passage exactly: “businesses are required to be mindful both in terms of what they are doing and how they are doing it,” confirming Statement II is correct. This gives Statement I incorrect, Statement II correct.

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25. Question 25

    How does corporate governance help expose unethical policies and mismanagement?

    Introduction of Corporate Governance in a company brings order and method into the decision-making process and fixes responsibility. The company focuses on mission and vision rather than personal likes and dislikes of top officers. Accounting jugglery may give short-term gains, but true financial performance, openness and governance policies build investor confidence. Unethical policies and mismanagement by CEOs/directors may be exposed; excessive remuneration can come to light. Frauds and mismanagement may be detected early, though no system can eliminate fraudulent practices completely. Corporate governance is an open democratic system and may sometimes appear long-winded or time-consuming.

    1. ABy promoting a flagship brand
    2. BBy enhancing employee productivity
    3. CBy fixing responsibilities and promoting openness
    4. DBy encouraging accounting jugglery

    Answer: (C) By fixing responsibilities and promoting openness

    Explanation

    The passage says corporate governance “brings order and method into the decision-making process and fixes responsibility,” and that “true financial performance, openness and governance policies build investor confidence,” through which “unethical policies and mismanagement by CEOs/directors may be exposed.” It is this combination of fixing responsibility and promoting openness that exposes wrongdoing — note the passage explicitly contrasts this with “accounting jugglery,” which is the problem governance corrects, not the mechanism (ruling out option D).

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26. Question 26

    Which advantage of corporate governance is mentioned in the passage?

    Introduction of Corporate Governance in a company brings order and method into the decision-making process and fixes responsibility. The company focuses on mission and vision rather than personal likes and dislikes of top officers. Accounting jugglery may give short-term gains, but true financial performance, openness and governance policies build investor confidence. Unethical policies and mismanagement by CEOs/directors may be exposed; excessive remuneration can come to light. Frauds and mismanagement may be detected early, though no system can eliminate fraudulent practices completely. Corporate governance is an open democratic system and may sometimes appear long-winded or time-consuming.

    1. AHiding excessive remuneration of directors/CEOs
    2. BDiscouraging individual decision making
    3. CImproving investors' confidence and relations
    4. DAvoiding competition

    Answer: (C) Improving investors' confidence and relations

    Explanation

    The passage states that true financial performance, openness and governance policies “build investor confidence.” This directly supports option C. Option A is the opposite of what the passage says — governance exposes, rather than hides, excessive remuneration.

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27. Question 27

    What is a primary goal of corporate governance according to the passage?

    Introduction of Corporate Governance in a company brings order and method into the decision-making process and fixes responsibility. The company focuses on mission and vision rather than personal likes and dislikes of top officers. Accounting jugglery may give short-term gains, but true financial performance, openness and governance policies build investor confidence. Unethical policies and mismanagement by CEOs/directors may be exposed; excessive remuneration can come to light. Frauds and mismanagement may be detected early, though no system can eliminate fraudulent practices completely. Corporate governance is an open democratic system and may sometimes appear long-winded or time-consuming.

    1. AMaximising short-term profits
    2. BDiscouraging personal likes/dislikes of top management
    3. CBringing order and method to decision making
    4. DEnhancing competition in the market

    Answer: (C) Bringing order and method to decision making

    Explanation

    The passage opens by stating that corporate governance “brings order and method into the decision-making process and fixes responsibility,” making this its primary stated goal. Note the passage explicitly criticises decisions driven by “personal likes and dislikes of top officers” as something governance moves the company away from (supporting a focus on mission/vision), rather than governance's goal being simply to “discourage” those preferences as an end in itself (option B), and it explicitly criticises short-term gains from accounting jugglery, ruling out option A.

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28. Question 28

    What benefit does corporate governance provide to investors?

    Introduction of Corporate Governance in a company brings order and method into the decision-making process and fixes responsibility. The company focuses on mission and vision rather than personal likes and dislikes of top officers. Accounting jugglery may give short-term gains, but true financial performance, openness and governance policies build investor confidence. Unethical policies and mismanagement by CEOs/directors may be exposed; excessive remuneration can come to light. Frauds and mismanagement may be detected early, though no system can eliminate fraudulent practices completely. Corporate governance is an open democratic system and may sometimes appear long-winded or time-consuming.

    1. AShort-term gains
    2. BConfidence in true financial performance
    3. CHigher dividends
    4. DRights issues

    Answer: (B) Confidence in true financial performance

    Explanation

    The passage states that “true financial performance, openness and governance policies build investor confidence,” directly supporting option B. The passage explicitly contrasts this with accounting-jugglery “short-term gains,” which is what governance moves companies away from, ruling out option A.

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29. Question 29

    How does the passage describe the corporate governance system?

    Introduction of Corporate Governance in a company brings order and method into the decision-making process and fixes responsibility. The company focuses on mission and vision rather than personal likes and dislikes of top officers. Accounting jugglery may give short-term gains, but true financial performance, openness and governance policies build investor confidence. Unethical policies and mismanagement by CEOs/directors may be exposed; excessive remuneration can come to light. Frauds and mismanagement may be detected early, though no system can eliminate fraudulent practices completely. Corporate governance is an open democratic system and may sometimes appear long-winded or time-consuming.

    1. AA time-consuming but fully effective system
    2. BA system that hides the risk of fraud
    3. CAn open democratic system with some drawbacks
    4. DA system capable of removing fraud completely

    Answer: (C) An open democratic system with some drawbacks

    Explanation

    The passage describes corporate governance as “an open democratic system” that “may sometimes appear long-winded or time-consuming,” and adds that “no system can eliminate fraudulent practices completely.” This combination of being open/democratic while carrying acknowledged drawbacks (time-consuming, cannot fully eliminate fraud) matches option C, and directly rules out the absolute claims in options A and D.

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30. Question 30

    What shall be the transportation cost if the North-West Corner Rule is used to obtain the basic feasible solution for the following transportation problem?

    	D1	D2	D3	D4	Supply
    S1	2	3	11	7	6
    S2	1	0	6	1	1
    S3	5	8	15	9	10
    Demand	7	5	3	2	17

    Cost/supply/demand matrix for the transportation problem

    1. A112
    2. B102
    3. C105
    4. D116

    Answer: (D) 116

    Explanation

    Apply the North-West Corner Rule cell by cell, starting at S1-D1:

    1. S1-D1: allocate min(6,7) = 6. S1 exhausted; D1 remaining = 1.
    2. S2-D1: allocate min(1,1) = 1. S2 and D1 both exhausted.
    3. S3-D2: allocate min(10,5) = 5. D2 exhausted; S3 remaining = 5.
    4. S3-D3: allocate min(5,3) = 3. D3 exhausted; S3 remaining = 2.
    5. S3-D4: allocate min(2,2) = 2. Both exhausted — solution complete.

    Total cost = (6×2) + (1×1) + (5×8) + (3×15) + (2×9) = 12 + 1 + 40 + 45 + 18 = 116.

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31. Question 31

    Which of the following are related to Combined Leverage (CL)?

    A. CL = Contribution / PBT
    B. CL = EBIT / PBT
    C. CL = Contribution / EBIT
    D. CL = % Change in EPS / % Change in Sales
    E. CL = Operating Leverage × Financial Leverage

    1. AA, B and E only
    2. BB, C and E only
    3. CA, D and E only
    4. DA, B and C only

    Answer: (C) A, D and E only

    Explanation

    Combined Leverage equals Operating Leverage × Financial Leverage, giving A, D and E.

    • E. CL = OL × FL — the defining formula.
    • A. CL = Contribution / PBT — correct algebraically: OL = Contribution/EBIT and FL = EBIT/PBT, so OL × FL = Contribution/PBT.
    • D. CL = % Change in EPS / % Change in Sales — correct; this is the direct definitional (sensitivity) formula for CL.
    • B. CL = EBIT / PBT — this is the formula for Financial Leverage alone, not Combined Leverage.
    • C. CL = Contribution / EBIT — this is the formula for Operating Leverage alone, not Combined Leverage.

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32. Question 32

    Assertion (A): A brand is an important corporate resource.
    Reason (R): A brand embodies all of the characteristics of a company's product in the mind of the consumer.

    1. ABoth (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. BBoth (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    3. C(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
    4. D(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

    Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

    Explanation

    Both statements are true, and (R) explains (A). A brand is a valuable corporate resource (brand equity) precisely because it embodies, in the consumer's mind, all the associations, quality perceptions and characteristics of the product — that consolidated mental image is what generates loyalty, pricing power and differentiation, which is exactly why brands are treated as important intangible corporate assets.

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33. Question 33

    Which of the following represents the accounting equation?

    1. AAssets = Liabilities - Capital
    2. BCapital = Assets + Liabilities
    3. CLiabilities = Capital + Assets
    4. DLiabilities = Assets - Capital

    Answer: (D) Liabilities = Assets - Capital

    Explanation

    The fundamental accounting equation is Assets = Liabilities + Capital. Rearranging to isolate Liabilities gives Liabilities = Assets − Capital, which is option D.

    • A. Wrong sign: should be Liabilities + Capital, not minus.
    • B. Wrong: Capital = Assets − Liabilities, not Assets + Liabilities.
    • C. Wrong: this would imply Liabilities is larger than the total of Assets, which does not follow from the equation.

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34. Question 34

    Jyoti Jeevan Naik is associated with which institution?

    1. AShri Mahila Griha Udyog Lijjat Papad
    2. BSahkari Mahila Gram Samittee
    3. CJivika
    4. DSelf-Employed Women's Association

    Answer: (A) Shri Mahila Griha Udyog Lijjat Papad

    Explanation

    Jyoti Jeevan Naik was a founding member and long-serving president of Shri Mahila Griha Udyog Lijjat Papad, the pioneering women's co-operative enterprise started in Mumbai in 1959 that grew into one of India's best-known examples of grassroots women's entrepreneurship.

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35. Question 35

    Who is the author of “The Third Wave”?

    1. AHamel and Prahalad
    2. BAlvin Toffler
    3. CAldrich
    4. DNilkant and Ram Narayan

    Answer: (B) Alvin Toffler

    Explanation

    Alvin Toffler wrote “The Third Wave” (1980), which described human history as moving through three great waves of change — agricultural, industrial, and the emerging information/knowledge-based “third wave” — a book widely referenced in management and futures literature for its analysis of societal and economic transformation.

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36. Question 36

    Which statements about International Trade Theory are correct?

    A. Mercantilism says countries should import more than they export.
    B. Neo-mercantilism attempts to achieve an export surplus for a social or political objective.
    C. Absolute advantage reasoned that restricted trade leads countries to specialise in products of competitive advantage.
    D. Comparative advantage suggests gains from trade even when one country has absolute advantage in all products.

    1. AA and C only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (D) B and D only

    Explanation

    The correct statements are B and D.

    • A. Wrong: mercantilism argues countries should export more than they import to accumulate wealth (bullion), the opposite of what is stated.
    • B. Correct: neo-mercantilism pursues a trade (export) surplus to serve a social or political goal, not gold accumulation for its own sake, which is the classical mercantilist aim.
    • C. Wrong: Adam Smith's absolute advantage theory argues that free trade (not restricted trade) leads countries to specialise where they hold an absolute advantage.
    • D. Correct: this is the central insight of Ricardo's comparative advantage theory — mutually beneficial trade is possible even when one country is absolutely more efficient at producing everything, as long as relative efficiencies differ.

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37. Question 37

    “Innovation is the specific instrument of entrepreneurship—the act that endows resources with a new capacity to create wealth.” Who stated this?

    1. APeter Drucker
    2. BJ. A. Schumpeter
    3. CFrank H. Knight
    4. DFrank W. Young

    Answer: (B) J. A. Schumpeter

    Explanation

    This is a well-known statement from J. A. Schumpeter, whose theory of innovation places the entrepreneur at the centre of economic development as the agent who carries out “new combinations” of resources, disrupting existing equilibria (“creative destruction”) and thereby creating new wealth.

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38. Question 38

    What should be the maximum number of representatives in a Joint Management Council?

    1. ASix
    2. BTwelve
    3. CSixteen
    4. DTwenty

    Answer: (B) Twelve

    Explanation

    Under India's scheme of workers' participation in management, a Joint Management Council (JMC) is meant to have a maximum of twelve members, drawn in equal numbers from employer and worker representatives (in plants typically employing 500 or more workers).

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39. Question 39

    Match List I with List II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Divestitures	I. Parent firm no longer exists
    B. Pac-man defence	II. Does not bring any cash to parent company
    C. Spin-off	III. Selling some assets of the firm
    D. Split-up	IV. Target company makes a counter bid for raider company

    1. AA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    2. BA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    4. DA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

    Answer: (B) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Explanation

    The correct pairing is A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I.

    • Divestitures mean selling some assets of the firm — a partial disposal, not the whole company.
    • Pac-Man defence is a hostile-takeover defence where the target company makes a counter bid for the raider company, turning the tables on the acquirer.
    • Spin-off creates an independent company by distributing shares to existing shareholders, so it does not bring any cash to the parent company.
    • Split-up breaks the entire firm into two or more new independent companies, after which the original parent firm no longer exists.

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40. Question 40

    Which of the following strategies are types of combination strategies?

    A. No-change strategies
    B. Pause/Proceed-with-caution strategies
    C. Turnaround strategies
    D. Profit strategies
    E. Concentration strategies

    1. AB and C only
    2. BE and D only
    3. CA and B only
    4. DNone of the above

    Answer: (D) None of the above

    Explanation

    None of the listed items is itself a combination strategy. By definition, a combination (mixed) grand strategy means a firm pursues two or more of the individual grand strategies (stability, growth, or retrenchment types) simultaneously across different business units or over time.

    A, B, D and E are individual stability-type or growth-type strategies (no-change, pause/proceed-with-caution, profit, concentration), while C is an individual retrenchment-type strategy (turnaround). None of them describes the act of combining strategies together, so the correct answer is None of the above.

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41. Question 41

    Who is known as the “Father of Brainstorming”?

    1. AAlex F. Osborn
    2. BFrank Gilbreth
    3. CElton Mayo
    4. DPeter Drucker

    Answer: (A) Alex F. Osborn

    Explanation

    Alex F. Osborn, an advertising executive, popularised and formalised the brainstorming technique in his 1948 book “Your Creative Power,” establishing rules such as deferring judgment and encouraging free-wheeling ideas, which earned him the title “Father of Brainstorming.”

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42. Question 42

    As per Henry Mintzberg, which of the following is NOT a part of his conception of types of strategies?

    1. AIntended Strategy
    2. BUnrealised Strategy
    3. CContingency Strategy
    4. DEmergent Strategy

    Answer: (C) Contingency Strategy

    Explanation

    Mintzberg's typology of strategy consists of Intended, Deliberate, Unrealised and Emergent strategy (with Realised strategy being the sum of Deliberate plus Emergent strategy). Contingency Strategy is not part of this framework — it belongs to a different management concept (contingency planning/theory) and is the odd one out here.

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43. Question 43

    Consumers who are open to new ideas and are among the first to try new products, services or practices are called:

    1. ADogmatic
    2. BLaggards
    3. CInnovators
    4. DEarly Majority

    Answer: (C) Innovators

    Explanation

    In the diffusion-of-innovation adopter categories (Rogers), Innovators are the first (roughly 2.5%) to adopt a new product, being venturesome and highly receptive to new ideas. Laggards and the Early Majority are later-adopting categories, and Dogmatic describes a personality trait of closed-mindedness, not an adopter category.

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44. Question 44

    Which of the following are conceptual-component issues in CRM?

    A. Processing all customer requests through multiple channels
    B. Setting CRM objectives clearly
    C. Creating a good product for mass marketing
    D. Putting customers first
    E. Segmenting the market by occupations

    1. AB and D only
    2. BA and E only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DD and E only

    Answer: (A) B and D only

    Explanation

    The conceptual (as opposed to operational/technological) issues in CRM are B and D.

    • B. Setting CRM objectives clearly — a conceptual/strategic issue: without clearly defined goals, a CRM initiative lacks direction.
    • D. Putting customers first — a conceptual issue: this is the core philosophy underlying CRM as a customer-centric strategy.
    • A. Processing requests through multiple channels and E. Segmenting by occupations are operational/tactical execution issues, not conceptual ones.
    • C. Creating a good product for mass marketing actually contradicts CRM's individualised, relationship-based philosophy, which favours customisation over mass marketing.

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45. Question 45

    Fixing the zero date is an important step in establishing a project under:

    1. APreliminary steps
    2. BSecondary steps
    3. CDefinition steps
    4. DLast steps

    Answer: (C) Definition steps

    Explanation

    In project scheduling (PERT/CPM), the zero date — the reference date from which the entire project network and schedule are counted — is fixed as part of the Definition phase of the project, when the project's scope, objectives and starting reference point are formally established before detailed scheduling begins.

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46. Question 46

    Match employer attitudes with their appropriate meanings.

    List-I	List-II
    A. My Boat Attitude	I. Get off, if you do not like it
    B. Shared Boat Attitude	II. It is our own common enterprise; let us combine our efforts to better it
    C. Our Boat Attitude	III. We sail together; do not rock the boat
    D. Your Boat Attitude	IV. With ownership and pride, employees wholeheartedly contribute to the enterprise

    1. AA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    3. CA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    4. DA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Answer: (A) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

    Explanation

    Match each attitude to the description that defines it:

    • My Boat Attitude — “Get off if you do not like it” (I): the employer treats the enterprise as exclusively their own, with no room for employee input.
    • Shared Boat Attitude — “We sail together; do not rock the boat” (III): employer and employees are seen as being in it together, but the emphasis is on stability rather than active partnership.
    • Our Boat Attitude — “It is our own common enterprise; let us combine our efforts to better it” (II): frames the enterprise as a genuinely joint undertaking.
    • Your Boat Attitude — “With ownership and pride, employees wholeheartedly contribute to the enterprise” (IV): the strongest form, where employees themselves feel a sense of ownership.

    This gives A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV.

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47. Question 47

    What is the major assumption made when computing a mean from grouped data?

    1. AAll values are discrete
    2. BEvery value in a class is equal to the midpoint
    3. CEach class contains exactly the same number of values
    4. DNo value occurs more than once

    Answer: (B) Every value in a class is equal to the midpoint

    Explanation

    When data has already been grouped into class intervals, the exact individual values are lost, so the calculation assumes every value within a class is equal to the class midpoint. This assumption lets the analyst compute an approximate mean (Σfx/Σf, using midpoints for x) even though the true distribution of values inside each class is unknown.

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48. Question 48

    Given: Period I Sales = Rs 7,00,000 and Profit = loss of Rs 10,000; Period II Sales = Rs 9,00,000 and Profit = Rs 10,000. What is the P/V Ratio?

    1. A10%
    2. B20%
    3. C30%
    4. D25%

    Answer: (A) 10%

    Explanation

    Using the change-in-profit / change-in-sales method to find the P/V ratio between two periods:

    Change in Profit = 10,000 − (−10,000) = Rs 20,000
    Change in Sales = 9,00,000 − 7,00,000 = Rs 2,00,000

    P/V Ratio = Change in Profit ÷ Change in Sales = 20,000 ÷ 2,00,000 = 0.10 = 10%.

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49. Question 49

    Match List I with List II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Conjunctive	I. “I bought the smartphone app with the highest overall rating.”
    B. Disjunctive	II. “I downloaded the smartphone app that had the most downloads.”
    C. Affect-referred	III. “I selected the smartphone app that had no bad features.”
    D. Majority vote	IV. “I picked the smartphone app that excelled in at least one attribute.”

    1. AA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    4. DA-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    These are classic non-compensatory consumer decision rules matched to the customer statement that illustrates them, giving A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.

    • Conjunctive rule requires meeting a minimum cutoff on every attribute, matching “I selected the smartphone app that had no bad features” (III).
    • Disjunctive rule requires excelling on at least one attribute, matching “I picked the smartphone app that excelled in at least one attribute” (IV).
    • Affect-referral rule relies on the consumer's overall summary impression, matching “I bought the smartphone app with the highest overall rating” (I).
    • Majority-vote/popularity rule follows what most others chose, matching “I downloaded the smartphone app that had the most downloads” (II).

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50. Question 50

    Match Data Warehouse concepts with their meanings.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Data Marts	I. Fairly recent customer information used as an interim staging area
    B. Operational Data Store	II. Integration of data from many sources into a standard format
    C. Enterprise Data Warehouse	III. Describes structure and meaning of data
    D. Metadata	IV. Subset of a data warehouse, typically for a single subject area

    1. AA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    2. BA-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
    3. CA-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
    4. DA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

    Answer: (A) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Explanation

    Matching each data-warehouse concept to its definition gives A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III.

    • Data Marts are a subset of a data warehouse, typically for a single subject area (IV).
    • Operational Data Store holds fairly recent customer information used as an interim staging area (I) before it flows into the full warehouse.
    • Enterprise Data Warehouse performs the integration of data from many sources into a standard format (II) across the whole organisation.
    • Metadata is the information that describes the structure and meaning of data (III) held in the warehouse.

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51. Question 51

    Who argued that 'Attitude follows behavior'?

    1. ALeon Festinger
    2. BElton Mayo
    3. CMary P. Follett
    4. DF. Herzberg

    Answer: (A) Leon Festinger

    Explanation

    Leon Festinger, through his theory of cognitive dissonance, argued that when behaviour and attitude are inconsistent, people often adjust their attitude to match their already-performed behaviour (rather than the reverse), since it is psychologically easier to change a belief than to undo an action already taken.

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52. Question 52

    In case of financial enterprises, cash flows arising from dividend received and dividend paid are shown under which activities?

    1. AOperating activities
    2. BFinancing activities
    3. CInvesting activities
    4. DDividend received: investing; dividend paid: financing

    Answer: (A) Operating activities

    Explanation

    For financial enterprises (such as banks and financial institutions), interest and dividends received and paid are part of their normal core business, so under AS 3 / Ind AS 7 both dividend received and dividend paid are classified as Operating Activities. This differs from non-financial enterprises, where dividends received are Investing activities and dividends paid are Financing activities — the split described in option D applies only to non-financial firms, not financial enterprises as asked here.

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53. Question 53

    Arrange the components of the Value-Delivery Process from 1st to 6th step:

    A. Communicating the Value
    B. Enhancing the Value (including sustaining the value)
    C. Capturing the value back from the market (through pricing)
    D. Delivering the value
    E. Selecting the value (including exploring the value)
    F. Creating the Value

    1. AE, F, A, D, C, B only
    2. BF, B, D, E, A, C only
    3. CE, F, C, D, A, B only
    4. DA, E, F, B, C, D only

    Answer: (A) E, F, A, D, C, B only

    Explanation

    The Value-Delivery Process extends Kotler's classic “choose-provide-communicate” sequence into six steps: a firm must first select the value it will offer (segmenting, targeting, positioning), then create it (product/offer development), communicate it to the market, deliver it through distribution and service, capture it back as revenue through pricing, and finally enhance/sustain it through ongoing customer feedback and relationship management. This gives the order E, F, A, D, C, B.

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54. Question 54

    Match inspection processes with inspection types.

    1. AA-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
    2. BA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    3. CA-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    4. DA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

    Answer: (C) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

    Explanation

    Matching each inspection process to its type gives A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III.

    • Operator self-check at the point of production/purchase is Source Inspection (II) — checking is done at the point where the work is performed.
    • Classifying items as good or defective is Attribute Inspection (IV) — a simple pass/fail, go/no-go classification.
    • A check-list/fail-safe device that ensures a good unit every time describes Poka-Yoke (I) — a mistake-proofing mechanism.
    • Classification on a continuum scale such as dimension/strength is Variable Inspection (III) — measurement on a continuous scale rather than a simple pass/fail.

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55. Question 55

    “Making the brand a meaningful part of consumers' conversations and lives by fostering direct and continuous customer involvement in shaping brand conversations, experiences and community.” This describes:

    1. ACustomer Generated Marketing
    2. BSocietal Marketing Concept
    3. CCustomer Relationship Management
    4. DCustomer Engagement Marketing

    Answer: (D) Customer Engagement Marketing

    Explanation

    This is the definition of Customer Engagement Marketing, which focuses on making customers active, ongoing participants in shaping the brand's conversations, experiences and community, rather than passive recipients of a message — distinct from Customer Generated Marketing (which specifically means customers create the marketing content themselves) and from CRM (which centres on managing individual customer data and transactions).

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56. Question 56

    Likert had proposed only six dimensions of organisational climate. Who proposed seven dimensions of organisational climate?

    1. ALitwin and Stringer
    2. BSchein
    3. CKluckhohn and Strodtbeck
    4. DHofstede

    Answer: (A) Litwin and Stringer

    Explanation

    Litwin and Stringer extended Likert's earlier six-dimension view of organisational climate into a seven-dimension model (covering aspects such as structure, responsibility, reward, warmth/support and standards, among others), making their framework a landmark in organisational climate research. Schein is known for levels of organisational culture (not climate), Kluckhohn and Strodtbeck for national value-orientations, and Hofstede for cross-cultural dimensions — none of these three proposed the seven organisational-climate dimensions asked about here.

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57. Question 57

    A furnishing retailer opens a new generation of furniture galleries that are part store, part interior-design studio and part restaurant. This is an example of:

    1. AFranchise Retailing
    2. BExperiential Retailing
    3. CDepartmental Store Retailing
    4. DMega Retailing

    Answer: (B) Experiential Retailing

    Explanation

    Blending a furniture store with a design studio and a restaurant is a classic case of Experiential Retailing, where the retailer sells an immersive experience alongside the product, rather than simply providing a franchise format, a multi-department store, or sheer scale (mega retailing).

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58. Question 58

    Match entrepreneurship theories with their proponents.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Theory of Opportunities and Innovation	I. Frank W. Young
    B. Theory of Change	II. Peter F. Drucker
    C. Theory of Religious Beliefs	III. John H. Kunkel
    D. Theory of Entrepreneurship Supply	IV. Max Weber

    1. AA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    2. BA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    3. CA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    4. DA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

    Answer: (A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Explanation

    Matching each entrepreneurship theory to its proponent gives A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III.

    • Theory of Opportunities and Innovation is associated with Peter F. Drucker (II), who framed entrepreneurship around systematically exploiting opportunities through innovation.
    • Theory of Change is associated with Frank W. Young (I), whose theory links entrepreneurial supply to change at the group/community level.
    • Theory of Religious Beliefs is associated with Max Weber (IV), whose Protestant Ethic thesis linked religious values to entrepreneurial drive.
    • Theory of Entrepreneurship Supply is associated with John H. Kunkel (III), whose structural model (opportunity, labour, limitation and demand structures) explains the supply of entrepreneurs in a society.

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59. Question 59

    In the case of an Executive Chairman, what is the minimum percentage of Independent Directors required on the Board?

    1. AAt least one-third
    2. BAt least half
    3. CAt least one-fourth
    4. DAt least two-thirds

    Answer: (B) At least half

    Explanation

    Under SEBI's Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements (LODR) Regulations, the required proportion of Independent Directors depends on who chairs the board, because an executive chairperson concentrates more day-to-day power in a single insider, so the rule compensates with stronger independent oversight.

    • A. At least one-third — this lighter threshold applies only when the chairperson is a non-executive director not related to the promoter, not to an Executive Chairman.
    • B. At least half — correct. Because the chairperson here is executive (an insider running daily operations), the regulation requires independent directors to make up at least half the board so that oversight is not dominated by management.
    • C. At least one-fourth and D. At least two-thirds are not the thresholds specified anywhere in SEBI LODR Regulation 17 for either chairperson type, so both are incorrect distractors.

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60. Question 60

    Match theories of motivation with their proponents.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Need Hierarchy Theory	I. Frederick Herzberg
    B. Two-Factor Theory	II. Abraham H. Maslow
    C. Expectancy Theory	III. Douglas McGregor
    D. Theory X and Theory Y	IV. V. H. Vroom

    1. AA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    3. CA-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
    4. DA-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

    Answer: (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Explanation

    Matching each motivation theory to its proponent gives A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III.

    • Need Hierarchy Theory — Abraham H. Maslow (II).
    • Two-Factor Theory — Frederick Herzberg (I).
    • Expectancy Theory — V. H. Vroom (IV).
    • Theory X and Theory Y — Douglas McGregor (III).

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61. Question 61

    Arrange the requirements for effective control from later to initial as proposed by Koontz and Weihrich:

    A. Tailoring controls to individual managers
    B. Fitting the control system to organisational culture
    C. Making sure control points up exceptions at critical points
    D. Seeking objectivity of controls

    1. AB, A, C, D
    2. BB, C, D, A
    3. CB, A, D, C
    4. DB, D, C, A

    Answer: (D) B, D, C, A

    Explanation

    In Koontz and Weihrich's textbook list of requirements for effective controls, the items (in their initial-to-later textbook order) run: tailoring controls to individual managers, making sure control points up exceptions at critical points, seeking objectivity of controls, and fitting the control system to organisational culture. Reading this from later to initial reverses that sequence to B (organisational culture), D (objectivity), C (exceptions at critical points), A (individual managers).

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62. Question 62

    Which are important principles of Re-engineering according to Michael Hammer?

    A. Develop value-added jobs to balance job elimination
    B. Take specific actions to make the program operational
    C. Subsume information-processing work into the real work that produces the information
    D. Develop action plan of activities needed to achieve objectives
    E. Treat geographically dispersed resources as though centralised

    1. AA and C only
    2. BB and D only
    3. CC and E only
    4. DB and E only

    Answer: (C) C and E only

    Explanation

    Two of Michael Hammer's signature Business Process Re-engineering principles appear here: C and E.

    • C. Subsume information-processing work into the real work that produces the information — a genuine Hammer principle: have the people who generate information also process it, cutting out unnecessary hand-offs.
    • E. Treat geographically dispersed resources as though centralised — a genuine Hammer principle, made possible by information technology linking dispersed units as if they were one central resource.
    • A, B and D describe generic project-management or downsizing actions, not Hammer's specific re-engineering principles, and are distractors.

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63. Question 63

    Which Industry 4.0 technology can detect temperature, humidity and vibration changes, enabling avoidance of system malfunction and human protection in the Oil and Gas Industry?

    1. AArtificial Intelligence (AI)
    2. BInternet of Things (IoT)
    3. CBig Data
    4. DMachine Learning (ML)

    Answer: (B) Internet of Things (IoT)

    Explanation

    The question describes hardware that senses real-world physical conditions on equipment, and that is exactly what Internet of Things (IoT) devices are built to do.

    • A. Artificial Intelligence (AI) and D. Machine Learning (ML) are software techniques that analyse data after it is collected — they cannot, by themselves, detect temperature, humidity or vibration.
    • B. Internet of Things (IoT) — correct, because connected IoT sensors are the physical devices installed on Oil and Gas equipment that continuously measure temperature, humidity and vibration and transmit that data in real time, allowing malfunctions to be flagged early and workers to be protected before a failure occurs.
    • C. Big Data refers to the large volumes of collected data itself (often generated by IoT sensors), not the sensing hardware, so it is not the correct answer either.

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64. Question 64

    A company's current share price is Rs 60 and dividend per share is Rs 4. If its capitalisation rate is 12%, what is the dividend growth rate?

    1. A10%
    2. B20%
    3. C3.2%
    4. D5%

    Answer: (D) 5%

    Explanation

    Because the share price today reflects the present value of a dividend stream that is expected to keep growing, the growth rate can be solved for using the Gordon Growth (dividend-capitalisation) Model: P = D₀(1+g) / (Ke − g), where P = 60, D₀ = 4, and Ke = 12%.

    60(0.12 − g) = 4(1 + g)
    7.2 − 60g = 4 + 4g
    7.2 − 4 = 4g + 60g
    3.2 = 64g
    g = 3.2 / 64 = 0.05 = 5%

    Since this solved value matches exactly one option, D (5%) is correct, while A, B and C do not satisfy the equation when substituted back in.

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65. Question 65

    Which of the following are stages of Psychosexual Development according to Freud?

    A. Oral
    B. Anal
    C. Phallic
    D. Meticulous
    E. Genital

    1. AA, B, C and D only
    2. BA, B, C and E only
    3. CB, C, D and E only
    4. DA, C, D and E only

    Answer: (B) A, B, C and E only

    Explanation

    Freud's psychosexual stages are Oral, Anal, Phallic, Latency and Genital — among the given options, A, B, C and E are genuine stages. “Meticulous” (D) is not a stage at all; it is a personality trait sometimes associated with fixation at the anal stage (“anal-retentive” personality), not a stage name itself, making it a distractor.

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66. Question 66

    “A channel structure in which producers, wholesalers and retailers act as a unified system. One channel member owns the others, has contracts with them or has so much power that they all cooperate.” This describes:

    1. AConventional Distribution Channel
    2. BVertical Marketing System
    3. CFranchise System
    4. DHorizontal Marketing System

    Answer: (B) Vertical Marketing System

    Explanation

    This is the textbook definition of a Vertical Marketing System (VMS), where channel members act as a unified, coordinated system through ownership, contracts, or sheer power — in contrast to a Conventional Distribution Channel, where independent members act in their own self-interest with no coordinated leadership. A Franchise System is one specific type of contractual VMS, and a Horizontal Marketing System involves two or more companies at the same channel level joining forces, not the vertical, cross-level unification described here.

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67. Question 67

    Arrange the steps in the process of learning in proper order:

    A. Acquiring Knowledge
    B. Internalization of new knowledge
    C. Using learning in all situations
    D. Assimilation or retention
    E. Application of new learning
    F. Self-monitored learning

    1. AA, D, B, E, C, F
    2. BA, B, C, D, E, F
    3. CA, C, B, D, E, F
    4. DB, D, F, C, A, E

    Answer: (A) A, D, B, E, C, F

    Explanation

    Learning naturally progresses from first taking in information to eventually managing one's own learning: a learner first acquires knowledge (A), then retains/assimilates it (D), then internalises it as part of their own understanding (B), then applies the new learning (E), then generalises it to use it across all situations (C), and finally reaches self-monitored learning (F), where the learner directs their own ongoing development. This gives A, D, B, E, C, F.

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68. Question 68

    Put in sequence the four steps to convert raw real-world data into minable data sets:

    A. Data Cleaning
    B. Data Reduction
    C. Data Transformation
    D. Data Consolidation

    1. AB, A, C, D only
    2. BD, A, C, B only
    3. CA, D, C, B only
    4. DB, C, A, D only

    Answer: (C) A, D, C, B only

    Explanation

    The standard data-preprocessing pipeline for data mining runs Data Cleaning → Data Integration/Consolidation → Data Transformation → Data Reduction. Raw data is first cleaned of errors and noise (A), then consolidated from multiple sources into one consistent set (D), then transformed into a suitable format such as normalised or aggregated values (C), and finally reduced in volume/dimensionality while preserving analytical integrity (B). This gives A, D, C, B.

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69. Question 69

    After 10 years of deadlock, the European Union is ready to negotiate with India in WTO on which issue related to food security?

    1. APublic Stockholding Norms
    2. BClimate Change
    3. CNon-tariff barriers to trade
    4. DSanitary and Phytosanitary measures

    Answer: (A) Public Stockholding Norms

    Explanation

    The long-running WTO deadlock concerns Public Stockholding (PSH) for food-security purposes — India has, for over a decade, sought a permanent solution allowing it to stockpile and subsidise food grains for its public distribution system without breaching WTO subsidy limits, an issue on which the EU has periodically signalled openness to renewed negotiation.

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70. Question 70

    Arrange the stages of international development in ascending sequence:

    A. Primarily domestic company with international division
    B. Domestic company
    C. Multinational corporation with global emphasis
    D. Multinational corporation with multidomestic emphasis
    E. Domestic company with export division

    1. AE, B, C, A, D only
    2. BB, E, A, D, C only
    3. CB, E, A, C, D only
    4. DB, A, E, D, C only

    Answer: (B) B, E, A, D, C only

    Explanation

    A firm typically internationalises through this progression: it starts as a purely domestic company (B), begins exporting via a domestic company with an export division (E), then formalises this with a dedicated international division (A), before evolving into a multinational corporation with multidomestic emphasis (D) treating each country as a distinct market, and ultimately a multinational corporation with global emphasis (C) operating as one integrated worldwide system. This gives the ascending order B, E, A, D, C.

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71. Question 71

    Which types of employees are included in P. Morgan's definition of IHRM?

    A. Host-Country Nationals
    B. Parent-Country Nationals
    C. Third-Country Nationals
    D. Domestic Country Nationals

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA, B and C only
    3. CB, C and D only
    4. DA, B, C and D

    Answer: (B) A, B and C only

    Explanation

    Peter Morgan's classic definition of International HRM identifies three employee categories that a multinational must manage: Host-Country Nationals (A), Parent-Country Nationals (B), and Third-Country Nationals (C). “Domestic Country Nationals” (D) is not a standard IHRM category and is a distractor, giving A, B and C only.

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72. Question 72

    Arrange the working-capital cycle of a manufacturing concern in proper sequence:

    A. Raw material
    B. Cash
    C. Debtors
    D. Finished goods
    E. Work in progress

    1. AB, A, E, D, C only
    2. BA, E, B, C, D only
    3. CA, E, D, B, C only
    4. DA, E, D, C, B only

    Answer: (A) B, A, E, D, C only

    Explanation

    The working-capital cycle of a manufacturing firm starts with Cash (B), which buys Raw material (A), which is processed into Work in progress (E), then completed as Finished goods (D), which is sold on credit creating Debtors (C), who eventually pay and the cycle returns to cash. This gives B, A, E, D, C.

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73. Question 73

    To support Indian Artificial Intelligence startups, which technological infrastructure is expected to be developed by Government of India?

    1. ACreation of EPZ
    2. BCreation of GPU Clusters
    3. CCreation of SEZ Clusters
    4. DCreation of IT Parks

    Answer: (B) Creation of GPU Clusters

    Explanation

    The Government of India announced plans to build large GPU Clusters (high-performance computing infrastructure) to give Indian AI startups affordable, large-scale access to the graphics-processing power needed to train AI models domestically, rather than relying entirely on costly foreign cloud compute — unlike EPZs, SEZs or IT Parks, which are trade/real-estate zones rather than AI compute infrastructure.

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74. Question 74

    Statement I: Planning premises are the anticipated environment in which plans are expected to operate; they include assumptions/forecasts of the future and known conditions affecting plans.
    Statement II: No distinction should be drawn between forecasts that are planning premises and forecasts translated into future expectancies, usually in financial terms, from actual plans developed.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    Explanation

    Statement I is the standard Koontz and Weihrich definition of planning premises and is correct.

    Statement II inverts the actual principle. The established view is the opposite of what is stated: a clear distinction should be drawn between forecasts that serve as planning premises (assumptions about the future environment) and forecasts that have already been translated into financial expectations or actual plans, because conflating the two undermines sound planning. Statement II is therefore incorrect.

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75. Question 75

    Which is one of the five main factors given by E. M. Rogers that influence adoption of an innovation?

    1. AAccountability
    2. BTrialability
    3. CFlexibility
    4. DSalability

    Answer: (B) Trialability

    Explanation

    E. M. Rogers identified five characteristics that influence the rate of adoption of an innovation: relative advantage, compatibility, complexity, trialability, and observability. Among the given options, only Trialability — the degree to which an innovation can be experimented with on a limited basis before full adoption — is one of Rogers' actual five factors; the other options are not part of his framework.

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76. Question 76

    Which are assumptions of the Net Operating Income Approach of Capital Structure?

    A. There is no corporate tax
    B. Cost of debt remains constant at all levels
    C. Business risk remains constant at every level of debt-equity mix
    D. Cost of debt is less than cost of equity
    E. Overall cost of capital remains constant

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BA and B only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DA, B, C and E only

    Answer: (D) A, B, C and E only

    Explanation

    Durand's Net Operating Income (NOI) Approach rests on the assumptions A, B, C and E.

    • A. No corporate tax — the basic (pure) form of the model ignores tax effects.
    • B. Cost of debt remains constant at every level of leverage.
    • C. Business risk remains constant across every debt-equity mix.
    • E. Overall cost of capital (Ko) remains constant — this is in fact the model's central conclusion: capital structure is irrelevant because Ko never changes with leverage.
    • D. Cost of debt is less than cost of equity is a general market fact, not a formally stated assumption unique to the NOI approach, so it is excluded.

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77. Question 77

    “Creating a seamless cross-channel buying experience that integrates in-store, online and mobile shopping.” This describes:

    A. In-store Marketing
    B. Direct Marketing
    C. Omni-channel Retailing
    D. Online Marketing
    E. Digital Marketing

    1. AD only
    2. BC only
    3. CA and B only
    4. DD and E only

    Answer: (B) C only

    Explanation

    Integrating in-store, online and mobile shopping into one seamless experience is the defining feature of Omni-channel Retailing (C) — a strategy specifically about unifying all of a retailer's channels around the customer, which is broader than any single channel like in-store, direct, online or digital marketing alone.

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78. Question 78

    What is a misuse of committees?

    A. Authority
    B. Membership
    C. Replacement for a manager
    D. Decisions beyond participants' authority

    1. AC and D only
    2. BA and B only
    3. CC and A only
    4. DA and D only

    Answer: (A) C and D only

    Explanation

    Two well-recognised misuses of committees are C and D.

    • C. Replacement for a manager — a genuine misuse: a committee should support managerial decision-making, not be used as a substitute for a manager's individual accountability.
    • D. Decisions beyond participants' authority — a genuine misuse: committees are sometimes asked to decide matters that exceed the authority of their individual members, producing decisions no one is truly accountable for.
    • A (“Authority”) and B (“Membership”) as bare single words do not describe specific recognised misuses on their own.

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79. Question 79

    Statement I: Economic exposure refers to the change in value of a firm caused by unexpected changes in exchange rate.
    Statement II: Transaction exposure refers to long-term cash-flow exposure.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    Explanation

    Statement I is correct: economic exposure is precisely the change in a firm's value driven by unanticipated exchange-rate movements affecting its future cash flows and competitive position.

    Statement II is incorrect: it is economic exposure, not transaction exposure, that concerns long-term effects. Transaction exposure refers to the risk on specific, near-term contractual cash flows (such as foreign-currency receivables or payables already agreed) settling at a different exchange rate than expected — a short-term, not long-term, exposure.

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80. Question 80

    Which one of the following characterises interest-rate parity?

    1. AExchange rate between two currencies equals the ratio of goods prices in the two countries
    2. BForward rate must equal expected future spot rate
    3. CNominal interest-rate differential must equal expected inflation-rate differential
    4. DRelationship between interest rates and exchange rates of two countries

    Answer: (D) Relationship between interest rates and exchange rates of two countries

    Explanation

    Interest Rate Parity (IRP) is, at its core, the theory linking the interest-rate differential between two countries to the forward/spot exchange-rate differential, described generally in option D.

    • A. Describes Purchasing Power Parity, which relates exchange rates to relative goods prices, not interest rates.
    • B. Describes the unbiased forward-rate (expectations) hypothesis, a separate proposition about forward rates predicting future spot rates.
    • C. Describes the International Fisher Effect, which links interest-rate differentials to expected inflation differentials, not directly to exchange rates.

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81. Question 81

    The G20 Summit (2023) proposed which economic corridor including shipping and rail lines?

    1. AIMEE/IMEC (India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor)
    2. BBRI (Belt and Road Initiative)
    3. CCMREC (China-Mongolia-Russia Economic Corridor)
    4. DNELB (New Eurasian Land Bridge Corridor)

    Answer: (A) IMEE/IMEC (India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor)

    Explanation

    At the New Delhi G20 Summit (September 2023), India and partner nations announced the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC), a planned network of shipping lanes and rail links connecting India to the Middle East and onward to Europe. The other options are unrelated regional initiatives (China's Belt and Road Initiative, a China-Mongolia-Russia corridor, and the New Eurasian Land Bridge), not the 2023 G20 announcement.

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82. Question 82

    “Demonstrating statistically a relationship between scores on a selection procedure and job performance of a sample of workers” is called:

    1. AContent Validity
    2. BConstruct Validity
    3. CCriterion Validity
    4. DTest Validity

    Answer: (C) Criterion Validity

    Explanation

    This is the definition of Criterion-related Validity, which is established by statistically correlating scores on a selection test/procedure with an actual measure of job performance (the criterion). Content validity instead judges whether a test's content adequately represents the job's requirements, and construct validity assesses whether a test measures the theoretical trait/construct it claims to measure.

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83. Question 83

    Which are methods of assessing economic viability of a project?

    A. Pay Back Period (PBP)
    B. Return on Investment (ROI)
    C. Net Present Value (NPV)
    D. Benefit Cost Ratio (BCR)
    E. Critical Path Method (CPM)

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BA, B, C and D only
    3. CB, C, D and E only
    4. DA, C, D and E only

    Answer: (B) A, B, C and D only

    Explanation

    Economic viability is assessed using financial appraisal techniques — A, B, C and D — which measure return, cost recovery and value created by a project.

    • A. Pay Back Period, B. Return on Investment, C. Net Present Value, D. Benefit Cost Ratio are all standard project economic-appraisal methods.
    • E. Critical Path Method (CPM) is a scheduling/time-management technique used to sequence project activities, not a method for assessing economic viability, so it is excluded.

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84. Question 84

    Which reasons may be attributed to an individual's time preference for money?

    A. Risk
    B. Value of money would be increased
    C. Future uncertainties
    D. Preference for consumption
    E. Investment opportunities

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CA, C, D and E only
    4. DA, D and E only

    Answer: (C) A, C, D and E only

    Explanation

    The standard reasons behind time preference for money are A, C, D and E.

    • A. Risk and C. Future uncertainties — the future is inherently less certain than the present, making money now preferable to a promise of money later.
    • D. Preference for consumption — individuals generally prefer to consume now rather than delay gratification.
    • E. Investment opportunities — money in hand today can be invested to earn a return, making it worth more than the same sum received later.
    • B. “Value of money would be increased” reverses the real reasoning: money's purchasing power typically decreases over time (due to inflation), which is why present money is preferred — not because its value would increase.

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85. Question 85

    The variety of approaches to management analysis and different views resulted in confusion about what management is. Who called this situation “the management theory jungle”?

    1. AChester Barnard
    2. BElton Mayo
    3. CHarold Koontz
    4. DHenry L. Gantt

    Answer: (C) Harold Koontz

    Explanation

    Harold Koontz coined the phrase “the management theory jungle” in his influential 1961 article, describing the confusing proliferation of competing schools of management thought (process, behavioural, quantitative, systems, and others) that made it hard to identify a single, unified theory of management.

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86. Question 86

    A contingency table in statistics is one:

    1. AThat consists of rows and columns used to classify data on two dimensions
    2. BThat summarises measurements less than the upper-class boundary of each class
    3. CThat summarises percentage of items in non-overlapping classes
    4. DThat displays points representing each class frequency above class midpoints

    Answer: (A) That consists of rows and columns used to classify data on two dimensions

    Explanation

    A contingency table is a cross-tabulation that classifies data along two dimensions using rows and columns (for example, classifying respondents simultaneously by gender and by product preference), allowing the relationship between two categorical variables to be examined. Options B and D describe features of cumulative-frequency and frequency-polygon type displays, not a contingency table, and option C describes a simple frequency distribution, not a cross-tabulation.

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87. Question 87

    Gross working capital refers to a firm's:

    1. ATotal current assets
    2. BDifference between current assets and current liabilities
    3. CTotal liquid assets
    4. DTotal investment in the firm

    Answer: (A) Total current assets

    Explanation

    Gross Working Capital is defined as a firm's total investment in current assets (cash, inventory, receivables, and so on) — in other words, its total current assets, matching option A. Option B describes Net Working Capital (current assets minus current liabilities), not gross; option C refers only to liquid assets (a subset of current assets); and option D is too broad, since it would include fixed assets as well.

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88. Question 88

    Which assumptions are based on Walter's Model of dividend?

    A. Internal Financing
    B. 100 percent payout ratio
    C. The firm has a short-term life
    D. Constant EPS and Dividend per Share (DPS)
    E. Increasing return and minimise cost of capital

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BA, C and D only
    3. CB, D and E only
    4. DA, B and D only

    Answer: (D) A, B and D only

    Explanation

    Walter's Model of dividend policy rests on assumptions A, B and D.

    • A. Internal Financing — the firm finances all investment purely through retained earnings, with no external debt or equity issuance.
    • B. 100 percent payout ratio — the model works with the extreme case that earnings are either wholly retained or wholly paid out, treating payout as effectively all-or-nothing at the margin.
    • D. Constant EPS and DPS — earnings per share and dividend per share are assumed to remain unchanged when valuing the share.
    • C. “The firm has a short-term life” is the opposite of the model's actual assumption, which is that the firm has an infinite (very long) life.
    • E. “Increasing return and minimise cost of capital” is also wrong — the model assumes the internal rate of return (r) and cost of capital (Ke) both remain constant, not increasing/minimising.

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89. Question 89

    Two sets of theories are popular in organisational-behaviour literature—Behavioral and Cognitive. Behavioral theory constitutes:

    A. Classical conditioning
    B. Operant conditioning
    C. Perceived consequences
    D. Social learning
    E. Prior learning

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BA, B and D only
    3. CB, C and E only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (B) A, B and D only

    Explanation

    In organisational-behaviour learning literature, the Behavioral family of theories is generally treated as comprising Classical conditioning (A), Operant conditioning (B), and Social Learning Theory (D) — all three explain learning through environmental stimulus-response and reinforcement mechanisms (social learning theory extending conditioning through observation and modelling of others' reinforced behaviour). “Perceived consequences” (C), by contrast, centres on internal cognitive expectations about outcomes, placing it in the Cognitive theory family rather than the Behavioral one, so it is excluded here.

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90. Question 90

    Six Sigma is:

    A. A strategy that focuses on total customer satisfaction
    B. A mathematical function that connects quality loss and cost
    C. A program to reduce defects
    D. A discipline that follows the DMAIC model

    1. AA and D only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (C) A, C and D only

    Explanation

    Six Sigma is best characterised by A, C and D.

    • A. Six Sigma is fundamentally a customer-focused quality strategy aimed at total customer satisfaction.
    • C. Its core numerical goal is to drastically reduce defects (toward 3.4 defects per million opportunities).
    • D. It is applied through the disciplined DMAIC (Define-Measure-Analyze-Improve-Control) methodology.
    • B. “A mathematical function that connects quality loss and cost” describes the Taguchi Quality Loss Function, a different quality-management concept, not Six Sigma itself.

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91. Question 91

    What is the minimum prescribed net-profit threshold for companies to undertake CSR activities under Section/Clause 135 of the Companies Act, 2013?

    1. A1% of net profit
    2. B2% of net profit
    3. C3% of net profit
    4. D5% of net profit

    Answer: (B) 2% of net profit

    Explanation

    Under Section 135(5) of the Companies Act, 2013, a company that meets the applicability criteria of Section 135(1) must ensure its Board spends at least 2% of the average net profits made during the three immediately preceding financial years on CSR activities — the figure that matches option B among the percentages offered. Note that the question's own phrasing ("net-profit threshold... to undertake CSR activities") technically points to a different figure: the Section 135(1) applicability threshold is a net profit of Rs 5 crore (alongside net worth of Rs 500 crore or turnover of Rs 1,000 crore) in the preceding financial year, which triggers whether CSR applies at all. Since every answer choice here is a percentage, none can represent that Rs 5 crore rupee threshold, so the question is really testing the 2% CSR spending rate under Section 135(5), not the applicability trigger under Section 135(1) — the two are commonly conflated, including in this question's wording, but 2% is the intended and correctly keyed answer.

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92. Question 92

    Match Accounting Standards with related concepts.

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    3. CA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
    4. DA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

    Answer: (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Explanation

    Matching each Ind AS to its subject gives A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III.

    • Ind AS 1 — Presentation of Financial Statements (II).
    • Ind AS 7 — Cash Flow Statement (I).
    • Ind AS 16 — Property, Plant and Equipment (IV).
    • Ind AS 18 — Revenue Recognition (III).

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93. Question 93

    Which of the following are national financial institutions?

    A. Industrial Development Bank of India
    B. Industrial Finance Corporation of India
    C. State Industrial Development Corporation
    D. United Nations Development Programme
    E. State Financial Corporations

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CA, B, C and E only
    4. DA, C, D and E only

    Answer: (C) A, B, C and E only

    Explanation

    Within India's development-finance system, IDBI (A) and IFCI (B) are All-India (national-level) financial institutions, while State Industrial Development Corporations (C) and State Financial Corporations (E) are, strictly speaking, the state-level tier of that same system — set up under central/state legislation to supplement the all-India institutions' financing of industry within their respective states. The question uses "national financial institutions" loosely, to mean financial institutions belonging to India's national financial system, as distinct from an international body. The United Nations Development Programme (D) is a UN development agency, not an Indian financial institution at all, which is why it is the one clear exclusion. Under that intended reading, A, B, C and E together make up India's financial institutions among the options listed, even though a stricter national-versus-state classification would separate C and E from A and B.

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94. Question 94

    Arrange the Indian Trade Unions/Associations by formation from earlier to later:

    A. Madras Labour Union
    B. Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh
    C. Indian National Trade Union Congress
    D. All India Trade Union Congress
    E. Red Trade Union Congress

    1. AA, C, B, D, E only
    2. BA, D, E, C, B only
    3. CB, A, C, D, E only
    4. DD, A, E, C, B only

    Answer: (B) A, D, E, C, B only

    Explanation

    In order of formation: the Madras Labour Union (A, 1918) was India's first modern trade union, followed by the All India Trade Union Congress (D, 1920), then the Red Trade Union Congress (E, 1931), which split from AITUC, then the Indian National Trade Union Congress (C, 1947), and finally the Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (B, 1955). This gives A, D, E, C, B.

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95. Question 95

    Which type of intrapreneur is known for generating innovative ideas and seeking ways to improve processes?

    1. AEmployee Intrapreneur
    2. BDoers Intrapreneur
    3. CCreator Intrapreneur
    4. DImplementers Intrapreneur

    Answer: (C) Creator Intrapreneur

    Explanation

    The Creator Intrapreneur is the type specifically characterised by generating new, innovative ideas and looking for ways to improve existing processes, as distinct from Doers, who focus on executing tasks, and Implementers, who focus on putting already-formed ideas into practice.

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96. Question 96

    Scheduling decisions range from years to minutes/hours/days. Arrange the following scheduling decisions:

    A. Aggregate Planning
    B. Short-term Scheduling
    C. Master Schedule
    D. Capacity Planning

    1. AB, A, C, D only
    2. BD, A, C, B only
    3. CA, D, C, B only
    4. DB, C, A, D only

    Answer: (B) D, A, C, B only

    Explanation

    Production planning and scheduling decisions move from the longest to the shortest time horizon: Capacity Planning (D, years) sets long-term physical capacity, Aggregate Planning (A, months) plans overall output levels, the Master Schedule (C, weeks) breaks this into specific product quantities and timing, and Short-term Scheduling (B, days/hours) sequences the actual day-to-day operations. This gives D, A, C, B.

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97. Question 97

    What represents basic convictions that “a specific mode of conduct or end-state of existence is personally or socially preferable to an opposite or converse mode of conduct or end-state of existence”?

    1. AEthics
    2. BBelief
    3. CValues
    4. DPersonality

    Answer: (C) Values

    Explanation

    This is the classic Rokeach definition of Values — enduring beliefs that a particular way of behaving or a particular end-state is preferable to its opposite. Ethics concerns moral principles of right and wrong conduct broadly, a belief is a narrower conviction about a specific fact or idea, and personality refers to a person's stable pattern of traits, none of which matches this specific definitional wording.

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98. Question 98

    Statement I: Adaptation of leadership styles to different contingencies was characterised by Robert Tannenbaum and Warren H. Schmidt, developers of the leadership-continuum concept.
    Statement II: They see leadership as involving a variety of styles ranging from highly boss-oriented to highly subordinate-centred.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

    Explanation

    Both statements are correct. Robert Tannenbaum and Warren H. Schmidt developed the well-known Leadership Continuum model (in their 1958/1973 Harvard Business Review article), which depicts leadership behaviour as a spectrum of styles running from highly boss-centred (autocratic) at one end to highly subordinate-centred (democratic) at the other, with managers choosing a point on the continuum depending on the situation.

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99. Question 99

    Which of the following are cash flows from financing activities?

    A. Cash receipt from issue of shares
    B. Cash payment for buy-back of shares
    C. Brokerage paid for acquisition of fixed assets
    D. Payment of cash dividend
    E. Cash receipt of interest and dividend on long-term investment

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BA, C and D only
    3. CB, C and D only
    4. DA, B and D only

    Answer: (D) A, B and D only

    Explanation

    The genuine financing-activity cash flows here are A, B and D.

    • A. Cash receipt from issue of shares — raising equity capital is a financing inflow.
    • B. Cash payment for buy-back of shares — returning capital to shareholders is a financing outflow.
    • D. Payment of cash dividend — a distribution to shareholders is always a financing outflow.
    • C. Brokerage paid for acquisition of fixed assets relates to buying a long-term asset, which is an Investing activity, not financing.
    • E. Cash receipt of interest and dividend on long-term investment is also an Investing activity (return on an investment), not financing.

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100. Question 100

     The primary difference between CPM and PERT is that:

     1. APERT has one time estimate and CPM has three time estimates
     2. BPERT has two time estimates and CPM has three time estimates
     3. CPERT has three time estimates and CPM requires only one time factor for each activity
     4. DPERT assumes activity times are known with certainty and CPM employs three time estimates

     Answer: (C) PERT has three time estimates and CPM requires only one time factor for each activity

     Explanation

     PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique) is probabilistic, using three time estimates per activity — optimistic, most likely and pessimistic — to account for uncertainty, while CPM (Critical Path Method) is deterministic and uses just one time estimate per activity, assuming activity durations are known with reasonable certainty. Options A, B and D each reverse or misstate this distinction.

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