UGC NET Management June 2023 Question PaperPaper 1 & Paper 2 with Answer Key

49 questions with the answer key and explanations.

1. Question 1

   The number of female candidates who qualified from state B in 2021 is approximately ______ % of the male candidates who qualified from state A in 2022.

   Table 1 shows the percentage distribution of candidates who qualified in a competitive examination from six states A–F during 2021 and 2022, along with the ratio of male to female among them. Table 2 shows the total number of candidates who appeared and the percentage of candidates who qualified from all six states A–F in these two years.

   State	2021 Qualified (%)	2021 Male:Female	2022 Qualified (%)	2022 Male:Female
   A	18%	5:4	20%	28:17
   B	16%	3:1	12%	5:3
   C	12%	7:5	16%	11:5
   D	16%	13:11	15%	15:11
   E	25%	13:12	22%	15:9
   F	13%	8:1	15%	11:9

   Year	Total Appeared (A–F)	Qualified (%) from A–F
   2021	142000	45%
   2022	180000	52%

   1. A16
   2. B22
   3. C20
   4. D18

   Answer: (B) 22

   Explanation

   B. 22 — correct.

   Total 2021 qualifiers (A–F) = 45% of 142000 = 63,900. State B's share = 16% of 63,900 = 10,224, and its Male:Female split of 3:1 gives female = 10,224 ÷ 4 = 2,556.

   Total 2022 qualifiers = 52% of 180000 = 93,600. State A's share = 20% of 93,600 = 18,720, and its Male:Female split of 28:17 gives male = 18,720 × 28/45 = 11,648.

   2,556 ÷ 11,648 × 100 ≈ 21.9%, which rounds to 22%.

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2. Question 2

   In 2022 for state A, if four female candidates who qualified are not eligible, then what is the average number of female candidates who qualified (and eligible) from all the six states together in the year 2022?

   Table 1 shows the percentage distribution of candidates who qualified in a competitive examination from six states A–F during 2021 and 2022, along with the ratio of male to female among them. Table 2 shows the total number of candidates who appeared and the percentage of candidates who qualified from all six states A–F in these two years.

   State	2021 Qualified (%)	2021 Male:Female	2022 Qualified (%)	2022 Male:Female
   A	18%	5:4	20%	28:17
   B	16%	3:1	12%	5:3
   C	12%	7:5	16%	11:5
   D	16%	13:11	15%	15:11
   E	25%	13:12	22%	15:9
   F	13%	8:1	15%	11:9

   Year	Total Appeared (A–F)	Qualified (%) from A–F
   2021	142000	45%
   2022	180000	52%

   1. A5990
   2. B5900
   3. C5920
   4. D5940

   Answer: (A) 5990

   Explanation

   A. 5990 — correct.

   Total 2022 qualifiers = 52% of 180000 = 93,600. Applying each state's share and Male:Female ratio gives the female qualifiers: A = 20% × 93,600 × 17/45 = 7,072; B = 12% × 93,600 × 3/8 = 4,212; C = 16% × 93,600 × 5/16 = 4,680; D = 15% × 93,600 × 11/26 = 5,940; E = 22% × 93,600 × 9/24 = 7,722; F = 15% × 93,600 × 9/20 = 6,318.

   Removing 4 ineligible female candidates from state A gives 7,072 − 4 = 7,068. Summing all six states: 7,068 + 4,212 + 4,680 + 5,940 + 7,722 + 6,318 = 35,940, and 35,940 ÷ 6 = 5,990.

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3. Question 3

   What is the ratio of the number of female candidates who qualified from states A and C together in 2021 to number of male candidates who qualified from the same two states in the year 2022?

   Table 1 shows the percentage distribution of candidates who qualified in a competitive examination from six states A–F during 2021 and 2022, along with the ratio of male to female among them. Table 2 shows the total number of candidates who appeared and the percentage of candidates who qualified from all six states A–F in these two years.

   State	2021 Qualified (%)	2021 Male:Female	2022 Qualified (%)	2022 Male:Female
   A	18%	5:4	20%	28:17
   B	16%	3:1	12%	5:3
   C	12%	7:5	16%	11:5
   D	16%	13:11	15%	15:11
   E	25%	13:12	22%	15:9
   F	13%	8:1	15%	11:9

   Year	Total Appeared (A–F)	Qualified (%) from A–F
   2021	142000	45%
   2022	180000	52%

   1. A8307:21844
   2. B8407:21944
   3. C8307:21944
   4. D8307:20894

   Answer: (C) 8307:21944

   Explanation

   C. 8307:21944 — correct.

   2021 total qualifiers = 63,900. Female from A = 18% × 63,900 × 4/9 = 5,112. Female from C = 12% × 63,900 × 5/12 = 3,195. Together: 5,112 + 3,195 = 8,307.

   2022 total qualifiers = 93,600. Male from A = 20% × 93,600 × 28/45 = 11,648. Male from C = 16% × 93,600 × 11/16 = 10,296. Together: 11,648 + 10,296 = 21,944.

   The ratio is 8307:21944, matching only option C — the other options alter one digit in either term to trap arithmetic slips.

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4. Question 4

   The number of male candidates who qualified from state E in 2022 is approximately ______ % more than the number of male candidates who qualified from state F in 2021.

   Table 1 shows the percentage distribution of candidates who qualified in a competitive examination from six states A–F during 2021 and 2022, along with the ratio of male to female among them. Table 2 shows the total number of candidates who appeared and the percentage of candidates who qualified from all six states A–F in these two years.

   State	2021 Qualified (%)	2021 Male:Female	2022 Qualified (%)	2022 Male:Female
   A	18%	5:4	20%	28:17
   B	16%	3:1	12%	5:3
   C	12%	7:5	16%	11:5
   D	16%	13:11	15%	15:11
   E	25%	13:12	22%	15:9
   F	13%	8:1	15%	11:9

   Year	Total Appeared (A–F)	Qualified (%) from A–F
   2021	142000	45%
   2022	180000	52%

   1. A72
   2. B74
   3. C70
   4. D76

   Answer: (B) 74

   Explanation

   B. 74 — correct.

   2022 total qualifiers = 93,600. State E's share = 22% × 93,600 = 20,592, and its Male:Female ratio 15:9 gives male = 20,592 × 15/24 = 12,870.

   2021 total qualifiers = 63,900. State F's share = 13% × 63,900 = 8,307, and its Male:Female ratio 8:1 gives male = 8,307 × 8/9 = 7,384.

   Percentage more = (12,870 − 7,384) ÷ 7,384 × 100 = 5,486 ÷ 7,384 × 100 ≈ 74.3%, which rounds to 74%.

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5. Question 5

   In the year 2021, the number of female candidates who qualified is more than 5000 in exactly ______ states.

   Table 1 shows the percentage distribution of candidates who qualified in a competitive examination from six states A–F during 2021 and 2022, along with the ratio of male to female among them. Table 2 shows the total number of candidates who appeared and the percentage of candidates who qualified from all six states A–F in these two years.

   State	2021 Qualified (%)	2021 Male:Female	2022 Qualified (%)	2022 Male:Female
   A	18%	5:4	20%	28:17
   B	16%	3:1	12%	5:3
   C	12%	7:5	16%	11:5
   D	16%	13:11	15%	15:11
   E	25%	13:12	22%	15:9
   F	13%	8:1	15%	11:9

   Year	Total Appeared (A–F)	Qualified (%) from A–F
   2021	142000	45%
   2022	180000	52%

   1. Afive
   2. Bfour
   3. Cthree
   4. Dtwo

   Answer: (D) two

   Explanation

   D. two — correct.

   2021 total qualifiers = 63,900. Working out female qualifiers per state (share % × 63,900 × female-part-of-ratio): A = 5,112; B = 2,556; C = 3,195; D = 4,686; E = 7,668; F = 923.

   Only state A (5,112) and state E (7,668) exceed 5,000, so exactly two states qualify.

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6. Question 6

   In which method of collaborative learning the main purpose is to develop listening skills in the students?

   1. Acircle of voices
   2. Bproblem solving
   3. CFishbowl strategy
   4. DJigsaw strategy

   Answer: (C) Fishbowl strategy

   Explanation

   C. Fishbowl strategy — correct. In the Fishbowl strategy, a small inner group actively discusses a topic while the rest of the class sits outside as observers who must listen closely without speaking, which is precisely why the technique is built to develop listening skill.

   • A. circle of voices — trains turn-taking and equal participation, not specifically listening.
   • B. problem solving — targets analytical and decision-making skill, not listening.
   • D. Jigsaw strategy — builds interdependence and peer-teaching by splitting content across expert groups, not listening specifically.

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7. Question 7

   Which of the following individual difference(s) may not affect learning?
   A. Cultural background
   B. Height
   C. Blood Group
   D. Age
   E. Complexion

   1. AA, D and E only
   2. BB, C and E only
   3. CB only
   4. DA, C and D only

   Answer: (B) B, C and E only

   Explanation

   B. B, C and E only — correct. Height, blood group, and complexion are physical traits with no established link to a learner's cognitive processing or performance, so they may not affect learning.

   • Cultural background and age are recognised individual-difference factors that do shape learning — cultural background influences prior knowledge and learning style, and age affects cognitive readiness and pace — so they are excluded from the "may not affect" set.

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8. Question 8

   Which of the following are the characteristics of Mind mapping?
   A. Built around a central topic.
   B. Use of long sentences and paragraphs to explain the content.
   C. The branches of a particular topic form a connected nodal structure.
   D. Use of images and symbols to represent ideas.

   1. AA only
   2. BB and D only
   3. CA, C and D only
   4. DB and C only

   Answer: (C) A, C and D only

   Explanation

   C. A, C and D only — correct. A mind map is built outward from one central topic (A), branches into a connected nodal structure of related sub-ideas (C), and relies on images, symbols, and brief keywords rather than prose (D).

   • B. Long sentences and paragraphs — this is exactly what mind mapping avoids; it condenses ideas into short labels and visual cues, so B does not describe the technique.

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9. Question 9

   Match List I with List II.

   List-I (Channel No.)	List-II (Channel)
   A. CH-04	I. PRABANDHAN
   B. CH-05	II. KAUTILYA
   C. CH-06	III. SAARASWAT
   D. CH-07	IV. VIDHIK

   SWAYAM PRABHA channel numbers and names

   1. AA-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
   2. BA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
   3. CA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
   4. DA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

   Answer: (C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

   Explanation

   C. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II — correct: CH-04 pairs with SAARASWAT, CH-05 with PRABANDHAN, CH-06 with VIDHIK, and CH-07 with KAUTILYA.

   These are SWAYAM PRABHA free-to-air educational DTH channels used as an ICT-based teaching support system in Indian higher education — each carries a distinct subject stream, and this question tests recall of that channel-to-name mapping rather than a derivable rule.

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10. Question 10

    Which of the following is a benefit of using rubrics for evaluation?

    1. AGreater ease of grading
    2. BIncreased consistency in grading
    3. CIncreased subjectivity
    4. DGreater test security

    Answer: (B) Increased consistency in grading

    Explanation

    B. Increased consistency in grading — correct. A rubric fixes explicit criteria and performance levels in advance, so every evaluator applies the same standard to every learner, which is the core benefit rubrics are designed for.

    • A. Greater ease of grading — rubrics can speed grading, but their defining purpose is standardising judgment, not simply making grading easier.
    • C. Increased subjectivity — a rubric does the opposite: it reduces subjective, evaluator-dependent judgment.
    • D. Greater test security — rubrics govern how answers are scored, not how a test is secured from leakage or cheating.

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11. Question 11

    According to the UGC Regulations, 2018 on plagiarism similarity of 42% refers to which of the following levels of plagiarism?

    1. A0
    2. B1
    3. C2
    4. D3

    Answer: (C) 2

    Explanation

    C. 2 — correct. The UGC (Promotion of Academic Integrity and Prevention of Plagiarism in Higher Educational Institutions) Regulations, 2018 define similarity bands as: Level 0 (up to 10%, no penalty), Level 1 (10%–40%), Level 2 (40%–60%), and Level 3 (above 60%). A similarity of 42% falls inside the 40%–60% band, which is Level 2.

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12. Question 12

    The question of whether a measure that is devised for a concept really does reflect the concept that it is supposed to be denoting, relates to:

    1. AMeasurement validity
    2. BEcological validity
    3. CInternal validity
    4. DExternal validity

    Answer: (A) Measurement validity

    Explanation

    A. Measurement validity — correct. Measurement (construct) validity is specifically about whether the operational measure devised for an abstract concept actually captures that concept.

    • B. Ecological validity — concerns whether findings generalise to real-world, natural settings, not whether the measure fits the concept.
    • C. Internal validity — concerns whether an observed causal relationship in a study is genuine and not due to confounds.
    • D. External validity — concerns whether results generalise beyond the specific study sample and setting.

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13. Question 13

    Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

    Assertion (A): Surveys conducted over the internet have witnessed a huge growth since the late 1990s.
    Reason (R): Internet users always constitute an unbiased sample of the population.

    1. ABoth A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is correct but R is not correct
    4. DA is not correct but R is correct

    Answer: (C) A is correct but R is not correct

    Explanation

    C. A is correct but R is not correct — correct. Internet-based surveys have genuinely grown rapidly since the late 1990s as internet access expanded, so Assertion A is true.

    Reason R is false: internet users are a self-selected group skewed toward those with access, digital literacy, and willingness to respond online, so they never "always" form an unbiased sample of the whole population — sampling bias in web surveys is a well-documented methodological concern, not an advantage.

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14. Question 14

    Among the following types of sampling techniques, which one is also known as 'Judgemental' sampling?

    1. AQuota sampling
    2. BConvenience Sampling
    3. CCluster Sampling
    4. DPurposive Sampling

    Answer: (D) Purposive Sampling

    Explanation

    D. Purposive Sampling — correct. Purposive sampling selects units based on the researcher's own judgment about which cases will best serve the study's purpose, which is exactly why it is also called judgemental sampling.

    • A. Quota sampling — fills pre-set category quotas, not judgment-driven case selection.
    • B. Convenience sampling — selects whichever units are easiest to access, not the most informative ones.
    • C. Cluster sampling — randomly selects whole clusters/groups from the population, a probability method unrelated to judgment.

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15. Question 15

    Variations in time series data would be best represented by a:

    1. Aline chart
    2. Bpie chart
    3. Cbar chart
    4. Dscatter plot

    Answer: (A) line chart

    Explanation

    A. line chart — correct. A line chart plots successive values against time along a continuous axis, so the rises, falls, and trend of the data are directly visible as the line's shape — exactly what "variation over time" needs.

    • B. pie chart — shows proportional shares of a whole at one point in time, not change over time.
    • C. bar chart — compares discrete category totals well but does not emphasise continuous trend the way a connected line does.
    • D. scatter plot — shows the relationship between two independent variables, not a variable's progression across ordered time points.

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16. Question 16

    The person who studies the symbiotic relationship between people and the media technologies which they create and use is identified as a:

    1. AMedia influencer
    2. BMedia sociologist
    3. CMedia anthropologist
    4. DMedia ecologist

    Answer: (D) Media ecologist

    Explanation

    D. Media ecologist — correct. Media ecology studies how media and communication technologies form an "environment" that people and technology mutually shape — that symbiotic people-technology relationship is the field's defining subject.

    • A. Media influencer — a person who shapes audience opinion through media, not a researcher of media's effects.
    • B. Media sociologist — studies media's role in social structures and institutions broadly, not specifically the human-technology symbiosis.
    • C. Media anthropologist — studies media within cultural practices and rituals, a related but distinct focus from the technology-environment relationship media ecology targets.

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17. Question 17

    A political party broadcast is considered as:

    1. Aopen text
    2. Bclosed text
    3. CLengthy text
    4. DLiberal text

    Answer: (B) closed text

    Explanation

    B. closed text — correct. A political party broadcast is scripted, tightly controlled, and structured to carry one intended message with little room for multiple audience interpretations, which is the defining feature of a "closed" text in media/communication theory.

    • A. open text — invites varied audience interpretation, the opposite of a tightly controlled party broadcast.
    • C. Lengthy text and D. Liberal text — describe length or political leaning, not the closed/open framing used to classify how a text controls meaning.

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18. Question 18

    The Buddhist concept of interpersonal communications emphasizes:
    A. Flexible morality
    B. Total isolation
    C. Sensitive use of language
    D. Truthfulness
    E. Achievement of consensus

    1. AA, B, C Only
    2. BB, C, D Only
    3. CC, D, E Only
    4. DA, B, E Only

    Answer: (C) C, D, E Only

    Explanation

    C. C, D, E Only — correct. Buddhist communication ethics stress right speech: using language mindfully and without harm (sensitive use of language), speaking only what is true (truthfulness), and communicating in a way that moves people toward shared understanding (achievement of consensus).

    • Flexible morality contradicts Buddhist ethics, which hold to consistent moral precepts rather than situational flexibility.
    • Total isolation contradicts the very idea of interpersonal communication, which the Buddhist concept is about engaging in, not withdrawing from.

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19. Question 19

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: The Hindu view of communications is based on the precept that reality is undivided.
    Statement II: According to the ancient Hindu view language is a means to acquire knowledge.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

    Explanation

    A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true — correct.

    Statement I reflects the Advaitic (non-dual) foundation of the Hindu communication worldview, which treats reality — and by extension the communicator and receiver — as fundamentally undivided rather than separate.

    Statement II reflects the classical Indian epistemological view of Shabda (word/language) as a valid means (pramana) of acquiring knowledge, alongside perception and inference. Both statements accurately describe recognised strands of ancient Hindu communication thought.

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20. Question 20

    Match List I with List II.

    List-I (Scholars)	List-II (Organization/Concept)
    A. Bharatha	I. Grammar
    B. Bharthrahari	II. Sadharanikaran
    C. Bhattanayaka	III. Rasa theory
    D. Panini	IV. Speech theory

    Indian scholars matched with their communication/aesthetic concepts

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    4. DA-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

    Answer: (C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Explanation

    C. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I — correct: Bharatha pairs with Rasa theory, Bharthrahari with Speech theory (Sphota), Bhattanayaka with Sadharanikaran, and Panini with Grammar.

    Bharata's Natyashastra founded Rasa theory (aesthetic experience); Bhartrhari's philosophy of language centres on the Sphota/speech-act theory; Bhattanayaka is credited with the Sadharanikaran (communal/universalising) concept in Indian aesthetics; and Panini is the foundational grammarian of Sanskrit (Ashtadhyayi).

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21. Question 21

    A person X can do a piece of work worth ₹3000 in 6 days; but he engages an assistant Y, and completes the work in 4 days. Find the share of the assistant Y in completing the work.

    1. A₹800
    2. B₹1000
    3. C₹1500
    4. D₹1200

    Answer: (B) ₹1000

    Explanation

    B. ₹1000 — correct.

    X's rate alone = ₹3000 ÷ 6 days = ₹500/day. Working together, the pair finishes the ₹3000 work in 4 days, a combined rate of ₹3000 ÷ 4 = ₹750/day. Y's rate is the difference: ₹750 − ₹500 = ₹250/day.

    Y's share of the payment equals the value of work Y actually contributed over the 4 days: ₹250 × 4 = ₹1000.

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22. Question 22

    What number would replace question mark (?) in the series given below? 1, 6, 14, 40, 108, 296, 808, ?

    1. A2208
    2. B1104
    3. C1212
    4. D1804

    Answer: (A) 2208

    Explanation

    A. 2208 — correct.

    Each term follows the recurrence: term = 2 × (previous term) + 2 × (term before that). Checking it: 2×6+2×1=14 ✓, 2×14+2×6=40 ✓, 2×40+2×14=108 ✓, 2×108+2×40=296 ✓, 2×296+2×108=808 ✓.

    Applying it once more: 2×808 + 2×296 = 1616 + 592 = 2208.

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23. Question 23

    The house of a man is facing towards south. From the front door of the house, the man starts walking and after walking for 20 meters straight, he turns to his left and walks for 50 meters. After this the man turns to his right and walks for 80 meters and stops there. Find the distance from the point where the man stops to the front door of his house.

    1. A25√5 m
    2. B50√5 m
    3. C50 m
    4. D100 m

    Answer: (B) 50√5 m

    Explanation

    B. 50√5 m — correct.

    Starting at the door (0, 0) and walking out facing south covers 20 m south, to (0, −20). Facing south, a left turn faces him east; walking 50 m east reaches (50, −20). Facing east, a right turn faces him south; walking 80 m south reaches (50, −100).

    The straight-line distance back to the door uses the right triangle formed by the net eastward leg (50 m) and net southward leg (20 + 80 = 100 m): √(50² + 100²) = √12500 = 50√5 m.

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24. Question 24

    In a certain coding language: (a) 'ON' is coded as 210; (b) 'OFF' is coded as 540. How 'SET' will be coded in that language?

    1. A1600
    2. B1850
    3. C1700
    4. D1900

    Answer: (D) 1900

    Explanation

    D. 1900 — correct.

    Each word's code is the product of its letters' alphabet positions (A=1, B=2, C=3, and so on). Verify the rule against both given examples: O(15) × N(14) = 210, which matches 'ON' = 210, and O(15) × F(6) × F(6) = 540, which matches 'OFF' = 540. The rule holds for both, so it is safe to apply to the new word.

    For SET, look up each letter's position — S is the 19th letter, E is the 5th, T is the 20th — and multiply them together: 19 × 5 × 20 = 1900. This matches only option D; the other options come from arithmetic slips such as mis-multiplying the position values.

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25. Question 25

    Which of the following statements are contrary to each other?
    A. All movies are thrillers.
    B. Some movies are not thrillers.
    C. No movies are thrillers.
    D. Some movies are thrillers.

    1. AA and C Only
    2. BB and C Only
    3. CA and D Only
    4. DC and D Only

    Answer: (A) A and C Only

    Explanation

    A. A and C Only — correct. On the traditional square of opposition, the universal affirmative (A-type: "All movies are thrillers") and the universal negative (E-type: "No movies are thrillers") are contraries — they cannot both be true, though they can both be false.

    Statement B is the particular negative (O-type) and D is the particular affirmative (I-type); A and O are contradictories (not contraries), and so are E and I, while B and D themselves are subcontraries — none of those other pairings fit the "contrary" relation.

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26. Question 26

    If the statement 'Some trucks are not polluting vehicles' is given as false then which of the following statements can be immediately inferred to be true?
    A. All trucks are non-polluting vehicles.
    B. All trucks are polluting vehicles.
    C. Some trucks are polluting vehicles.
    D. All polluting vehicles are trucks.

    1. AA and C Only
    2. BC and D Only
    3. CB, C and D Only
    4. DB and C Only

    Answer: (D) B and C Only

    Explanation

    D. B and C Only — correct. "Some trucks are not polluting vehicles" is the O-proposition; its contradictory is the A-proposition "All trucks are polluting vehicles." Since the O-statement is false, its contradictory A-statement (B) must be true.

    By subalternation, a true universal affirmative (A) validly implies the corresponding particular affirmative (I): "Some trucks are polluting vehicles" (C) therefore also follows.

    • A contradicts the now-true statement B, so it is false.
    • D. "All polluting vehicles are trucks" is the converse of B and is not logically guaranteed by it (a converse error), so it cannot be inferred.

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27. Question 27

    Which of the following statements is logically equivalent to the statement 'All philosophers are realists'?

    1. ANo philosopher is non-realist
    2. BNo realists are non-philosophers
    3. CNo non-philosopher are non-realists
    4. DNo non-realists are non-philosophers

    Answer: (A) No philosopher is non-realist

    Explanation

    A. No philosopher is non-realist — correct. The obverse of a universal affirmative (A-proposition) "All S are P" is the logically equivalent universal negative "No S is non-P." Applying this to "All philosophers are realists" gives exactly "No philosopher is non-realist."

    • B swaps subject and predicate without the negation obversion requires, changing the claim's meaning (a converse, not an obverse).
    • C and D introduce double negatives on the wrong terms and do not follow the valid obversion transformation.

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28. Question 28

    "I have listened to the parliament speech of the president of the country XYZ once, from that I must conclude that he is a lousy speaker." Which fallacy is committed in the above statement?

    1. ABegging the question
    2. BHasty Generalization
    3. CSlippery Slope
    4. DAd Hominem

    Answer: (B) Hasty Generalization

    Explanation

    B. Hasty Generalization — correct. The speaker draws a broad, permanent conclusion ("he is a lousy speaker") from a single, insufficient instance (one speech), which is the defining pattern of hasty generalization.

    • A. Begging the question — assumes the conclusion within a premise; here the premise is a real, separate observation, not a restated conclusion.
    • C. Slippery Slope — claims one small step will trigger a chain of increasingly extreme consequences, which is not what is argued here.
    • D. Ad Hominem — attacks a person's character to dismiss their argument; here the judgment is about speaking skill based on the speech itself, not a character attack replacing an argument.

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29. Question 29

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Nyaya syllogism is only inductive and material.
    Statement II: The Aristotelian syllogism is only deductive and formal.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

    Explanation

    D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true — correct.

    The five-membered Nyaya syllogism blends inductive grounding (drawn from a known example, such as the fire-and-smoke case) with deductive, formal steps of inference, so calling it "only" inductive and material is inaccurate — Statement I is false.

    The Aristotelian syllogism, by contrast, is a purely formal, deductive structure where the conclusion follows necessarily from the premises' logical form alone, so Statement II is true.

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30. Question 30

    Which of the following is a benefit that businesses receive from using the Internet?

    1. AEasier use of satellite radio
    2. BFaster connection with suppliers
    3. CImproved methods of manufacturing
    4. DThe ability to call employees on the road.

    Answer: (B) Faster connection with suppliers

    Explanation

    B. Faster connection with suppliers — correct. The internet directly enables faster, real-time communication and data exchange across a supply chain — order placement, inventory updates, EDI — which is a well-established business benefit of internet adoption.

    • A. Satellite radio — a broadcast entertainment technology unrelated to internet-driven business benefit.
    • C. Improved manufacturing methods — manufacturing process improvement comes from automation/engineering advances, not directly from internet access itself.
    • D. Calling employees on the road — this is a mobile telephony benefit, not specifically an internet benefit.

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31. Question 31

    Consider the equation L + M = N, where L = (100011)₂ and N = (101000)₂. What is the value of M as represented in decimal format?

    1. A40
    2. B35
    3. C10
    4. D5

    Answer: (D) 5

    Explanation

    D. 5 — correct.

    Convert each binary number to decimal by summing the place values of its set bits. L = (100011)₂ has bits set at positions 32, 2, and 1: 32 + 2 + 1 = 35. N = (101000)₂ has bits set at positions 32 and 8: 32 + 8 = 40.

    Rearranging the given equation L + M = N gives M = N − L = 40 − 35 = 5. Double-checking in binary: 35 + 5 = 40, which confirms the subtraction, so M = 5 (option D).

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32. Question 32

    A web page offers a link for users to request another web page. The requested web page contains HTML code and JavaScript code. In this context, identify the correct sequence of the following statements A-E.
    A. The requested web page is displayed on the client computer.
    B. The user clicks on the hyperlink and the web page is requested from the web server.
    C. The requested web page content is transmitted to the client computer.
    D. The client computer processes the JavaScript code using the web browser software.
    E. The web server locates the requested web page.

    1. AB, E, C, A, D
    2. BB, E, D, C, A
    3. CE, B, C, D, A
    4. DB, E, C, D, A

    Answer: (D) B, E, C, D, A

    Explanation

    D. B, E, C, D, A — correct, following the natural request-response flow of the web.

    The user first clicks the link, requesting the page from the server (B). The server then locates the requested page (E) and transmits its content to the client (C). The client's browser processes the received JavaScript (D), and only after that processing is the finished page displayed to the user (A).

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33. Question 33

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Shareware is limited-functioning freeware, and normally expires after a week or month.
    Statement II: Shareware code can be modified and redistributed.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

    Explanation

    C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false — correct.

    Shareware is distributed as a trial version with limited features or a time-boxed usage period, matching Statement I exactly.

    Statement II describes open-source software, not shareware — shareware is typically distributed as closed-source, and its licence forbids users from modifying and redistributing the underlying code, so Statement II is false.

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34. Question 34

    Which of the following should always be regarded as security risks to computer systems?
    A. Chat rooms
    B. Cookies
    C. Pharming
    D. Virus
    E. VoIP

    1. AA and D Only
    2. BC and D Only
    3. CB and D Only
    4. DA, D and E Only

    Answer: (B) C and D Only

    Explanation

    B. C and D Only — correct. Pharming is inherently malicious — it covertly redirects users to fraudulent sites to steal data — and a virus is by definition malicious self-replicating code, so both are always security risks.

    Chat rooms, cookies, and VoIP are legitimate technologies that carry risk only if misused or poorly secured (e.g., a tracking cookie, an unmoderated chat room, an unencrypted VoIP call); they are not inherently and "always" risks the way pharming and viruses are.

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35. Question 35

    When a water body gets enriched with nutrients, the process is called as:

    1. AOligotrophication
    2. BEutrophication
    3. CMesotrophication
    4. DDystrophication

    Answer: (B) Eutrophication

    Explanation

    B. Eutrophication — correct. Eutrophication is precisely defined as the excessive enrichment of a water body with nutrients (typically nitrogen and phosphorus), which fuels algal blooms and subsequent oxygen depletion.

    • A. Oligotrophication — the reverse process, a water body becoming nutrient-poor.
    • C. Mesotrophication and D. Dystrophication — describe intermediate nutrient states or acidic, nutrient-poor conditions, not the process of nutrient enrichment itself.

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36. Question 36

    Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Green House Gases?
    A. They are generally of light green colour.
    B. They absorb thermal radiations emitted by earth.
    C. Water vapour is a green house gas.
    D. Green house gases cause global warming.
    E. Ammonia (NH₃) is a green house gas.

    1. AA, B, C, D Only
    2. BA, C, E Only
    3. CB, C, D Only
    4. DA, B, D, E Only

    Answer: (C) B, C, D Only

    Explanation

    C. B, C, D Only — correct. Greenhouse gases absorb and re-radiate the earth's outgoing thermal (infrared) radiation (B), water vapour is one of the most significant natural greenhouse gases (C), and this trapped heat is exactly what drives global warming (D).

    • A. Greenhouse gases are colourless/invisible gases — they have no "light green colour"; the name refers to their heat-trapping effect, not their appearance.
    • E. Ammonia is not classified among the standard greenhouse gases (CO₂, CH₄, N₂O, water vapour, ozone, CFCs).

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37. Question 37

    Which of the following air pollutants help in the formation of photochemical smog?

    1. ACarbon monoxide
    2. Bmethane
    3. COxides of Sulphur
    4. DOxides of nitrogen

    Answer: (D) Oxides of nitrogen

    Explanation

    D. Oxides of nitrogen — the standard, textbook answer. Photochemical smog forms when nitrogen oxides (NOx) react with volatile organic compounds under sunlight, producing ozone and PAN as the smog's key components — nitrogen oxides are the defining precursor pollutant in this reaction chain.

    Note: the official NTA final key accepted both option 1 (Carbon monoxide) and option 4 for this item, since CO is also present in the same vehicular-emission mix that drives photochemical smog. Conceptually, though, oxides of nitrogen are the pollutant directly responsible for the photochemical reaction sequence, which is why it is treated as the standard answer here.

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38. Question 38

    Through enrichment process, concentration of which uranium isotope is increased in the natural uranium?

    1. AU-234
    2. BU-235
    3. CU-238
    4. DU-239

    Answer: (B) U-235

    Explanation

    B. U-235 — correct. Natural uranium is over 99% U-238 with only about 0.7% of the fissile isotope U-235. Enrichment is the process that specifically raises the proportion of U-235, because U-235 (not U-238) is capable of sustaining the fission chain reaction used in reactors and weapons.

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39. Question 39

    Three 'Rs' used for the mitigation of solid wastes are:
    A. Recover
    B. Reduce
    C. Reuse
    D. Restrict
    E. Recycle

    1. AA, B, C Only
    2. BB, C, D Only
    3. CB, C, E Only
    4. DC, D, E Only

    Answer: (C) B, C, E Only

    Explanation

    C. B, C, E Only — correct. The standard "3 Rs" of solid waste management are Reduce (cut waste generation at the source), Reuse (use items again for the same or a new purpose), and Recycle (reprocess materials into new products) — the widely taught waste-hierarchy mnemonic.

    "Recover" and "Restrict" are related waste-management ideas but are not part of the canonical three-R set tested here.

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40. Question 40

    Which was the first education commission of independent India?

    1. ASargent commission
    2. BKothari commission
    3. CRadhakrishnan commission
    4. DMudaliar commission

    Answer: (C) Radhakrishnan commission

    Explanation

    C. Radhakrishnan commission — correct. The University Education Commission of 1948–49, chaired by Dr. S. Radhakrishnan, was constituted right after independence to review higher/university education and is recognised as free India's first education commission.

    • A. Sargent commission (1944) — predates independence, formed under British colonial administration.
    • B. Kothari commission (1964–66) — a later commission covering school-to-higher education reform as a whole.
    • D. Mudaliar commission (1952–53) — came after the Radhakrishnan commission and focused specifically on secondary education.

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41. Question 41

    The National Education policy document of 1986 revised in 1992 suggested:

    1. AUse of multimedia for distance education
    2. BLinking degrees with jobs
    3. CAbolition of AICTE
    4. DFocus on research, only for degrees

    Answer: (A) Use of multimedia for distance education

    Explanation

    A. Use of multimedia for distance education — correct. The NPE 1986, as revised by the 1992 Programme of Action, gave a strong push to open and distance learning and explicitly promoted using multimedia technology to expand its reach.

    • B. De-linking degrees from jobs, not linking them, was a stated NPE 1986 objective, so this option reverses the actual policy stance.
    • C. The NPE 1986 led to AICTE's creation (via the 1987 Act) as a statutory regulator, not its abolition.
    • D. The policy addressed the full spectrum of education, not research alone tied only to degrees.

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42. Question 42

    The committee for the evolution of the new education policy recommended that no university in India should have more than ______ affiliated colleges.

    1. A50
    2. B60
    3. C75
    4. D100

    Answer: (D) 100

    Explanation

    D. 100 — correct. To address the unmanageable scale of affiliation-heavy universities, the education policy review recommended capping the number of colleges any single university affiliates at 100, encouraging the creation of additional universities instead of unlimited affiliation growth.

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43. Question 43

    Which of the following universities have their locations in Bihar?
    A. Vallabhi
    B. Vikramshila
    C. Shridhanya katak
    D. Odantapuri

    1. AA and D Only
    2. BB and D Only
    3. CA and B Only
    4. DB and C Only

    Answer: (B) B and D Only

    Explanation

    B. B and D Only — correct. Vikramshila and Odantapuri were both ancient Buddhist centres of learning located in present-day Bihar.

    • Vallabhi was located in present-day Gujarat.
    • Shridhanya katak (Sri Dhanyakataka) was located in present-day Andhra Pradesh.

    Only the two Bihar-based institutions, Vikramshila and Odantapuri, answer the question.

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44. Question 44

    Which of the following universities were established in the year 1857?
    A. Calcutta University
    B. Bombay University
    C. Madras University
    D. Allahabad University

    1. AA, B and D Only
    2. BA, B and C Only
    3. CB, C and D Only
    4. DA, C and D Only

    Answer: (B) A, B and C Only

    Explanation

    B. A, B and C Only — correct. The Universities of Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras were all founded together in 1857, modelled on the University of London, making them India's first three modern universities.

    Allahabad University was established later, in 1887, so it is excluded from the 1857 founding group.

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45. Question 45

    London became a city of 'great stinking fogs' as a result of:

    Few of Man's activities have zero environmental effect. For centuries, societies have suffered a wide variety of environmental damage, not least in terms of the air pollution that primitive, uncontrolled methods of combustion caused. People of Roman Britain, with fires in their huts, found the smoke a hazard to health and examination of human skulls shows a pitting that indicates a high frequency of sinusitis. The UK was the first country to widely experience massive industrial development based on coal. Between 1580 and 1680, imports of coal to London increased from 20,000 tonnes a year to 360,000 tonnes and London became a city of 'great stinking fogs'. These were only really to disappear some years after the episode in December 1952 when cold temperatures and moist air resulted in the condensation of moisture on particles in the air from coal combustion. Over a radius of 20 miles the resulting fog rendered the atmosphere opaque and it was found that in the week ending 13 December 1952 there had been an excess of 2851 over the usual weekly number of deaths. In response the Clean Air Acts of 1956 and 1968 dealt mainly with smoke in cities. Two decades after the smog disaster the Control of Pollution Act (1974) was brought in and systematically began the long haul towards comprehensive improvements in air quality as part of overall environmental protection. Similar experiences were encountered across Europe and North America during the 20th century.

    1. AHousehold fires
    2. BCold temperatures
    3. CCoal combustion
    4. DExcessive moisture in the air

    Answer: (C) Coal combustion

    Explanation

    C. Coal combustion — correct. The passage attributes London's 'great stinking fogs' directly to the massive rise in coal imports and coal-based industrial development — the era's defining combustion source.

    • A. Household fires — the passage discusses this in relation to Roman Britain's earlier, smaller-scale sinusitis problem, not London's stinking-fog era.
    • B. Cold temperatures and D. Excessive moisture — the passage links these specifically to the December 1952 smog episode, which was a distinct, later event, not the cause of the 'great stinking fogs' description itself.

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46. Question 46

    Between 1580 and 1680 imports of coal to London increased:

    Few of Man's activities have zero environmental effect. For centuries, societies have suffered a wide variety of environmental damage, not least in terms of the air pollution that primitive, uncontrolled methods of combustion caused. People of Roman Britain, with fires in their huts, found the smoke a hazard to health and examination of human skulls shows a pitting that indicates a high frequency of sinusitis. The UK was the first country to widely experience massive industrial development based on coal. Between 1580 and 1680, imports of coal to London increased from 20,000 tonnes a year to 360,000 tonnes and London became a city of 'great stinking fogs'. These were only really to disappear some years after the episode in December 1952 when cold temperatures and moist air resulted in the condensation of moisture on particles in the air from coal combustion. Over a radius of 20 miles the resulting fog rendered the atmosphere opaque and it was found that in the week ending 13 December 1952 there had been an excess of 2851 over the usual weekly number of deaths. In response the Clean Air Acts of 1956 and 1968 dealt mainly with smoke in cities. Two decades after the smog disaster the Control of Pollution Act (1974) was brought in and systematically began the long haul towards comprehensive improvements in air quality as part of overall environmental protection. Similar experiences were encountered across Europe and North America during the 20th century.

    1. AMarginally
    2. BInsignificantly
    3. CNegligibly
    4. DSubstantially

    Answer: (D) Substantially

    Explanation

    D. Substantially — correct. The passage states coal imports rose from 20,000 to 360,000 tonnes a year — an 18-fold increase — which is a substantial rise, not a marginal, insignificant, or negligible one.

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47. Question 47

    The fog of London in the second week of December 1952:
    A. Reduced the number of deaths.
    B. Increased the number of deaths.
    C. Rendered the atmosphere over a radius of 20 miles smoke free.
    D. Rendered the atmosphere over a radius of 20 miles opaque.
    E. Did not make any difference to the air quality or to the number of deaths.

    Few of Man's activities have zero environmental effect. For centuries, societies have suffered a wide variety of environmental damage, not least in terms of the air pollution that primitive, uncontrolled methods of combustion caused. People of Roman Britain, with fires in their huts, found the smoke a hazard to health and examination of human skulls shows a pitting that indicates a high frequency of sinusitis. The UK was the first country to widely experience massive industrial development based on coal. Between 1580 and 1680, imports of coal to London increased from 20,000 tonnes a year to 360,000 tonnes and London became a city of 'great stinking fogs'. These were only really to disappear some years after the episode in December 1952 when cold temperatures and moist air resulted in the condensation of moisture on particles in the air from coal combustion. Over a radius of 20 miles the resulting fog rendered the atmosphere opaque and it was found that in the week ending 13 December 1952 there had been an excess of 2851 over the usual weekly number of deaths. In response the Clean Air Acts of 1956 and 1968 dealt mainly with smoke in cities. Two decades after the smog disaster the Control of Pollution Act (1974) was brought in and systematically began the long haul towards comprehensive improvements in air quality as part of overall environmental protection. Similar experiences were encountered across Europe and North America during the 20th century.

    1. AB, C and D Only
    2. BB and D Only
    3. CC, D and E Only
    4. DD and E Only

    Answer: (B) B and D Only

    Explanation

    B. B and D Only — correct. The passage states the fog rendered the atmosphere opaque over a 20-mile radius (D) and that the week ending 13 December 1952 saw an excess of 2,851 deaths over the usual weekly number, meaning deaths increased (B).

    • C and E contradict the passage directly — the fog made the air opaque (not smoke-free) and clearly worsened outcomes (not "no difference").
    • A incorrectly bundles in C, which the passage contradicts.

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48. Question 48

    The Control of Pollution Act:
    A. Was brought in almost 20 years after the Clean Air Act of 1956
    B. Stopped all industrial activity.
    C. Aimed at improving air quality
    D. Focused mainly on dealing with smoke in cities
    E. Focused on environmental protection.

    Few of Man's activities have zero environmental effect. For centuries, societies have suffered a wide variety of environmental damage, not least in terms of the air pollution that primitive, uncontrolled methods of combustion caused. People of Roman Britain, with fires in their huts, found the smoke a hazard to health and examination of human skulls shows a pitting that indicates a high frequency of sinusitis. The UK was the first country to widely experience massive industrial development based on coal. Between 1580 and 1680, imports of coal to London increased from 20,000 tonnes a year to 360,000 tonnes and London became a city of 'great stinking fogs'. These were only really to disappear some years after the episode in December 1952 when cold temperatures and moist air resulted in the condensation of moisture on particles in the air from coal combustion. Over a radius of 20 miles the resulting fog rendered the atmosphere opaque and it was found that in the week ending 13 December 1952 there had been an excess of 2851 over the usual weekly number of deaths. In response the Clean Air Acts of 1956 and 1968 dealt mainly with smoke in cities. Two decades after the smog disaster the Control of Pollution Act (1974) was brought in and systematically began the long haul towards comprehensive improvements in air quality as part of overall environmental protection. Similar experiences were encountered across Europe and North America during the 20th century.

    1. AA and E Only
    2. BB, C and D Only
    3. CA, C and E Only
    4. DA, B, C and D Only

    Answer: (C) A, C and E Only

    Explanation

    C. A, C and E Only — correct. The passage's Control of Pollution Act was brought in about two decades after the 1952 smog disaster — i.e., roughly 20 years after the 1956 Clean Air Act (A) — and it began a systematic push toward comprehensive air-quality improvement (C) as part of overall environmental protection (E).

    • B is unsupported — the passage never says the Act stopped all industrial activity, only that it began improving air quality.
    • D misattributes "mainly dealing with smoke in cities" to this Act; the passage assigns that specific focus to the earlier Clean Air Acts of 1956 and 1968, not to the Control of Pollution Act.

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49. Question 49

    The passage highlights mainly:

    Few of Man's activities have zero environmental effect. For centuries, societies have suffered a wide variety of environmental damage, not least in terms of the air pollution that primitive, uncontrolled methods of combustion caused. People of Roman Britain, with fires in their huts, found the smoke a hazard to health and examination of human skulls shows a pitting that indicates a high frequency of sinusitis. The UK was the first country to widely experience massive industrial development based on coal. Between 1580 and 1680, imports of coal to London increased from 20,000 tonnes a year to 360,000 tonnes and London became a city of 'great stinking fogs'. These were only really to disappear some years after the episode in December 1952 when cold temperatures and moist air resulted in the condensation of moisture on particles in the air from coal combustion. Over a radius of 20 miles the resulting fog rendered the atmosphere opaque and it was found that in the week ending 13 December 1952 there had been an excess of 2851 over the usual weekly number of deaths. In response the Clean Air Acts of 1956 and 1968 dealt mainly with smoke in cities. Two decades after the smog disaster the Control of Pollution Act (1974) was brought in and systematically began the long haul towards comprehensive improvements in air quality as part of overall environmental protection. Similar experiences were encountered across Europe and North America during the 20th century.

    1. Athe association between vehicular pollution and development
    2. Bair pollution and human health
    3. Cthe industrial development of UK.
    4. Dthe similarities in development of UK, Europe and North America.

    Answer: (B) air pollution and human health

    Explanation

    B. air pollution and human health — correct. The passage traces air pollution from Roman-era hut fires (sinusitis) through London's coal-driven fogs to the 1952 smog's excess deaths and the legislative response, consistently tying pollution to its human health impact and the policy reaction to it.

    • A. Vehicular pollution is never mentioned; the passage's pollution source is coal combustion, not vehicles.
    • C. UK industrial development is discussed only as the cause of the pollution, not as the passage's main focus.
    • D. The passage's closing line briefly notes similar experiences elsewhere, but this is a minor aside, not the passage's central theme.

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99 questions with the answer key and explanations.

1. Question 1

   Which one of the following is NOT a standard categorization of stress?

   1. AAcute stress
   2. BImported stress
   3. CChronic stress
   4. DEustress

   Answer: (B) Imported stress

   Explanation

   Option B, Imported stress, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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2. Question 2

   Which of the following motives were articulated by J. M. Keynes for holding cash?
   a. Precautionary
   b. Return generation
   c. Speculative
   d. Investment
   e. Transaction
   Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

   1. Aa, b and c only
   2. Bb, d and e only
   3. Ca, c and e only
   4. Db, c and d only

   Answer: (C) a, c and e only

   Explanation

   The correct combination is option C: a, c and e only. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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3. Question 3

   Hofstede's dimensions of culture were based on a study conducted at:

   1. AIntel Ltd.
   2. BIBM
   3. CPepsico
   4. DMicrosoft

   Answer: (B) IBM

   Explanation

   Option B, IBM, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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4. Question 4

   Which of the following economic identities states that One (1) extra percent unemployment
   costs two (2) percent of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?

   1. ASacrifice ratio
   2. BPhillips curve
   3. CMisery index
   4. DOkun's law

   Answer: (D) Okun's law

   Explanation

   Option D, Okun's law, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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5. Question 5

   Which of the statements are true of innovations?
   a. Innovations are a must to survive in business
   b. Discontinuous innovations lead to failures
   c. Continuous innovations do not disrupt established usage and behaviour patterns
   d. Line extensions are discontinuous innovations
   e. In discontinuous innovations, there is a change not only in technology but also in behavioural
   patterns of usage and consumption
   Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

   1. Aa, b, d and e only
   2. Bc, d and e only
   3. Cb, c and d only
   4. Da, c and e only

   Answer: (D) a, c and e only

   Explanation

   The correct combination is option D: a, c and e only. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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6. Question 6

   Which of the following goods (commodities) have positive elasticities?
   a. Necessities

   b. Substitutes
   c. Luxury goods
   d. Complementary goods
   e. Inferior goods
   Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

   1. Aa, b and c only
   2. Bc, d and e only
   3. Ca, c and d only
   4. Db, c and e only

   Answer: (A) a, b and c only

   Explanation

   The correct combination is option A: a, b and c only. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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7. Question 7

   Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of digital media?

   1. ADigital media is "pull" media
   2. BMass customization is possible in digital media
   3. CDigital media is lean-back media
   4. DDigital media is intense media

   Answer: (C) Digital media is lean-back media

   Explanation

   Option C, Digital media is lean-back media, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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8. Question 8

   Match List I with List II.

   List I	List II
   a. Transcending	i. Uses latest knowledge and a wide variety of experiences
   b. Process-facilitating	ii. Helps the system to confront reality
   c. Shock-absorbing	iii. Takes an independent overall view
   d. Resource-sharing	iv. Is perceptive of the reality in the organisation Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

   1. Aa - iii, b - ii, c - i, d - iv
   2. Ba – iv, b – iii, c – i, d - ii
   3. Ca – iii, b - iv, c – ii, d - i
   4. Da – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d - i

   Answer: (C) a – iii, b - iv, c – ii, d - i

   Explanation

   The correct mapping is given by option C: a – iii, b - iv, c – ii, d - i. Check each pair against the defining role, model, stage, or measurement; every alternative breaks at least one required association.

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9. Question 9

   Consumer buying behaviour in situations characterized by high involvement but few perceived
   differences among brands is known as

   1. AComplex buying behaviour
   2. BDissonance reducing buying behaviour
   3. CHabitual Buying behaviour
   4. DVariety seeking buying behaviour

   Answer: (B) Dissonance reducing buying behaviour

   Explanation

   Option B, Dissonance reducing buying behaviour, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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10. Question 10

    Which of the following statements are applicable to McKinsey's 7S framework?
    a. A priori, it is obvious which of the seven factors will be the driving force in changing a particular
    organisation at a particular point of time.
    b. Effective organisational change is the relationship between seven factors of the framework.
    c. Change in any one element effects change in other elements for effective organisational change.
    d. Framework can be used for facilitating organisational change.
    e. Strategy, Structure, Systems and Style are 'Hard S' of the Model while Staff, Skill and Shared
    values are the 'Soft S' of the framework.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa, b and d only
    2. Bb, c and d only
    3. Ca, b, c and d only
    4. Da, b, c and e only

    Answer: (B) b, c and d only

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option B: b, c and d only. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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11. Question 11

    Which of the following narratives explain the Leontief paradox in international business:

    1. AUSA's exports were capital intensive and imports were labour intensive
    2. BUSA's exports and imports both were capital intensive
    3. CUSA's exports were labour-intensive and imports were capital intensive
    4. DUSA's exports and imports both were labour-intensive

    Answer: (C) USA's exports were labour-intensive and imports were capital intensive

    Explanation

    Option C, USA's exports were labour-intensive and imports were capital intensive, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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12. Question 12

    Which of the following is NOT an element of 'Trade-relations mix' in International Business?

    1. AProduct variety
    2. BPrice policy
    3. CMutual service and responsibilities
    4. DDistributor's territorial rights

    Answer: (A) Product variety

    Explanation

    Option A, Product variety, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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13. Question 13

    Arrange the following statements corresponding to different levels of Brand Dynamics
    Pyramid in a sequence starting with the base of the pyramid:
    a. Belief that the brand delivers acceptable product performance and is on the consumer's short-list
    b. Rational and emotional attachments to the brand to the exclusion of most other brands
    c. Active familiarity with the brand based on post trial, saliency or knowledge of the brand promise
    d. Relevance of brand to consumer's needs in the right price range or in the consideration set
    e. Belief that the brand has an emotional or rational advantage over other brands in the category
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Ac, d, a, e, b
    2. Bd, c, a, e, b
    3. Cd, c, a, b, e
    4. Dc, d, a, b, e

    Answer: (A) c, d, a, e, b

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option A: c, d, a, e, b. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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14. Question 14

    Population variance differ from sample variance in which of the following manner:
    a. μ ± 3σ is replaced by ̅x + 9σ2
    b. μ is replaced by ̅x
    μ2
    c. μ2 is replaced by (n−1)α
    d. N is replaced by n -1
    e. N is replaced by n - 1 - α
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Ab and d only
    2. Bc, d and e only
    3. Ca and e only
    4. Dd and e only

    Answer: (A) b and d only

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option A: b and d only. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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15. Question 15

    Characteristics of industrial relations include:
    a. An outcome of employment relationships in an organisation
    b. Develop the skills and methods of adjusting to and cooperating with each other
    c. Create rules and regulations to maintain harmonious relations

    d. Government is not involved in shaping industrial relations
    e. Parties to industrial relations are employees, their organisations and employers
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, E only
    2. BA, B, C only
    3. CC, D, E only
    4. DA, B, C, E only

    Answer: (D) A, B, C, E only

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option D: A, B, C, E only. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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16. Question 16

    Following are the statements on the Mintzberg’s organisational type. Choose the correct
    statements:
    a. Entrepreneurial organisations primarily focus on skills standardization
    b. Professional organisations primarily focus on output standardisation
    c. Innovative organisations primarily focus on mutual adjustment
    d. Missionary organisations primarily focus on norms standardisation
    e. Innovative organisations do not focus on mutual adjustment
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa, c, d and e only
    2. Ba, b, c and e only
    3. Cc and d only
    4. Da, b and e only

    Answer: (C) c and d only

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option C: c and d only. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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17. Question 17

    Which of the following are included in the work place diversity?
    a. Ethnicity
    b. Career experience
    c. Gender
    d. Geographic experiences
    e. Sexual orientation
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C only
    2. BA, C, E only
    3. CB, D, E only
    4. DA, B, C, D and E

    Answer: (B) A, C, E only

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option B: A, C, E only. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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18. Question 18

    Arrange the following steps of job evaluation in the proper sequence:
    a. Review job descriptions and job specifications
    b. Select compensable factors
    c. Choose benchmark jobs
    d. Define each factor's degree
    e. Assign weights to compensable factors
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa, e, b, d, c
    2. Bc, b, e, d, a
    3. Ca, c, b, e, d
    4. Dc, b, e, a, d

    Answer: (B) c, b, e, d, a

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option B: c, b, e, d, a. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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19. Question 19

    Arrange the following types of intelligence which a computer can simulate in the ascending
    order:
    a. Visual-spatial

    b. Logical mathematical
    c. Linguistic
    d. Interpersonal
    e. Bodily kinesthetic
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Ac, d, a, e, b
    2. Bc, a, d, e, b
    3. Ca, c, e, b, d
    4. Da, c, b, e, d

    Answer: (A) c, d, a, e, b

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option A: c, d, a, e, b. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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20. Question 20

    Given below are two statements:
    Statement I: To exist and be successful in a competitive world a business has to be ethical.
    Statement II: An ethical organisation can be recognized on the basis of its corporate excellence
    and not on its relations with the stakeholders.
    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II arc incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement H is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    Explanation

    Option C is correct: Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. Evaluate the two statements separately, then use the stated concept to determine their truth relationship rather than assuming that a related statement is automatically an explanation.

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21. Question 21

    Contrast to individual stocks, stability of Portfolio Risk (β) dramatically increases with:
    a. High return portfolios (𝑅𝑝 > 𝑅𝐹 )
    b. Larger portfolios (𝑛𝑝 > 50)
    c. Longer investment duration (𝑡𝑝 > 26 weeks)
    d. Increased trading volume
    e. High premium portfolios (𝑅𝑝 > 𝑅𝑝 )
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa, b and c only
    2. Bb, c and d only
    3. Cc, d and e only
    4. Da, d and e only

    Answer: (B) b, c and d only

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option B: b, c and d only. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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22. Question 22

    Match List I with List II.

    List I	List II
    a. Balanced Scorecard	i. Barney
    b. Economic Value-added Analysis	ii. Howard J. Dresner
    c. VRJO framework	iii. Stern Stewart & Company
    d. Business intelligence	iv. Robert S. Kaplan and David P. Norton Choose the correct answer front the options given below:

    1. Aa - iv, b, - i, c - iii, d - ii
    2. Ba - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - ii
    3. Ca - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii
    4. Da - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i

    Answer: (B) a - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - ii

    Explanation

    The correct mapping is given by option B: a - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - ii. Check each pair against the defining role, model, stage, or measurement; every alternative breaks at least one required association.

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23. Question 23

    Which of the following is a measure of appropriateness of organizational goals and how well
    these goals are being met?

    1. AOrganizational transparency
    2. BOrganizational citizenship
    3. COrganizational effectiveness
    4. DOrganizational efficiency

    Answer: (C) Organizational effectiveness

    Explanation

    Option C, Organizational effectiveness, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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24. Question 24

    Which of the following is a post-offer takeover defense mechanism in which target company
    buys back shares at a significant premium?

    1. APoison pills
    2. BGolden parachute
    3. CGreenmail
    4. DCrown jewel defense

    Answer: (C) Greenmail

    Explanation

    Option C, Greenmail, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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25. Question 25

    If the Net Present Value (NPV) of an investment proposal is positive, what conclusions can be
    drawn?
    a. The investment generated present value of cashflows exceed cost of investment
    b. The discount rate used is less than the investment's estimated return
    c. The discount rate used equals the minimum return required by the investors
    d. The investment generated present value of cashflows equals the cost of investment
    e. The investment's Internal Rate of Return (IRR) exceeds the Cost of Capital
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa, b and c only
    2. Bc, d and e only
    3. Cb, c and d only
    4. Da, b and e only

    Answer: (D) a, b and e only

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option D: a, b and e only. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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26. Question 26

    The major problems faced by rural entrepreneurs are:
    a. Rate of interest charged by commercial banks is too high
    b. Inability to market their products and services
    c. Lack of comprehensive training on required skills
    d. Inability to handle cultural issues
    e. Difficulty in opening bank accounts due to lack of documents
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa and b only
    2. Ba, d and e only
    3. Cb and c only
    4. Dc, d and e only

    Answer: (C) b and c only

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option C: b and c only. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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27. Question 27

    Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
    Reason R:
    Assertion (A): A stereotyped and male-centered vision discourages some women from
    participating in business activities that could have a consequence on people who interact with
    women at the conununity level.
    Reason (R): Attributions of the society and the different socialisation processes relating to men
    and women may create obstacles for women due to unequal distribution of assets and services.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is true but R is false
    4. DA is false but R is true

    Answer: (B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option B: Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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28. Question 28

    Match List I with List II.

    List I	List II
    a. Macro-applied	i. Organisation development
    b. Micro-applied	ii. Organisational behaviour
    c. Macro-theoretical	iii. Human Resource Management
    d. Micro-theoretical	iv. Organisation Theory Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa - ii, b -iii, c -iv, d - i
    2. Ba - i, b - iii, c- iv, d - ii
    3. Ca - i, b - iv, c- iii, d - ii
    4. Da - iii, b - ii, c - i, d - iv

    Answer: (B) a - i, b - iii, c- iv, d - ii

    Explanation

    The correct mapping is given by option B: a - i, b - iii, c- iv, d - ii. Check each pair against the defining role, model, stage, or measurement; every alternative breaks at least one required association.

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29. Question 29

    Which of the following models identifies the strategy development process, the value creation
    process, multi-channel integration process, performance assessment process and the information
    management process as its core processes?

    1. AThe IDIC Model
    2. BThe CRM value chain
    3. CPayne & Frow's Model of CRM
    4. DThe SCHEMA Model

    Answer: (C) Payne & Frow's Model of CRM

    Explanation

    Option C, Payne & Fron's Model of CRM, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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30. Question 30

    Which of the following statements explains the Integrated Marketing Communication (IMC)
    concept?
    a. IMC is the specific blend of promotion tools to communicate customer value and build customer
    relationships
    b. IMC calls for recognising only those touch points where the customer physically encounters the
    company and its brands
    c. IMC's goal is to deliver a consistent and clear message about the organisation and its products
    d. IMC ties together all of the company's messages and images
    e. IMC calls for integration and coordination of the company's many communication channels
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa and c only
    2. Ba, b and d only
    3. Cc, d and e only
    4. Da, b and e only

    Answer: (C) c, d and e only

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option C: c, d and e only. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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31. Question 31

    Arrange (in descending order) the following present value of a growing perpetuity which
    makes first payment of Rs. 3,000 in next year.

    a. Present value at 8% growth and 10% discount rate.
    b. Present value at 3% growth and 9% discount rate.
    c. Present value at 6% growth and 11% discount rate.
    d. Present value at 5% growth and 6% discount rate.
    e. Present value at 1% growth and 4% discount rate.
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa, d, c, b, e
    2. Bc, b, e, d, a
    3. Cd, a, e, c, b
    4. Db, e, c, a, d

    Answer: (C) d, a, e, c, b

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option C: d, a, e, c, b. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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32. Question 32

    An organisational vision should include:
    a. An organisational charter of core values and principles
    b. A strategy or plan and a view from the top
    c. The source of priorities, plans and goals
    d. A pusher into the future
    e. A determination and publication of what makes an organisation unique
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Ab, c and d only
    2. Ba, c and d only
    3. Ca, c and e only
    4. Da, d and e only

    Answer: (C) a, c and e only

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option C: a, c and e only. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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33. Question 33

    In competitive markets, a new firm will enter the market in which of the following situations?

    1. AP >ATC
    2. BP <ATC
    3. CP = MC
    4. DP = MR = MC

    Answer: (A) P >ATC

    Explanation

    Option A, P >ATC, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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34. Question 34

    A workman hired in place of a permanent workman or probationer who is temporarily absent
    is called:

    1. ATemporary workman
    2. BCasual workman
    3. CProbationer workman
    4. DBadli workman

    Answer: (D) Badli workman

    Explanation

    Option D, Badli workman, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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35. Question 35

    In which method of capital budgeting, cash flows are re-invested at the required rate of return?

    1. ANet Present Value (NPV)
    2. BInternal Rate of Return (IRR)
    3. CProfitability Index (PI)
    4. DAccounting Rate of Return (ARR)

    Answer: (A) Net Present Value (NPV)

    Explanation

    Option A, Net Present Value (NPV), is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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36. Question 36

    Employees' belief in the degree to which they affect their work environment, their competence,
    the meaningfulness of their job and perceived autonomy in their work is known as:

    1. AJob involvement
    2. BJob satisfaction
    3. CPsychological empowerment
    4. DOrganizational commitment

    Answer: (C) Psychological empowerment

    Explanation

    Option C, Psychological empowerment, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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37. Question 37

    According to the HRD score card developed by TVRLS India, HRD Systems Maturity Score
    includes:
    a. HR Information System
    b. Potential Appraisal and Development
    c. Job-rotation
    d. Performance Management Systems
    e. Feedback and Coaching Mechanisms
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa, b, d, e only
    2. Ba, d only
    3. Cb, c, e only
    4. Da, b, c, d and e

    Answer: (D) a, b, c, d and e

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option D: a, b, c, d and e. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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38. Question 38

    The sequence of steps involved in testing a hypotheses are:
    a. Select a suitable test statistic
    b. Establish critical or rejection region
    c. State the null and alternative hypothesis
    d. State the level of significance (α)
    e. Formulate a decision rule to evaluate the null hypothesis

    1. Ae, c, d, a, b
    2. Bc, d, b, a, e
    3. Ca, b, e, c, d
    4. Db, c, a, e, d

    Answer: (B) c, d, b, a, e

    Explanation

    The correct sequence is option B: c, d, b, a, e. It follows the standard logical progression of the named process or calculation; changing that order changes the relationship being tested.

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39. Question 39

    Artificial Intelligence has simulation potential of the following kinds of intelligence:
    a. Visual-spatial
    b. Intrapersonal
    c. Interpersonal
    d. Creative
    e. Logical-mathematical
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa and e only
    2. Ba, c and e only
    3. Cb, c, d and e only
    4. Da and b only

    Answer: (B) a, c and e only

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option B: a, c and e only. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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40. Question 40

    Lowering of costs that a firm often experiences when it produces two or more products together
    than each alone is known as:

    1. AEconomies of scale
    2. BEconomies of Scope
    3. CEconomies of Specialisation
    4. DTechnical Efficiency

    Answer: (B) Economies of Scope

    Explanation

    Option B, Economies of Scope, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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41. Question 41

    Many consumers seek to be different and exclusive by demanding less of a commodity as more
    people consume it, is called?

    1. ABandwagon effect
    2. BSnob effect
    3. CVeblen effect
    4. DSubstitution effect

    Answer: (B) Snob effect

    Explanation

    Option B, Snob effect, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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42. Question 42

    Match List I with List II.

    List I	List II
    a. Angel investing	i. Growth and Development stage
    b. Sweat equity	ii. Follow-on finding stage
    c. Venture capital	iii. Mature stage iv Start-up stage Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    d. Initial Public Offer (IPO)	.

    1. Aa - iii, b iv, c - i, d - ii
    2. Ba - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i
    3. Ca - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv
    4. Da - ii, b - iii, c - i, d - iv

    Answer: (B) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i

    Explanation

    The correct mapping is given by option B: a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i. Check each pair against the defining role, model, stage, or measurement; every alternative breaks at least one required association.

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43. Question 43

    Which of the following focus of OD interventions are relevant if the nature of intervention is
    unstructured?
    a. Role negotiation
    b. Development of internal facilitators
    c. Counselling
    d. Work review
    e. Team development
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa, c only
    2. Bb, c, e only
    3. Cb, c, d only
    4. Da, d, e only

    Answer: (B) b, c, e only

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option B: b, c, e only. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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44. Question 44

    Which of the following prevent the majority of managers from effective implementation and
    sustainability?
    a. Hollow talk
    b. Debilitating fear
    c. Complex measurement systems
    d. Mindless reliance
    e. Constructive internal competition
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Ab, c only
    2. Ba, b, d only
    3. Ca, b, c, d only
    4. Dc, d, e only

    Answer: (B) a, b, d only

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option B: a, b, d only. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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45. Question 45

    Which of the following should not be included in the balance of payments account?

    1. ABonus shares to equity shareholders
    2. BImports of automobile parts
    3. CDividend payment to home-country investors from a foreign subsidiary
    4. DInterest payment on loan to the IMF

    Answer: (A) Bonus shares to equity shareholders

    Explanation

    Option A, Bonus shares to equity shareholders, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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46. Question 46

    Arrange the following steps of organization planning in the proper sequence:
    a. Develop of the organization a culture that promotes growth and implement a documented
    promotion policy.
    b. We are committed to achieve financial growth of our organization by fostering growth and
    creativity among our valued employees.
    c. To foster growth and creativity.
    d. Provide opportunities for growth of employees.
    e. To achieve excellence in human resource management and foster growth and creativity.
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Ab, c, e, d, a
    2. Be, b, a, c, d
    3. Ce, b, d, c, a
    4. Db, e, c, d, a

    Answer: (D) b, e, c, d, a

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option D: b, e, c, d, a. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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47. Question 47

    Entrepreneurs in general are _______ obsessed and _______ balanced?

    1. AOpportunity, Leadership
    2. BInnovation, Risk
    3. CCreativity, Innovations
    4. DProfit, Creativity

    Answer: (A) Opportunity, Leadership

    Explanation

    Option A, Opportunity, Leadership, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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48. Question 48

    Cash flows are grouped in the of Cash Flow statement as per IND AS - 3 into which of the
    following major categories?

    1. ACash receipts, cash disbursements and non-cash activities
    2. BDirect cash flows and indirect cash flows
    3. COperating activities, investing activities and collection activities
    4. DOperating activities, investing activities and financing activities

    Answer: (D) Operating activities, investing activities and financing activities

    Explanation

    Option D, Operating activities, investing activities and financing activities, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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49. Question 49

    Which of the following is NOT a base of product related segmentation?

    1. AConsumption of the product
    2. BLoyalty for the product
    3. CDecision criteria for product evaluation
    4. DProduct use situations

    Answer: (C) Decision criteria for product evaluation

    Explanation

    Option C, Decision criteria for product evaluation, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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50. Question 50

    Match List I with List II.

    List I	List II
    a. Grouping of products	i. Delphi Method
    b. Allocation of job tasks	ii. Transportation Model
    c. Evaluating facility location	iii. Aggregate Planning
    d. Demand forecasting	iv. Assignment Model Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii
    2. Ba - i, b - ii, c - iv, d - iii
    3. Ca - iii, b - iv, c- ii, d - i
    4. Da - ii, b - iii, c - i, d - iv

    Answer: (C) a - iii, b - iv, c- ii, d - i

    Explanation

    The correct mapping is given by option C: a - iii, b - iv, c- ii, d - i. Check each pair against the defining role, model, stage, or measurement; every alternative breaks at least one required association.

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51. Question 51

    Match List I with List II.

    List I	List II
    a. Operating Profit	i. Actual sales volume - Breakeven sales volume
    b. Profit-Volume Ratio	ii. Sales Revenue - Total variable costs
    c. Margin of safety	iii. (Sales × P/V ratio) - Fixed Cost
    d. Contribution margin	iv. (Unit sale price- Variable costs per unit)/ Unit sale price Choose the correct answer nom the options given below:

    1. Aa - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii
    2. Ba - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii
    3. Ca - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv
    4. Da - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i

    Answer: (B) a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii

    Explanation

    The correct mapping is given by option B: a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii. Check each pair against the defining role, model, stage, or measurement; every alternative breaks at least one required association.

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52. Question 52

    Arrange the following causes of work stoppages in India in the ascending order:
    a. Retrenchment of personnel
    b. Bonus
    c. Leave and hours of work
    d. Wages and allowances
    e. Indiscipline and violence
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Ac, b, e, a, d
    2. Be, c, a, b, d
    3. Cd, b, c, e, a
    4. Dc, a, e, b, d

    Answer: (A) c, b, e, a, d

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option A: c, b, e, a, d. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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53. Question 53

    Which of the following is NOT a fundamental principle of KAIZEN?

    1. ALet it go
    2. BEmpower people
    3. CKnow your customer
    4. DGo to Gemba

    Answer: (A) Let it go

    Explanation

    Option A, Let it go, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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54. Question 54

    Which one of the following is NOT a justification for preferring ethnocentric approach to
    staffing?

    1. AHiring host country nationals eliminates language barriers
    2. BPerceived lack of qualified host country nationals
    3. CUnited corporate culture can be maintained
    4. DGood communication, coordination and control links with headquarters

    Answer: (A) Hiring host country nationals eliminates language barriers

    Explanation

    Option A, Hiring host country nationals eliminates language barriers, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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55. Question 55

    A flexible organisation design which can form and re-form varied patterns of connection, is
    known as :

    1. AVirtual Organisation
    2. BFishnet Organisation
    3. CLearning Organisation
    4. DSpaghetti Organisation

    Answer: (B) Fishnet Organisation

    Explanation

    Option B, Fishnet Organisation, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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56. Question 56

    Which concept states that profit are normally recognized when the title to the goods passes to
    the customer, not necessarily when money changes hands?

    1. AMatching Concept
    2. BRealisation Concept
    3. CPrudence Concept
    4. DMateriality Concept

    Answer: (B) Realisation Concept

    Explanation

    Option B, Realisation Concept, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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57. Question 57

    In order to shorten its operating cycle, a manufacturing company focuses on which of the
    following decisions?
    a. Reducing operating expenses
    b. Enhanced coordination of firm activities
    c. Manufacturing automation
    d. Longer production schedule
    e. Tightening credit policy
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa, b and d only
    2. Bc, d and e only
    3. Cb and d only
    4. Db, c and e only

    Answer: (D) b, c and e only

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option D: b, c and e only. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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58. Question 58

    Why do companies pursue a retrenchment strategy?
    a. Better opportunities in the environment are perceived elsewhere.
    b. Its main strategic decisions focus on the conscious use of reversal grand strategies.
    c. The environment is seen so threatening that internal strengths are insufficient to meet the
    challenge.
    d. Its easier and comfortable to pursue retrenchment strategy.
    e. The firm is not doing well or perceives itself as doing poorly.
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa, b and c only
    2. Ba, c and e only
    3. Cc, d and e only
    4. Db, d and e only

    Answer: (B) a, c and e only

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option B: a, c and e only. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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59. Question 59

    An unfavourable overhead volume variance indicates that:

    1. ATotal fixed overhead has exceeded the standard budgeted amount
    2. BVariable overhead per unit has exceeded the standard budgeted amount
    3. CActual production was less than the normal level of output
    4. DActual production was more than the normal level of output

    Answer: (C) Actual production was less than the normal level of output

    Explanation

    Option C, Actual production was less than the normal level of output, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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60. Question 60

    Deviation from market portfolio, a point on the Capital Market Line (CML) that differentiates
    investors' investing and financing decisions (based on their risk appetite) is describe by:

    1. AConvergence theorem
    2. BSeparation theorem
    3. CEfficient market theorem
    4. DArbitrage pricing theorem

    Answer: (B) Separation theorem

    Explanation

    Option B, Separation theorem, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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61. Question 61

    Which one of the following statements is true for Type II error?

    1. ARejecting an incorrect hypothesis
    2. BAccepting an incorrect hypothesis
    3. CAccepting a correct hypothesis
    4. DRejecting a correct hypothesis

    Answer: (B) Accepting an incorrect hypothesis

    Explanation

    Option B, Accepting an incorrect hypothesis, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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62. Question 62

    Which of the following outcomes will promote sustainable capitalism?
    a. Job creation, wealth generation and equitable income distribution
    b. Do good and make profit (Shubh Labh)
    c. Digital transformation and increased corporate profiteering
    d. Ethical wealth creation and resource allocation
    e. Emergence of monolithic and oligopolistic corporate entities
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa, b and c only
    2. Bc, d and e only
    3. Ca, b and d only
    4. Db, c and e only

    Answer: (C) a, b and d only

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option C: a, b and d only. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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63. Question 63

    Which one of the following is not an internal force for organizational change?

    1. AManagerial Behaviour
    2. BChange in leadership
    3. CWorkforce Diversity
    4. DChange in Employee and customer expectations

    Answer: (D) Change in Employee and customer expectations

    Explanation

    Option D, Change in Employee and customer expectations, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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64. Question 64

    Internal reliability of a test instrument is defined as:

    1. AThe increase and decrease in scores measured over time produce a variance of less than 50%
    2. BThe consistency of a measure taken at two different points of time
    3. CThe identical observation of single individual's scores
    4. DThe property of a distribution to achieve mean of 0 and variance of 1

    Answer: (B) The consistency of a measure taken at two different points of time

    Explanation

    Option B, The consistency of a measure taken at two different points of time, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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65. Question 65

    Which of the following are concerns and challenges of industrial revolution 4.0?
    a. Invasion of privacy
    b. Reduced capital expenditure on infrastructure
    c. Low cost and affordable service
    d. Blurring differences between the men and machines
    e. Environmental concerns
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa, b and c only
    2. Bc, d and e only
    3. Cb and d only
    4. Da and e only

    Answer: (D) a and e only

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option D: a and e only. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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66. Question 66

    Which of the following statements are true about line balancing?

    a. The total amount of work on a line is divided into different tasks
    b. Line balancing mainly ensures that each work station gets approximately equal amount of time
    c. Cycle time is determined by the minimum time required at any workstation
    d. Line balancing is not useful for the process industry
    e. Tasks are assigned to workstations that allow the work to be performed in a feasible sequence
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Ac, d and e only
    2. Ba and e only
    3. Ca, b and c only
    4. Db, c and d only

    Answer: (B) a and e only

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option B: a and e only. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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67. Question 67

    Which one of the following is NOT an extramural function of Trade Unions?

    1. AProvision of education
    2. BJob security
    3. CHousing facilities
    4. DExtension of medical facilities during sickness

    Answer: (B) Job security

    Explanation

    Option B, Job security, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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68. Question 68

    The major components of Nicosia Model of consumer decision-making are:
    a. The consumers attitude based on firm's message exposure
    b. Perceptual and teaming constructs
    c. Feedback in the form of purchase experience
    d. Extensive problem solving by consumer
    e. Consumer's product search and evaluation
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa, b and c only
    2. Ba, c and e only
    3. Cb, d and e only
    4. Db, c and d only

    Answer: (B) a, c and e only

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option B: a, c and e only. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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69. Question 69

    Arrange the steps of novel product design thinking process in a sequential order:
    a. Define
    b. Test
    c. Prototype
    d. Empathise
    e. Ideate
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Ae, d, a, b, c
    2. Ba, c, d, e, b
    3. Cd, a, e, c, b
    4. Db, c, d, e, a

    Answer: (C) d, a, e, c, b

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option C: d, a, e, c, b. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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70. Question 70

    Arrange the following steps of marketing process in the sequential order:
    a. Capture value from customers to create profits and customer equity.
    b. Understand the market place and customer needs and wants.
    c. Build profitable relationships and create customer delight.
    d. Construct an integrated marketing program that delivers superior value.
    e. Design a customer-driven marketing strategy.
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Ab, d, e, a, c
    2. Bb, e, d, c, a
    3. Ce, b, c, d, a
    4. Dd, a, b, c, e

    Answer: (B) b, e, d, c, a

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option B: b, e, d, c, a. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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71. Question 71

    Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
    Reason R:
    Assertion (A): IFRS and GAAP are two accounting systems competing for international
    acceptance.
    Reason (R): Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS) are in convergence with both, the IFRS and the
    GAAP.
    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is correct but R is not correct
    4. DA is not correct but R is correct

    Answer: (C) A is correct but R is not correct

    Explanation

    Option C is correct: A is correct but R is not correct. Evaluate the two statements separately, then use the stated concept to determine their truth relationship rather than assuming that a related statement is automatically an explanation.

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72. Question 72

    Given below are two statements:
    Statement I: If there are differences in consumers' responses, brand-name, product is essentially a
    commodity and competition will probably be based on price.
    Statement II: Brand equity is reflected in perceptions, performance and behaviour related to all
    aspects of the marketing of a brand.
    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Explanation

    Option D is correct: Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. Evaluate the two statements separately, then use the stated concept to determine their truth relationship rather than assuming that a related statement is automatically an explanation.

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73. Question 73

    Match List I with List II.

    List I	List II
    a. System approach	i. Emphasizes that decisions and actions taken in one organisational area will affect others and vice- versa
    b. Contingency approach	ii. Emphasizes on application of statistics. optimization models and computer simulations to management activities
    c. Quantitative approach	iii. Emphasizes on career orientation, impersonality, authority hierarchy, division of labour, formal selection etc.
    d. Weber's ideal bureaucracy	iv. Emphasizes that organisations are different and face different situations that require different ways of managing Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa - i , b - iv, c - ii, d- iii
    2. Ba - ii, b - iii, c - i, d - iv
    3. Ca - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i
    4. Da - iv, b - i, c - iii, d- ii

    Answer: (A) a - i , b - iv, c - ii, d- iii

    Explanation

    The correct mapping is given by option A: a - i , b - iv, c - ii, d- iii. Check each pair against the defining role, model, stage, or measurement; every alternative breaks at least one required association.

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74. Question 74

    Given below are two statements:
    Statement I: The status of the person being perceived will greatly influence others' perception of
    the person.
    Statement II: The visible traits of the person perceived will not influence others' perception of the
    person.
    In light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option C: Statement I is true but Statement II is false. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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75. Question 75

    Earnings per share of a company is Rs. 4, Return on Investment is 20 percent and the return
    required by shareholder is 16 percent. Assuming Walter valuation model, if the payout ratio is 40
    percent, what will be the price per share?

    1. ARs 16.75
    2. BRs 20.65
    3. CRs 28.75
    4. DRs 30.15

    Answer: (C) Rs 28.75

    Explanation

    Option C, Rs 28.75, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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76. Question 76

    From the viewpoint of stockholder, which of the following relationships is of the least
    significance?

    1. AThe return on assets is consistently of higher than the industry average
    2. BThe return on equity has increased in each of the past five years
    3. CNet income is greater than the amount of working capital
    4. DThe return on assets is greater than the rate of interest being paid to the lenders

    Answer: (C) Net income is greater than the amount of working capital

    Explanation

    Option C, Net income is greater than the amount of working capital, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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77. Question 77

    Which of the following are NOT motivational factors according to Herzberg?
    a. Interpersonal relations
    b. Work itself
    c. Advancement
    d. Achievement
    e. Salary
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa and e only
    2. Ba and b only
    3. Cb and d only
    4. Dc and e only

    Answer: (A) a and e only

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option A: a and e only. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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78. Question 78

    Match List I with List II.

    List I	List II
    a. Low Price- earnings ratio stocks outperform high Price-earning ratio stocks	i. Peters (1991)
    b. Low PEG (p-e ratio/ Earnings growth rate) stocks outperform high PEG stocks	ii. Fama and French (1992)
    c. Small firms consistently experience larger risk-adjusted returns	iii. Basu (1977)
    d. High book value/ market value ratio stocks yield higher returns	iv. Banz (1981) Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa - ii, b - i, c - iii, d - iv
    2. Ba - iii, b - i, c - iv, d - ii
    3. Ca - iii, b - ii, c- iv, d - i
    4. Da - iii, b - iv, c - ii, d - i

    Answer: (B) a - iii, b - i, c - iv, d - ii

    Explanation

    The correct mapping is given by option B: a - iii, b - i, c - iv, d - ii. Check each pair against the defining role, model, stage, or measurement; every alternative breaks at least one required association.

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79. Question 79

    Match List I with List II.

    List I	List II
    a. Strangers	i. High potential profitability and low projected loyalty.
    b. Barnacles	ii. High potential profitability and High projected loyalty
    c. True Friends	iii. Low potential profitability and low projected loyalty
    d. Butterflies	iv. Low potential profitability and High projected loyalty Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa - i, b - iii, c - ii, d - iv
    2. Ba - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i
    3. Ca - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i
    4. Da - iii, b - iv, c - ii, d - i

    Answer: (D) a - iii, b - iv, c - ii, d - i

    Explanation

    The correct mapping is given by option D: a - iii, b - iv, c - ii, d - i. Check each pair against the defining role, model, stage, or measurement; every alternative breaks at least one required association.

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80. Question 80

    Match List I with List II.

    List I	List II
    a. Implicit Costs	i. Change in the total cost per unit change in output.
    b. Marginal cost	ii. Total increase in costs resulting from the implementation of a particular managerial decision.
    c. Incremental Cost	iii. Imputed value of inputs owned and used by the firm.
    d. Sunk Cost	iv. The costs that are not affected by managerial decision. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i
    2. Ba - iv, b- iii, c- ii, d - i
    3. Ca - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv
    4. Da - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii

    Answer: (C) a - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv

    Explanation

    The correct mapping is given by option C: a - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv. Check each pair against the defining role, model, stage, or measurement; every alternative breaks at least one required association.

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81. Question 81

    Gantt chart is applicable to:

    1. ATime study
    2. BProduction scheduling
    3. CSales Forecasting
    4. DMotion Study

    Answer: (B) Production scheduling

    Explanation

    Option B, Production scheduling, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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82. Question 82

    UNCTAD compiled ‘Transnationality Index’ consists of which of the following three ratios?

    1. AForeign assets/Total assets: Foreign sales/Total sales and Foreign employment/Total
       employment
    2. BForeign assets/Total assets: Foreign sales/Total output and Foreign employment/Total
       employment
    3. CForeign assets/Total GDP: Foreign sales. Total GDP and Foreign employment/Total GDP
    4. DForeign assets/Total output: Foreign sales/Total sales and Foreign employment/Total GDP

    Answer: (A) Foreign assets/Total assets: Foreign sales/Total sales and Foreign employment/Total
    employment

    Explanation

    Option A, Foreign assets/Total assets: Foreign sales/Total sales and Foreign employment/Total
    employment, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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83. Question 83

    "A company in the sewing machine business diversifies into kitchenware and household
    appliances and sells these items through a chain of retail stores to family consumers". This is an
    example of:

    1. AMarketing-related concentric diversification
    2. BTechnology-related concentric diversification
    3. CMarketing and technology-related concentric diversification
    4. DUnrelated diversification

    Answer: (A) Marketing-related concentric diversification

    Explanation

    Option A, Marketing-related concentric diversification, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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84. Question 84

    A consumer wants to purchase a laptop. She makes a list of selected brands and then evaluates
    selected brands in terms of each relevant attribute and computes a weighted score for each brand.
    Then, she selects the highest scoring brand. Which consumer decision making rule has she
    employed?

    1. ACompensatory
    2. BConjunctive
    3. CAffect Referral
    4. DLexicographic

    Answer: (A) Compensatory

    Explanation

    Option A, Compensatory, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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85. Question 85

    “Udyam Assist Platform” developed by the SIDBI cater to which of the following enterprises?

    1. ASmall Enterprises
    2. BMedium Enterprises
    3. CExport Oriented Enterprises
    4. DInformal Micro Enterprises

    Answer: (D) Informal Micro Enterprises

    Explanation

    Option D, Informal Micro Enterprises, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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86. Question 86

    "We don't have a marketing department; we have a customer department."
    Herb Kelleher's statement given above refers to which one of the following concepts?

    1. ASocial Responsibility Marketing Concept
    2. BInternal Marketing Concept
    3. CMarketing Concept
    4. DCustomer Relationship Management Concept

    Answer: (C) Marketing Concept

    Explanation

    Option C, Marketing Concept, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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87. Question 87

    Which one of the following is not the view of ethics among the following of views ?

    1. AUtilitarian view of ethics
    2. BRights view of ethics
    3. CTheory of justice view of ethics
    4. DNon-integrative social view

    Answer: (D) Non-integrative social view

    Explanation

    Option D, Non-integrative social view, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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88. Question 88

    Dimension reduction methods have the goal of using the correlation structure among the
    predictor variables to accomplish which of the following:
    a. To reduce the number of predictor components
    b. To help ensure that these components are dependent
    c. To provide a framework for interpretability of the results
    d. To help ensure that these components are independent
    e. To increase the number of predictor components
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Aa, b, d and e only
    2. Ba, c and d only
    3. Ca, b, c and e only
    4. Db, c, d and e only

    Answer: (B) a, c and d only

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option B: a, c and d only. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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89. Question 89

    Arrange the following milk product brands developed by the state co-operatives in ascending
    order of revenue generator:
    a. Vita (Haryana)
    b. Amul (Gujarat)
    c. Nandini (Karnataka)
    d. Verka (Punjab)
    e. Milma (Kerala)
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. Ae, d, a, b, c
    2. Ba, e, d, c, b
    3. Cc, e, a, d, b
    4. Dd, c, a, e, b

    Answer: (B) a, e, d, c, b

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option B: a, e, d, c, b. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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90. Question 90

    The most important step of ERP implementation is the _______ phase:

    An enterprise resource planning is at the center of the institution. In spite of a definite need to
    integrate functionality in areas like accounting, sales and order management, customer relationship
    management and SCM, the investments made by companies is not enough. Enterprises need to
    transform business processes to respond to fast changing customer demands and survive the intense
    global competition.
    Enterprises globally have been seeking information systems with the capacity to automate,
    communication and integrate information by collecting data in a highly standardized form. The
    selection of the ERP package is daunting task requiring a variety of infrastructural and managerial
    considerations. Both present and future business process scenarios need to be considered along
    with flexibility and cost. One dilemma before the decision makers is the possible intervention of
    non-proprietary technology standards. ERP implementation is a strategic activity requiring a
    comprehensive analysis of pre and post implementation scenarios and intensive training of people
    especially the front-end users. While some managers need to be involved in the design and
    implementation process, others have to learn the functionalities. The integration process passes
    through tough phases of accounting for differences in segments, departments and business

    processes, though with a unified managerial intent. A prototype of the required integration of
    business process needs to be developed after discussion with the people at different levels. The
    quality of ERP carries a long-term impact on the process of the organization and it is not easy to
    switch to another product with concomitant scale of investment and complexities. Fundamentally,
    everybody in the organization should understand how ERP will be used to bridge between "How it
    is" and "How it needs to be".

    1. AInstallation
    2. BGap analysis
    3. CTesting
    4. DTraining

    Answer: (B) Gap analysis

    Explanation

    Option B, Gap analysis, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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91. Question 91

    In ERP implementation. which is not a constraint in the process of integration of different business
    entities?

    An enterprise resource planning is at the center of the institution. In spite of a definite need to
    integrate functionality in areas like accounting, sales and order management, customer relationship
    management and SCM, the investments made by companies is not enough. Enterprises need to
    transform business processes to respond to fast changing customer demands and survive the intense
    global competition.
    Enterprises globally have been seeking information systems with the capacity to automate,
    communication and integrate information by collecting data in a highly standardized form. The
    selection of the ERP package is daunting task requiring a variety of infrastructural and managerial
    considerations. Both present and future business process scenarios need to be considered along
    with flexibility and cost. One dilemma before the decision makers is the possible intervention of
    non-proprietary technology standards. ERP implementation is a strategic activity requiring a
    comprehensive analysis of pre and post implementation scenarios and intensive training of people
    especially the front-end users. While some managers need to be involved in the design and
    implementation process, others have to learn the functionalities. The integration process passes
    through tough phases of accounting for differences in segments, departments and business

    processes, though with a unified managerial intent. A prototype of the required integration of
    business process needs to be developed after discussion with the people at different levels. The
    quality of ERP carries a long-term impact on the process of the organization and it is not easy to
    switch to another product with concomitant scale of investment and complexities. Fundamentally,
    everybody in the organization should understand how ERP will be used to bridge between "How it
    is" and "How it needs to be".

    1. AFunctional differences
    2. BGeographical differences
    3. CManagerial differences
    4. DOperational differences

    Answer: (C) Managerial differences

    Explanation

    Option C, Managerial differences, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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92. Question 92

    For success of ERP, the issues to be considered do not include:

    An enterprise resource planning is at the center of the institution. In spite of a definite need to
    integrate functionality in areas like accounting, sales and order management, customer relationship
    management and SCM, the investments made by companies is not enough. Enterprises need to
    transform business processes to respond to fast changing customer demands and survive the intense
    global competition.
    Enterprises globally have been seeking information systems with the capacity to automate,
    communication and integrate information by collecting data in a highly standardized form. The
    selection of the ERP package is daunting task requiring a variety of infrastructural and managerial
    considerations. Both present and future business process scenarios need to be considered along
    with flexibility and cost. One dilemma before the decision makers is the possible intervention of
    non-proprietary technology standards. ERP implementation is a strategic activity requiring a
    comprehensive analysis of pre and post implementation scenarios and intensive training of people
    especially the front-end users. While some managers need to be involved in the design and
    implementation process, others have to learn the functionalities. The integration process passes
    through tough phases of accounting for differences in segments, departments and business

    processes, though with a unified managerial intent. A prototype of the required integration of
    business process needs to be developed after discussion with the people at different levels. The
    quality of ERP carries a long-term impact on the process of the organization and it is not easy to
    switch to another product with concomitant scale of investment and complexities. Fundamentally,
    everybody in the organization should understand how ERP will be used to bridge between "How it
    is" and "How it needs to be".

    1. AAdaptability to changes in business processes in the future
    2. BERP package free from the intervention of non-proprietory technology standards
    3. CCustomisations to support varied business practices
    4. DFlexibility and cost-effectiveness of ERP

    Answer: (B) ERP package free from the intervention of non-proprietory technology standards

    Explanation

    Option B, ERP package free from the intervention of non-proprietory technology standards, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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93. Question 93

    Organisation wide training is required to take full advantage of an ERP implementation. In this
    context, which of the following statements are true?
    i. Learning of the steering team on system performance is a must for ERP implementation
    ii. Training of functional managers in process analysis and redesign is required continually
    iii. IT department needs to be fully aware of system architecture

    An enterprise resource planning is at the center of the institution. In spite of a definite need to
    integrate functionality in areas like accounting, sales and order management, customer relationship
    management and SCM, the investments made by companies is not enough. Enterprises need to
    transform business processes to respond to fast changing customer demands and survive the intense
    global competition.
    Enterprises globally have been seeking information systems with the capacity to automate,
    communication and integrate information by collecting data in a highly standardized form. The
    selection of the ERP package is daunting task requiring a variety of infrastructural and managerial
    considerations. Both present and future business process scenarios need to be considered along
    with flexibility and cost. One dilemma before the decision makers is the possible intervention of
    non-proprietary technology standards. ERP implementation is a strategic activity requiring a
    comprehensive analysis of pre and post implementation scenarios and intensive training of people
    especially the front-end users. While some managers need to be involved in the design and
    implementation process, others have to learn the functionalities. The integration process passes
    through tough phases of accounting for differences in segments, departments and business

    processes, though with a unified managerial intent. A prototype of the required integration of
    business process needs to be developed after discussion with the people at different levels. The
    quality of ERP carries a long-term impact on the process of the organization and it is not easy to
    switch to another product with concomitant scale of investment and complexities. Fundamentally,
    everybody in the organization should understand how ERP will be used to bridge between "How it
    is" and "How it needs to be".

    1. ABoth i and ii
    2. BBoth ii and iii
    3. CBoth i and iii
    4. Di, ii and iii

    Answer: (C) Both i and iii

    Explanation

    The correct combination is option C: Both i and iii. It retains the statements that satisfy the stated management principle and excludes statements that reverse it or introduce an unrelated condition.

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94. Question 94

    Which of the following is a precursor to ERP implementation?

    An enterprise resource planning is at the center of the institution. In spite of a definite need to
    integrate functionality in areas like accounting, sales and order management, customer relationship
    management and SCM, the investments made by companies is not enough. Enterprises need to
    transform business processes to respond to fast changing customer demands and survive the intense
    global competition.
    Enterprises globally have been seeking information systems with the capacity to automate,
    communication and integrate information by collecting data in a highly standardized form. The
    selection of the ERP package is daunting task requiring a variety of infrastructural and managerial
    considerations. Both present and future business process scenarios need to be considered along
    with flexibility and cost. One dilemma before the decision makers is the possible intervention of
    non-proprietary technology standards. ERP implementation is a strategic activity requiring a
    comprehensive analysis of pre and post implementation scenarios and intensive training of people
    especially the front-end users. While some managers need to be involved in the design and
    implementation process, others have to learn the functionalities. The integration process passes
    through tough phases of accounting for differences in segments, departments and business

    processes, though with a unified managerial intent. A prototype of the required integration of
    business process needs to be developed after discussion with the people at different levels. The
    quality of ERP carries a long-term impact on the process of the organization and it is not easy to
    switch to another product with concomitant scale of investment and complexities. Fundamentally,
    everybody in the organization should understand how ERP will be used to bridge between "How it
    is" and "How it needs to be".

    1. ABusiness modelling
    2. BBusiness process reengineering
    3. CProject analysis
    4. DBusiness continuity analysis

    Answer: (A) Business modelling

    Explanation

    Option A, Business modelling, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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95. Question 95

    More competition in the early years of the business results in:

    Accepted wisdom holds that the less competition a business faces, the more it thrives. The concept
    is at the core of the Blue Ocean Strategy (Kim and Mauborgne, 2005) which advocates launching
    in the uncontested markets, in order to avoid pain of going head-to-head with rivals. Research
    shows that exposure to competition in early stages of a firm's life increases its long-term survival
    prospects.
    Companies established in crowded markets had a higher likelihood of failing in the first year than
    those started in less crowded markets. Early exposure to competition may immunize a company.
    How does a competition help firms in their youth thrive? A challenging environment causes startups

    to be tightly focused on satisfying customer needs along with lowering and containing costs. Many
    companies develop internal competition. Venture investors can help to create a similar dynamics
    by being careful not to overfund a new company, as having too much cash-on- hand can make it
    harder to establish a low-cost culture. Of course, early competition has a downside: some new
    businesses fail before they have time to build up immunity. Still managers of young businesses will
    bear in mind the advantages of exposure to safe levels of external competition or to a competitive
    environment that's been generated inside the organization. Such exposure can have long-lasting
    positive effects on efficiency and survival.

    1. AReducing the chances of its survival in the long-run
    2. BIncreasing the chances of its survival in the long-run
    3. CNeutralising the life of the business
    4. DMaking difficult for the new firm to raise funds from the market

    Answer: (B) Increasing the chances of its survival in the long-run

    Explanation

    Option B, Increasing the chances of its survival in the long-run, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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96. Question 96

    According to the passage, venture capitalists should:

    Accepted wisdom holds that the less competition a business faces, the more it thrives. The concept
    is at the core of the Blue Ocean Strategy (Kim and Mauborgne, 2005) which advocates launching
    in the uncontested markets, in order to avoid pain of going head-to-head with rivals. Research
    shows that exposure to competition in early stages of a firm's life increases its long-term survival
    prospects.
    Companies established in crowded markets had a higher likelihood of failing in the first year than
    those started in less crowded markets. Early exposure to competition may immunize a company.
    How does a competition help firms in their youth thrive? A challenging environment causes startups

    to be tightly focused on satisfying customer needs along with lowering and containing costs. Many
    companies develop internal competition. Venture investors can help to create a similar dynamics
    by being careful not to overfund a new company, as having too much cash-on- hand can make it
    harder to establish a low-cost culture. Of course, early competition has a downside: some new
    businesses fail before they have time to build up immunity. Still managers of young businesses will
    bear in mind the advantages of exposure to safe levels of external competition or to a competitive
    environment that's been generated inside the organization. Such exposure can have long-lasting
    positive effects on efficiency and survival.

    1. Abuild a low-cost structure
    2. Bbe aggressive in financing
    3. Ctake steps to acquire poor performing companies that they have funded
    4. Dnot overfund a new business

    Answer: (D) not overfund a new business

    Explanation

    Option D, not overfund a new business, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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97. Question 97

    The best way for a firm to survive in a highly-competitive environment is:

    Accepted wisdom holds that the less competition a business faces, the more it thrives. The concept
    is at the core of the Blue Ocean Strategy (Kim and Mauborgne, 2005) which advocates launching
    in the uncontested markets, in order to avoid pain of going head-to-head with rivals. Research
    shows that exposure to competition in early stages of a firm's life increases its long-term survival
    prospects.
    Companies established in crowded markets had a higher likelihood of failing in the first year than
    those started in less crowded markets. Early exposure to competition may immunize a company.
    How does a competition help firms in their youth thrive? A challenging environment causes startups

    to be tightly focused on satisfying customer needs along with lowering and containing costs. Many
    companies develop internal competition. Venture investors can help to create a similar dynamics
    by being careful not to overfund a new company, as having too much cash-on- hand can make it
    harder to establish a low-cost culture. Of course, early competition has a downside: some new
    businesses fail before they have time to build up immunity. Still managers of young businesses will
    bear in mind the advantages of exposure to safe levels of external competition or to a competitive
    environment that's been generated inside the organization. Such exposure can have long-lasting
    positive effects on efficiency and survival.

    1. AHiring highly competitive human resources
    2. BFocusing on customer needs along with lowering the cost
    3. CImproving the quality of the product without caring for the costs involved
    4. DMaking huge investment in state-of-the art technology

    Answer: (B) Focusing on customer needs along with lowering the cost

    Explanation

    Option B, Focusing on customer needs along with lowering the cost, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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98. Question 98

    Which of the following is a type of competitive strategy?

    Accepted wisdom holds that the less competition a business faces, the more it thrives. The concept
    is at the core of the Blue Ocean Strategy (Kim and Mauborgne, 2005) which advocates launching
    in the uncontested markets, in order to avoid pain of going head-to-head with rivals. Research
    shows that exposure to competition in early stages of a firm's life increases its long-term survival
    prospects.
    Companies established in crowded markets had a higher likelihood of failing in the first year than
    those started in less crowded markets. Early exposure to competition may immunize a company.
    How does a competition help firms in their youth thrive? A challenging environment causes startups

    to be tightly focused on satisfying customer needs along with lowering and containing costs. Many
    companies develop internal competition. Venture investors can help to create a similar dynamics
    by being careful not to overfund a new company, as having too much cash-on- hand can make it
    harder to establish a low-cost culture. Of course, early competition has a downside: some new
    businesses fail before they have time to build up immunity. Still managers of young businesses will
    bear in mind the advantages of exposure to safe levels of external competition or to a competitive
    environment that's been generated inside the organization. Such exposure can have long-lasting
    positive effects on efficiency and survival.

    1. AProduct differentiation
    2. BMinimum currency cost
    3. CMaximum cost structure
    4. DProfit maximisation

    Answer: (A) Product differentiation

    Explanation

    Option A, Product differentiation, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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99. Question 99

    A strategy referred to in the passage that enables firms to create a new market space for themselves
    is:

    Accepted wisdom holds that the less competition a business faces, the more it thrives. The concept
    is at the core of the Blue Ocean Strategy (Kim and Mauborgne, 2005) which advocates launching
    in the uncontested markets, in order to avoid pain of going head-to-head with rivals. Research
    shows that exposure to competition in early stages of a firm's life increases its long-term survival
    prospects.
    Companies established in crowded markets had a higher likelihood of failing in the first year than
    those started in less crowded markets. Early exposure to competition may immunize a company.
    How does a competition help firms in their youth thrive? A challenging environment causes startups

    to be tightly focused on satisfying customer needs along with lowering and containing costs. Many
    companies develop internal competition. Venture investors can help to create a similar dynamics
    by being careful not to overfund a new company, as having too much cash-on- hand can make it
    harder to establish a low-cost culture. Of course, early competition has a downside: some new
    businesses fail before they have time to build up immunity. Still managers of young businesses will
    bear in mind the advantages of exposure to safe levels of external competition or to a competitive
    environment that's been generated inside the organization. Such exposure can have long-lasting
    positive effects on efficiency and survival.

    1. ARed Ocean strategy
    2. BBlue Ocean strategy
    3. CBudding in the Ocean strategy
    4. DOccasional strategy

    Answer: (B) Blue Ocean strategy

    Explanation

    Option B, Blue Ocean strategy, is correct because it directly matches the definition or condition in the stem. The other options name different concepts or do not meet the condition asked about.

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