The complete UGC NET March 2023 question paper for Management, covering Paper 1 (General Aptitude) and Paper 2 (Management). Every question below is shown with its options and the correct answer, and a detailed explanation you can unlock by signing in. All 150 questions are free to practise.
| Exam | UGC NET March 2023 |
|---|---|
| Papers | Paper 1 (General Aptitude) and Paper 2 (Management) |
| Exam date(s) | March 12, 2023 |
| Shift(s) | Shift 2 |
| Paper 1 questions | 50 questions · 60 minutes · 100 marks |
| Paper 2 questions | 100 questions · 120 minutes · 200 marks |
| Total | 150 questions |
| Marking scheme | +2 per correct answer · No negative marking |
UGC NET March 2023 · Management sitting
50 questions with the answer key and explanations.
Total distribution of Mobile Phones in M.P. is ____% less than that of Assam and Punjab together.
The table gives the distribution of mobile phones, in lakhs, across income groups under the CONNECT Scheme. The total is 30 lakh phones; a dash means that value must be derived.
| State | Mobile Phones (lakhs) | High Income | Middle Income | Low Income |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| M.P. | 6.5 | 15% | — | 50% |
| Bihar | 3.4 | 12% | 32% | — |
| U.P. | 2.5 | 8% | 13% | — |
| Haryana | 5.2 | — | 25% | — |
| Punjab | — | 21% | 22% | — |
| Assam | 4.2 | — | 9% | 78% |
| Kerala | 4.7 | 15% | — | 60% |
Answer: (A) 15.58
Explanation
What is the ratio of distribution of Mobile Phones in Low income people of Bihar to the Middle income people of Kerala?
The table gives the distribution of mobile phones, in lakhs, across income groups under the CONNECT Scheme. The total is 30 lakh phones; a dash means that value must be derived.
| State | Mobile Phones (lakhs) | High Income | Middle Income | Low Income |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| M.P. | 6.5 | 15% | — | 50% |
| Bihar | 3.4 | 12% | 32% | — |
| U.P. | 2.5 | 8% | 13% | — |
| Haryana | 5.2 | — | 25% | — |
| Punjab | — | 21% | 22% | — |
| Assam | 4.2 | — | 9% | 78% |
| Kerala | 4.7 | 15% | — | 60% |
Answer: (D) 1904 : 1175
Explanation
What is the difference between the number of Mobile Phones distributed among High income people of U.P., M.P. and Kerala together and Middle income people of Haryana, Punjab and Kerala together?
The table gives the distribution of mobile phones, in lakhs, across income groups under the CONNECT Scheme. The total is 30 lakh phones; a dash means that value must be derived.
| State | Mobile Phones (lakhs) | High Income | Middle Income | Low Income |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| M.P. | 6.5 | 15% | — | 50% |
| Bihar | 3.4 | 12% | 32% | — |
| U.P. | 2.5 | 8% | 13% | — |
| Haryana | 5.2 | — | 25% | — |
| Punjab | — | 21% | 22% | — |
| Assam | 4.2 | — | 9% | 78% |
| Kerala | 4.7 | 15% | — | 60% |
Answer: (B) 136500
Explanation
In Haryana state, the ratio of distribution (%) of Mobile Phones among High income people to the Low income people is 2 : 3. Then the distribution of Mobile Phones among High income people in the same state is ____ more than that among Middle income people.
The table gives the distribution of mobile phones, in lakhs, across income groups under the CONNECT Scheme. The total is 30 lakh phones; a dash means that value must be derived.
| State | Mobile Phones (lakhs) | High Income | Middle Income | Low Income |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| M.P. | 6.5 | 15% | — | 50% |
| Bihar | 3.4 | 12% | 32% | — |
| U.P. | 2.5 | 8% | 13% | — |
| Haryana | 5.2 | — | 25% | — |
| Punjab | — | 21% | 22% | — |
| Assam | 4.2 | — | 9% | 78% |
| Kerala | 4.7 | 15% | — | 60% |
Answer: (A) 26000
Explanation
Total distribution of Mobile Phones in Low income people of all the states together excluding Haryana is approximately ____% of the total distribution in all the states together.
The table gives the distribution of mobile phones, in lakhs, across income groups under the CONNECT Scheme. The total is 30 lakh phones; a dash means that value must be derived.
| State | Mobile Phones (lakhs) | High Income | Middle Income | Low Income |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| M.P. | 6.5 | 15% | — | 50% |
| Bihar | 3.4 | 12% | 32% | — |
| U.P. | 2.5 | 8% | 13% | — |
| Haryana | 5.2 | — | 25% | — |
| Punjab | — | 21% | 22% | — |
| Assam | 4.2 | — | 9% | 78% |
| Kerala | 4.7 | 15% | — | 60% |
Answer: (D) 50.7
Explanation
Match List I with List II.
| List I: E-Learning strategies | List II: Meaning |
|---|---|
| A. Podcasts | I. Personal websites with content organised like a journal or diary |
| B. Blogs | II. Dissemination of recorded or live content over the internet |
| C. Wiki | III. Digital audio or video files containing meaningful learning content |
| D. Webcasting | IV. Open, dynamic websites with collaboratively constructed knowledge, information and resources that are freely available on the internet |
Answer: (B) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II
Explanation
Which of the following are the characteristics of an Ideal Evaluation in the teaching-learning process?
A. Comprehensiveness
B. Validity
C. Reliability
D. Subjectivity
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Answer: (B) A, B and C only
Explanation
Which of the following statements are true about SWAYAM?
A. SWAYAM is designed to achieve three cardinal principles.
B. SWAYAM hosts courses taught in classrooms from Class IX to post-graduation.
C. SWAYAM assesses students continuously and grants degrees.
D. It can be accessed by anyone, anytime and anywhere.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Answer: (C) A, B and D only
Explanation
Which of the following is related to the learning-centred approach of education?
Answer: (C) Self-controlled
Explanation
Arrange the steps of the project method in sequence.
A. Purpose of the project
B. Providing a situation
C. Execution of the project
D. Planning of the project
E. Recording of the project
F. Evaluation of the project
Answer: (C) B, A, D, C, F, E
Explanation
In much of social research, the variables used are
Answer: (C) Non-manipulable
Explanation
The panel study has the issue of
Answer: (A) Attrition
Explanation
If respondents are offered an option of answering a questionnaire by another mode, such as answering a postal questionnaire through a web survey, it is called
Answer: (D) Mixed mode survey
Explanation
Which of the following are disadvantages of online research?
A. Online research is expensive.
B. Samples can be small and skewed.
C. There can be an excessive turnover of communication.
D. Technological issues may lead to inconsistencies.
E. Online participants are rigid.
Choose the correct answer.
Answer: (B) B, C and D only
Explanation
Given below are two statements.
Statement I: Qualitative data analysis is governed by the codified prescriptions of quantitative data analysis.
Statement II: Qualitative data analysis has many approaches, of which grounded theory is important.
Choose the correct answer.
Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Explanation
According to ancient Indian texts, the ultimate goal of both internal and external communication is
Answer: (C) Self-realisation
Explanation
According to Chanakya, communication flows from
Answer: (B) The centre of power
Explanation
Looking deeply into the channels of communication is described as
Answer: (D) Media analysis
Explanation
The humanistic approach to communication posits that
A. Behaviour is innate.
B. Behaviour is concocted.
C. Behavioural changes originate from the inner self.
D. The reward-punishment technique for behavioural change is short-lived.
E. Communicative techniques focus only on paralinguistic messages for behavioural change.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Answer: (B) B, C and D only
Explanation
Given below are two statements.
Statement I: In communication, the dominant interests of a larger culture will form the image of minority audiences.
Statement II: The medium of television is often considered a new religion.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Explanation
An amount deposited at 5% simple interest becomes ₹1,512 in 4 years. How much will the same amount become in 2½ years at 10% simple interest per annum?
Answer: (B) ₹1,575
Explanation
What number would replace the question mark in the series?
1, 4, 3, 5, 6, 9, 13, 20, 31, ?
Answer: (A) 49
Explanation
The average weight of six members of a family is 30 kg. If the head of the family is not considered, the average weight of the remaining five members is 5 kg less. Find the weight of the head of the family.
Answer: (A) 55 kg
Explanation
In a certain code language, BLACK is coded as 1131122. How will WHITE be coded in that language?
Answer: (C) 5209823
Explanation
If the numerator and denominator of a fraction are each increased by 7, the fraction becomes 2/3. Find the original fraction.
Answer: (C) 3/8
Explanation
“You really must try out to be selected in the basketball team because my uncle who teaches philosophy says that you have real potential.” Identify the logical fallacy committed in this argument.
Answer: (B) Appeal to inappropriate authority
Explanation
Which of the following statements are so related that if one is true the other must be false, and vice versa?
A. All human beings are mortal.
B. Some human beings are mortal.
C. Some human beings are not mortal.
D. No human beings are mortal.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Answer: (A) A and C only
Explanation
Which statement is logically equivalent to “No plants are murderers”?
Answer: (B) No murderers are plants.
Explanation
“I just cannot believe it! Mr. Suresh cannot be guilty of murder since there is no way Mr. Suresh could kill someone.” Which fallacy is committed in this argument?
Answer: (B) Begging the question
Explanation
According to the classical Indian school of logic, knowledge resulting from prior knowledge of invariable concomitance between two objects is called
Answer: (B) Anumana
Explanation
A computer is used to store photographs and videos. The average size of each photograph is 8 MB and the average size of each video is 400 MB. How much memory, in gigabytes, is needed to store 800 photographs and 80 videos? (1 KB = 1024 Bytes)
Answer: (D) 37.50
Explanation
In about 1945, who developed the idea of a stored-program computer?
Answer: (A) John von Neumann
Explanation
Which communication system allows a group of people to enter, modify and contribute to one or more pages of related text?
Answer: (A) Wiki
Explanation
Given below are two statements.
Statement I: EEPROM stands for Electronically Extendable Programmable Read Only Memory.
Statement II: RAM is much faster to read from or write to than other types of memory, but its main drawback is its non-volatility.
Choose the correct answer.
Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Explanation
Which statements about email address spoofing are true?
A. Email address spoofing is copying an email to other staff.
B. Email address spoofing is used for hacking.
C. Email address spoofing is the forgery of an email header or sender information.
D. Email address spoofing is sending a joke email to other staff.
Choose the correct answer.
Answer: (B) B and C only
Explanation
Which of the following are water-borne bacterial diseases?
A. Cholera
B. Hepatitis
C. Typhoid
D. Schistosomiasis
E. Dysentery
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Answer: (C) A, C and E only
Explanation
Assertion (A): Beneath the surface horizons, the subsoil usually has lower organic content and a higher concentration of mineral particles.
Reason (R): Subsoil is generally made up of weathered rock fragments.
Choose the correct answer.
Answer: (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation
Which one of the following is a secondary aerosol?
Answer: (D) Sulphate particles
Explanation
Hazardous waste is liquid or solid that contains substances known to be
A. Fatal to humans or animals only at high doses.
B. Toxic, carcinogenic or mutagenic to humans.
C. Ignitable even at temperatures less than 60°C.
D. Non-reactive.
E. Corrosive.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Answer: (B) B, C and E only
Explanation
An eutrophic lake
A. is rich in nutrients.
B. is poor in organic matter.
C. has high algal blooms.
D. is rich in dissolved oxygen.
E. has no issue with survival of fish and other aquatic life.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Answer: (C) A and C only
Explanation
In the context of higher education, National Education Policy 2020 has emphasised the need for
Answer: (D) Internationalisation
Explanation
Which of the following are major characteristics of good governance?
A. It is consensus-oriented.
B. It is accountable.
C. It is opaque.
D. It is inclusive.
E. It is autocratic.
Choose the correct answer.
Answer: (A) A, B and D only
Explanation
Some important recommendations of the Kothari Commission were
A. Establishment of clusters of advanced centres in major universities.
B. Abolition of the system of affiliate colleges.
C. Abolition of continuous evaluation system.
D. Establishment of six major universities.
E. Improving quality and content of lecturing.
Choose the correct answer.
Answer: (D) A, D and E only
Explanation
During the Vedic period, the higher level of education had
Answer: (C) Specialised curriculum
Explanation
Which among the following is not a criterion for quality assessment followed by NAAC?
A. Teaching-learning and evaluation
B. Consultancy and extension
C. Infrastructure and learning resources
D. Recruitment of teaching professionals
E. Governance and leadership
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Answer: (A) D only
Explanation
Consider these two statements.
Statement I: In the post-pandemic period, demand for goods has picked up both in India and abroad.
Statement II: The Covid-19 pandemic is still not over in China.
Choose the correct answer.
At home, post-pandemic normalisation has spurred renewed demand for imported inputs. Abroad it has had the opposite effect, leading to declining demand. Foreign households no longer demand as many goods because lockdowns and fiscal stimuli have ended. India's imports have therefore soared as merchandise exports have started to fall.
Foreign demand will slow further as advanced countries appear likely to enter recession. India's current account deficit could widen to four per cent of GDP in 2022-23, double the level the Reserve Bank of India traditionally regards as safe.
Attracting foreign capital inflows worth at least four per cent of GDP may be unrealistic amid uncertainty: a land war in Europe, high developed-world inflation, rapid US Federal Reserve interest-rate hikes, an energy crisis in Europe and a slowdown in China that continues to struggle with Covid-19. In this environment, foreign investors prefer safe assets such as US government bonds to emerging markets such as India.
Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Explanation
What level of current account deficit is considered safe by RBI in terms of percentage of GDP?
At home, post-pandemic normalisation has spurred renewed demand for imported inputs. Abroad it has had the opposite effect, leading to declining demand. Foreign households no longer demand as many goods because lockdowns and fiscal stimuli have ended. India's imports have therefore soared as merchandise exports have started to fall.
Foreign demand will slow further as advanced countries appear likely to enter recession. India's current account deficit could widen to four per cent of GDP in 2022-23, double the level the Reserve Bank of India traditionally regards as safe.
Attracting foreign capital inflows worth at least four per cent of GDP may be unrealistic amid uncertainty: a land war in Europe, high developed-world inflation, rapid US Federal Reserve interest-rate hikes, an energy crisis in Europe and a slowdown in China that continues to struggle with Covid-19. In this environment, foreign investors prefer safe assets such as US government bonds to emerging markets such as India.
Answer: (A) 2%
Explanation
The world is facing unprecedented uncertainty because of
A. War in Europe
B. High levels of inflation in developed countries
C. Energy crisis in Europe
D. Fast pace of interest-rate hikes in the US
E. Normalisation after the end of the pandemic
Choose the most appropriate answer.
At home, post-pandemic normalisation has spurred renewed demand for imported inputs. Abroad it has had the opposite effect, leading to declining demand. Foreign households no longer demand as many goods because lockdowns and fiscal stimuli have ended. India's imports have therefore soared as merchandise exports have started to fall.
Foreign demand will slow further as advanced countries appear likely to enter recession. India's current account deficit could widen to four per cent of GDP in 2022-23, double the level the Reserve Bank of India traditionally regards as safe.
Attracting foreign capital inflows worth at least four per cent of GDP may be unrealistic amid uncertainty: a land war in Europe, high developed-world inflation, rapid US Federal Reserve interest-rate hikes, an energy crisis in Europe and a slowdown in China that continues to struggle with Covid-19. In this environment, foreign investors prefer safe assets such as US government bonds to emerging markets such as India.
Answer: (A) A, B, C and D only
Explanation
Consider these two statements.
Statement I: In an uncertain environment, foreign investors like to invest in emerging markets such as India.
Statement II: According to the author, the current account deficit is likely to increase further in 2022-23.
Choose the correct answer.
At home, post-pandemic normalisation has spurred renewed demand for imported inputs. Abroad it has had the opposite effect, leading to declining demand. Foreign households no longer demand as many goods because lockdowns and fiscal stimuli have ended. India's imports have therefore soared as merchandise exports have started to fall.
Foreign demand will slow further as advanced countries appear likely to enter recession. India's current account deficit could widen to four per cent of GDP in 2022-23, double the level the Reserve Bank of India traditionally regards as safe.
Attracting foreign capital inflows worth at least four per cent of GDP may be unrealistic amid uncertainty: a land war in Europe, high developed-world inflation, rapid US Federal Reserve interest-rate hikes, an energy crisis in Europe and a slowdown in China that continues to struggle with Covid-19. In this environment, foreign investors prefer safe assets such as US government bonds to emerging markets such as India.
Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Explanation
Current account deficit in India is increasing because of
A. Rise in India's imports
B. Rise in India's exports
C. Increase in foreign capital inflows
D. Fall in India's exports
Choose the most appropriate answer.
At home, post-pandemic normalisation has spurred renewed demand for imported inputs. Abroad it has had the opposite effect, leading to declining demand. Foreign households no longer demand as many goods because lockdowns and fiscal stimuli have ended. India's imports have therefore soared as merchandise exports have started to fall.
Foreign demand will slow further as advanced countries appear likely to enter recession. India's current account deficit could widen to four per cent of GDP in 2022-23, double the level the Reserve Bank of India traditionally regards as safe.
Attracting foreign capital inflows worth at least four per cent of GDP may be unrealistic amid uncertainty: a land war in Europe, high developed-world inflation, rapid US Federal Reserve interest-rate hikes, an energy crisis in Europe and a slowdown in China that continues to struggle with Covid-19. In this environment, foreign investors prefer safe assets such as US government bonds to emerging markets such as India.
Answer: (C) A and D only
Explanation
100 questions with the answer key and explanations.
What kind of elasticity of demand is faced by the oligopolistic firm?
Answer: (D) High elasticity for price rise but less elasticity for price cuts.
Explanation
Which of the following correctly explains the notion of consumer surplus?
Answer: (A) The difference between what consumers are willing to pay for a given quantity of goods and
services and the amount they actually pay.
Explanation
The market-demand and supply equation for a product are:
Q D = 30 - 3P
Q S = 20 + 2P
Here Q for quantity; P for price. What is the equilibrium demand?
Answer: (C) 24
Explanation
"Corporate governance is to conduct the business in accordance with the owner's
(shareholders) desires" is conceptualized by:
Answer: (B) Milton Friedman
Explanation
According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which one of the following organizational aspects
will not be included in the self-actualization needs?
Answer: (C) Status
Explanation
Which one of the following is not a job-related performance data to identify the performance
of an employee?
Answer: (A) Attitude Surveys
Explanation
Which one of the following is not an effect on performance, behaviour and health when stress
level of an employee is high?
Answer: (A) Feeling sleepy all the time
Explanation
Which one of the following methods of forecasting human resource demand is not a
qualitative method?
Answer: (B) Markov analysis.
Explanation
Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of Performance Management?
Answer: (A) Owned by human resource department.
Explanation
Which one of the following is not an advantage of staffing international operations of an
MNC using Parent Country Nationals (PCN)?
Answer: (B) Familiar with the local norms and culture.
Explanation
Which one of the following can be the coping mechanism if the source of resistance to
change is the fear of loss of power?
Answer: (D) Role redefinition and re-orientation.
Explanation
If the employers' attitude towards trade unions is of acceptance, their behaviour will be:
Answer: (C) Business-like
Explanation
Accounting principles are generally based on:
Answer: (A) Practicability
Explanation
ABC Ltd. produces two products X and Y in its production unit. Each unit of X and Y takes 5
hours and 10 hours as production time respectively. 1000 units of X and 600 units of Y were
produced in a month. Actual man-hours in this production were 10,000. Yearly budgeted hours
are 96,000. The activity ratio is:
Answer: (B) 137.50%
Explanation
Computation of overhead absorption rates should be based on :
Answer: (D) Normal capacity
Explanation
Operating budget consists of two parts, called as _____ budget and _____ budget:
Answer: (C) Programme, Responsibility
Explanation
As per CAPM model, the required rate of return on a security is:
Answer: (A) Return on Treasury Bonds + Market Risk Premium
Explanation
A firm can delay and favourably affect the control of its cash disbursements through the use
of:
Answer: (B) Zero balance accounts.
Explanation
Firm A wants to acquire Firm B and the financial details of the firms are:
A B
Market Price per share Rs. 50 Rs. 20
Number of shares 1,000,000 500,000
Market value of the firm Rs. 50 million Rs. 10 million
If the merger is expected to bring gains which have a present value of Rs. 10 million and Firm A
offers one share for every two shares of Firm B to the shareholders of Firm B, the apparent cost
of acquiring firm B is:
Answer: (D) Rs. 2,500,000
Explanation
Which of the following forms of purchasing power parity states that changes in spot rates
over a period of time reflect the changes in price levels over the same period in the currencies of
the concerned economies?
Answer: (A) Relative form
Explanation
Which of the following marketing channel function helps to fulfill the completed
transactions?
Answer: (D) Assuming the risks of carrying out the channel work.
Explanation
A portion of a market that is so well suited to a firm's internal and external environment that
other firms are not likely to challenge and dislodge it, is called:
Answer: (B) Propitious niche
Explanation
An approach to corporate strategy in which top management views its product lines and
business units as a series of investments from which it expects a profitable return is called:
Answer: (C) portfolio analysis
Explanation
The total combined customer lifetime values of all of the company's customers is known as:
Answer: (A) Customer equity
Explanation
Which of the following indicates "Perishability" aspect of service characteristics?
Answer: (D) It is difficult to synchronize supply and demand with services.
Explanation
Which of the following are the distinctive features of "Big data" being used in Analytical
CRM?
Answer: (A) Volume, Variety, Velocity, Veracity
Explanation
"A tennis player slams his tennis racket to the ground when disappointed with his/her game".
In above example, tennis player exhibits which of the following defense mechanism to handle
frustration?
Answer: (A) Aggression
Explanation
"An outlet which starts as a general retailer grows into a specialized retailer and in course of
time becomes even a bigger general retailer".
Above statement corresponds to which of the following theory of Retail?
Answer: (B) Retail Accordian Theory
Explanation
A cold drink bottling plant fills bottles of 500 ml. capacity with mean of 500 ml and a
standard deviation of 5. At least what percentage of bottles would contain cold drink between 490
ml and 510 ml?
Answer: (B) 95 per cent
Explanation
Karl Pearson co-efficient of variation (CV) measures which of the following characteristics?
Answer: (A) Homogeneity
Explanation
For a project activity, the optimistic, the pessimistic and the most likely times are 4, 14 and 6
days respectively. Its average time is:
Answer: (B) 7 days
Explanation
In decision analysis, the expected value of perfect information is calculated as:
Answer: (A) Expected payoff with perfect information minus Expected payoff without experimentation.
Explanation
Which one of the following is NOT a non-tariff barrier?
Answer: (C) Combined rates
Explanation
Which of the following marketing strategy falls under Geocentric kind of international
orientation?
Answer: (B) Global standardisation.
Explanation
Which of the following events contributed most to the disruption in the Bretton Woods
system?
Answer: (C) Suspension of convertibility of dollar into gold in 1971.
Explanation
Which of the following integrations is related to supernational organizational structure?
Answer: (B) Economic Union
Explanation
L.C. Gupta's sickness prediction model primarily focused on which of the following?
Answer: (C) EBIT and operating cash flows
Explanation
'Entrepreneur is an innovator playing the role of a dynamic businessman adding material
growth to economic development', is articulated by:
Answer: (C) Joseph Schumpeter (1883-1950)
Explanation
String of activities that moves a product from the raw material stage through manufacturing
and distribution, and ultimately to the end user is called:
Answer: (C) Value chain
Explanation
A metaphor describing the time period in which a firm can realistically enter a new market is
called:
Answer: (C) Window of opportunity.
Explanation
According to Max Weber, in an ideal bureaucracy:
a. Jobs are broken down into simple, routine and well-defined tasks.
b. Offices/Positions are organized in a hierarchy.
c. All organizational members are to be selected on the basis of technical qualifications.
d. Rules and Regulations are applied uniformly, avoiding involvement with personalities and
personal preferences of employees.
e. The interests of any one employee or group of employees should not take precedence over the
interests of the organization as a whole.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (A) a, b, c, d only
Explanation
Which of the following are "Feedforward" control measures for reducing workplace
violence?
a. Investigate incidences and take appropriate action.
b. Train employees about how to avoid danger if situation arises.
c. Review company policies and change these policies, if necessary.
d. Clearly communicate policies to employees.
e. Observe how employees treat and interact with each other.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (C) b and d only
Explanation
Which of the following are the sources of ethical problems in organizations?
a. Failure of personal character.
b. Organisational goals Vs. Social values.
c. Psychological egoism and rationalism.
d. Virtue and common good conflict.
e. Conflict of personal values and organizational goals.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (C) a, b and e only
Explanation
Psychological factors of individual behaviour will include which of the following?
a. Perception
b. Emotional intelligence
c. Values
d. Economic status
e. Attitudes
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (B) a, c, e only
Explanation
Which of the following are the traits of successful leaders?
a. Creative
b. Assertive
c. Persuasive
d. Decisive
e. Self-confident
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (D) b, d, e only
Explanation
Which of the following will fall under the grievances relating to promotion category?
a. Supersession
b. Increments
c. Acting promotions
d. Seniority
e. Pay fixation
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer: (D) a, c, d, e only
Explanation
Which of the following are constituents of trade unions?
a. Members
b. Employers
c. Political Party
d. Government
e. Society
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (A) a, b only
Explanation
Which of the following are benefits for the organization of career management?
a. Improved performance.
b. Improved productivity.
c. Increased retention of high talent employees.
d. Development of competencies and personal skills.
e. Better individual-organization match.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (B) b, c, e only
Explanation
Which of the following are three levels of training in the six-sigma quality system?
a. Blue Belts
b. Yellow Belts
c. Black Belts
d. Red Belts
e. Green Belts
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (D) b, c and e only
Explanation
Which of the following statements are true in context of efficient market?
a. Equilibrium rates of return will prevail.
b. Investor cannot earn a positive return.
c. Volatility will be very high.
d. Securities of listed firms sell at their fair values.
e. Investors are generally risk-averse.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (A) a, d only
Explanation
Which of the following are considered interlocking elements of a versatile business model?
a. Regulatory support and promoter experience.
b. Customer value proposition.
c. Financial resources and cost sheets.
d. Key resources and processes.
e. Profit formula.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (D) b, d and e only
Explanation
Which of the following are construed for government intervention to support
entrepreneurship and small firms?
a. Stimulate demand and new venture creation in the emerging sectors.
b. Decentralised asset ownership and people participation.
c. Help firms to adopt new technology to avoid market failure.
d. Supporting women participation in business and high-tech firms.
e. Export promotion and currency stabilisation.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (C) a, c and d only
Explanation
Indian national strategy for financial inclusion, 2019-24 aims at:
a. Broadening and deepening of financial inclusion.
b. Digitisation and seamless facilitation of financial transactions.
c. Access to formal financial services in an affordable manner.
d. Women empowerment and strengthening Self-Help Group (SHG) ecosystems.
e. Promoting financial literacy and consumer protection.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (D) a, c and e only
Explanation
Which of the following statements are applicable to value-based pricing concept?
a. Design product to deliver desired value at target price.
b. Set target price to match customer perceived value.
c. Determine costs that can be incurred.
d. Convince buyers of product's value.
e. Assess customer needs and value perceptions.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (A) a, b, c and e only
Explanation
Which of the following criteria core competencies must meet in order to create value and
provide a viable basis for synergy among the businesses in a corporation?
a. Core competencies must be difficult for competitors to imitate.
b. Different businesses in the corporation must be similar in at least one important way.
c. Core competence must enhance competitive advantage by creating superior customer value.
d. Core competencies must facilitate business diversification through shared activities with
competing firms.
e. Core-competencies must leverage business resources with competing firm to reduce business
costs.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (A) a, b and c only
Explanation
Which of the following Digital marketing statements are correct?
a. Click through Rate is calculated by dividing the total number of clicks by the total number of
ad impressions.
b. Long tail keywords are general key words which draw lower customer traffic.
c. Adwords is Google's earned search marketing programme.
d. Search Engine Marketing includes both search engine optimization and paid search.
e. Ad Auction is the process that Google runs for every Google search to decide which ad must
appear for that specific search and in which order these set of ads will be displayed.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (D) a, d and e only
Explanation
Which of the following circumstances favour "Sprinkle Approach" for launching products in
international markets?
a. The life cycle of the product is relatively short.
b. The competitive intensity of the market is very high with strong and fierce competitors.
c. Cost of entry in markets is relatively high.
d. Firm has large resources to manage simultaneous product launch in multiple markets.
e. The size of the target market is small with low growth potential.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (A) a, b and d only
Explanation
Which of the following characteristics of a data set are understood using the Karl Pearson
coefficient of variation?
a. Disparity
b. Consistency
c. Uniformity
d. Homogeneity
e. Unbiasedness
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (A) a, b and c only
Explanation
Which of the following statistical tests examines the equality of two means?
a. F-test
b. 't'-test
c. Chi-square (χ2 ) test
d. Mann-Whitney 'U' test
e. Kolmogorov-Smirnov test
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (B) b and d only
Explanation
Which of the following comprises the interdependent troika of waste, overburden and
unevenness in the 'lean' manufacturing?
a. Muri: Unreasonable work stress on men and machines.
b. Deviations from quality, productivity and breakdowns.
c. Muda: Non-value adding work.
d. Uncertainty in task times, in demand and customer's role.
e. Mura: Inconsistency and variation in workflow, speed and quality.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (D) a, c and e only
Explanation
Identify the correct statement(s) about Data Warehousing (DW):
a. DW system must be acceptable to regulators and business community.
b. DW system must not be based on open-source platforms.
c. DW system must present information attractive to users.
d. DW system must be secure bastion that protects the information.
e. DW system must be adaptive to change.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (C) a, d, e only
Explanation
Identify the incorrect statement(s) from the following:
a. Technology is a differentiator among similar business enterprises.
b. Technology cannot create value for' not-for-profit' organisations.
c. Pace of technology affects the business model of modem enterprises.
d. Needs and Goals be defined before acquisition of technology.
e. Organisations pay little attention to the process of change once a decision to acquire
technology has been taken.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (A) b only
Explanation
Which of the following are considered as the 'principal standards' in the ISO series developed
by the International Organization for Standardization?
a. ISO 9000
b. ISO 9001
c. ISO 9002
d. ISO 9003
e. ISO 9004
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (B) b, c and d only
Explanation
Identify the correct statements in context of equity financing.
a. Borrowing limit increases as a consequence of increase in number of shares.
b. Ordinary shares are generally not redeemable.
c. Issue of new shares dilutes the EPS if the profits do not increase immediately in proportion to
increase in number of shares.
d. A company is not legally obliged to pay dividend.
e. Ordinary shares are less riskier from investor's perspective.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (B) a, b, c, d only
Explanation
As per Du Pont equation for ROE, other things remaining constant, which of the following
statements is false?
a. An increase in the net profit margin will increase the ROE.
b. A decrease in debt to asset ratio will increase the ROE.
c. A decrease in return on assets will decrease the ROE.
d. An increase in the average asset turnover will increase the ROE.
e. An increase in equity multiplier will increase the ROE.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (A) b only
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| a. Directive style | I. High tolerance for ambiguity and an intuitive way of thinking. |
| b. Analytic style | II. Low tolerance for ambiguity and an intuitive way of thinking. |
| c. Conceptual style | III. Low tolerance for ambiguity. |
| d. Behavioural style | IV. High tolerance for ambiguity and rational way of thinking. |
Answer: (A) a- III, b- IV, c- I, d- II
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| a. Social boldness | I. Imaginative Vs. Practical |
| b. Abstractedness | II. Shrewd Vs. Forthright |
| c. Private | III. Controlled Vs. Casual |
| d. Perfectionism | IV. Venturesome Vs. Timid |
Answer: (D) a- IV, b- I, c- II, d- III
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| a. Value | I. Edge in terms of skills, knowledge and abilities. |
| b. Rareness | II. Teamwork |
| c. Imitability | III. Empowerment programs. |
| d. Organisation | IV. Unique history or culture. |
Answer: (A) a- III, b- I, c- IV, d- II
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| A. NPV | I. Insufficiently consistent. |
| B. Payback | II. Highly Inflexible. |
| C. Cash Returns | III. Balance between flexibility and consistency. |
| D. Accounting Returns | IV. Relatively consistent. |
Answer: (C) a- III, b- II, c- IV, d- I
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| a. Mercantilism | I. The range of products made or grown for export would depend upon the relative availability of different factors in each country. |
| b. Theory of Absolute Advantage | II. Gold and silver are the mainstay of national wealth. |
| c. Theory of Comparative Advantage | III. Countries should specialize in the production of goods for which they have absolute advantage. |
| d. Factor Endowment | IV. Nations should produce those goods for which they have the greatest relative advantage. |
Answer: (C) a- II, b- III, c- IV, d- I
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| a. Acquire synergistic product/market position. | I. Use borrowing capacity and other financial strengths to achieve an immediate performance premium. |
| b. Acquire a company with under-utilized financial strength. | II. Anticipate shortages and price increases in the physical assets' value. Invest to exploit the resource, using distribution capacity. |
| c. Acquire an under-skilled company in a related industry. | III. Achieve scale economies of distribution, production and technology. |
| d. Acquire an underexploited physical asset. | IV. Apply superior marketing, technology and production expertise to enhance the competitive position and performance of the acquisition candidate. |
Answer: (A) a- III, b- I, c- IV, d- II
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| a. Problem Impact Queen | I. How much inventory of the product do you carry? |
| b. Problem discovery question | II. Have you experienced any delays in getting those materials from your current suppliers? |
| c. Solution value question | III. What effects do the delays in receiving the materials have on your production costs? |
| d. Situational question | IV. If the rejection rate on your quality inspection is reduced to under 1%., how much would that save you? |
Answer: (D) a- III, b- II, c- IV, d- I
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| a. Crashing an activity | I. Length of the longest path through the project network. |
| b. Project Network | II. It shows the time and cost when the activity is fully crashed. |
| c. Critical path | III. It consists of a number of nodes and a number of arcs that connects two different nodes. |
| d. Crash point | IV. Taking special (costly) measures to reduce the duration of an activity below its normal value. |
Answer: (B) a- IV, b- III, c- I, d- II
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| a. Von Krogh and Roos | I. Sense-making |
| b. Wiig | II. Semantic Network |
| c. Monaka and Takeuchi | III. Organisational epistemology |
| d. Choo and Weick | IV. Spiralling |
Answer: (C) a- III, b- II, c- IV, d- I
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| a. Bamoul (2002) | I. Innovating firms are more profitable than the non-innovators. |
| b. Geroski et.el. (1993) and Leiponen (2000) | II. Entrepreneur is a marriage broker between what is desirable from an economic point of view and what is profitable from technological point of view. |
| c. Timmons and Spinelli (2007) | III. Entrepreneurship is a way of thinking, reasoning and acting that is opportunity obsessed, holistic in approach and leadership balanced. |
| d. Burton Klein (1917) | IV. In free market economies, innovation is a necessity if a firm wants to survive. |
Answer: (A) a- IV, b- I, c- III, d- II
Explanation
Arrange the following steps of developing an organizational structure in sequence.
a. Enumerate and group the activities of the enterprise consistent with the determined objectives.
b. Assign the grouped activities to personnel. Similar functions should be combined into one
position.
c. Clearly define the objectives to determine the type, stability and basic characteristics of the
organization.
d. Determine the span of supervision, the types of organization, the basis of departmentation and
pattern of authority structure.
e. Assess the capacities and abilities of human and other resources at the disposal of enterprise.
Adapt the organization in sync with the reality.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (A) c, a, b, d, e
Explanation
Arrange the following steps of Strategic Human Resource Management in the logical
sequence.
a. Improve participative management.
b. To promote teamwork.
c. Shift focus from statutory participation to total participation.
d. Achieve group cohesiveness by inculcating participative management.
e. To achieve excellence in human resource management.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (B) e, b, d, a, c
Explanation
Sequence the following steps in the preparation of a versatile and seasoned business plan.
a. Industry and market analysis.
b. Operations, marketing plan and financing.
c. Company and management team profiling.
d. Risk and contingency analysis.
e. Executive summary.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (C) e, c, a, b, d
Explanation
Arrange the following in the increasing (higher) order of employee participation in decision-
making.
a. Joint management councils.
b. Workers' representative in the board.
c. Works Committees.
d. Workers' participation in management.
e. Workers' share in equity.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (D) c, a, d, e, b
Explanation
Following are the steps followed by finance manager in procurement of a loan for working
capital. Arrange them in a proper sequence.
a. Co-ordinating the verification of assets
b. Submission of loan proposal
c. Estimation of Working Capital Requirements
d. Creation of charge on Assets
e. Document Execution
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (B) c, b, a, e, d
Explanation
Identify the correct sequence of activities involved in the process of buy back of shares.
a. Letter of offer to the shareholders.
b. Opening of bank account.
c. Approval for Extra-ordinary General Meeting.
d. Convening board meeting.
e. Declaration of Solvency.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (C) d, c, e, a, b
Explanation
Arrange the following steps of six sigma process in a sequence.
a. Discover variation relationship for the vital variables and establish operating tolerances on each
of the vital variables.
b. Validate measurement system, methods and procedures, establish the current processes'
capability.
c. Validate the measurement system's ability to produce repeatable data; determine the capability
of the process to control the vital variables, implement statistical process control on the vital
variables.
d. Select the critical-to-quality characteristics and define the required performance standards.
e. Define upper and lower performance limits; identify sources of variation; screen potential
causes of variation to identify the vital variables needing control.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (D) d, b, e, a, c
Explanation
Arrange the following steps of personal selling process in a sequence.
a. Making an appointment with customer to establish rapport.
b. Gathering relevant information about the prospects and their needs to plan sales presentation.
c. Handling customer's objections related to price/value/functionality of the product.
d. Discovering, clarifying and understanding the buyer's needs.
e. Gaining buyer's commitment to action.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (C) b, a, d, c, e
Explanation
Sequence the following in order to eliminate waste and inefficiencies in the lean
manufacturing.
a. Seiso
b. Shitsuke
c. Seiri
d. Seiketsu
e. Seiton
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (D) c, e, a, d, b
Explanation
Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in decision making for change of technology.
a. Conducting initial comparisons of alternative technologies.
b. Evaluating the state of present technology.
c. Listing down the probable post implementation issues.
d. Financial feasibility analysis of proposed technology.
e. Identifying the learning requirements.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (B) b, a, e, d, c
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: When I say that I like my organization, I am expressing an attitude towards my
organization.
Statement II: We can control our behaviour in a way that does not reflect our beliefs and values.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
One is labelled as Assertion 'A' and the other is labelled as Reason 'R'.
Assertion (A): The objective functions in business organizations are complex requiring the
processing of large volume of data.
Reason (R): AI based non-linear models can solve the problems of arriving at a dynamic solution
to business problems.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
Answer: (B) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The product of two regression co-efficient, bxy and byx equals r 2 and cannot exceed
1.
Statement II: The average of two regression coefficients ((bxy+byx)/2) is always greater than the
correlation coefficient, rxy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion (A): If the securities with less than perfect negative correlation between their price
movements are combined, portfolio risk can be reduced significantly.
Reason (R): The term with negative correlation has the effect of reducing the computed value of
total portfolio risk, given other terms that are positive.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
Answer: (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
One is labelled as Assertion 'A' and the other is labelled as Reason 'R'.
Assertion (A): Entrepreneurship has emerged as a focal point of policy in the majority of
countries.
Reason (R): Entrepreneurship contributes to job generation, innovation and promotes social
cohesion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
Answer: (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
There has been much froth and foam across rooms and boardrooms regarding the ethics, legality
and appropriateness of the practice of working for one organization while also taking up extra
responsibilities and jobs with another. As a trend, it is becoming commonplace in the IT and ITeS
space. This is welcome. It makes sense to encourage more flexibility to employees if these firms
want to move up the value chain. So, employers should accept the reality and use it to their
advantage.
But genuine concerns against 'side-hustles' must be addressed. During the pandemic, the IT sector
swiftly adapted to work from home (WFH), and professionals furthered their professional
practice. Many preferred continuing WFH. But that raised the suspicion of many employers about
workers taking up a second job to earn more. Meanwhile, a sharp rise in demand for IT
professionals with new skills, and their shortage, widened the demand supply gap. Those who
could not cope with the expectations - at the entry or middle levels - were fired. But the gig
economy provides choices and added competition to both employer and employee. Trust is a core
issue. Conflicts of interest and intellectual property rights violations are non-negotiable. Other
aspects - fatigue impacting productivity, short-term vs long-term engagements in two jobs, skill
acquisition, difficulty in monitoring beyond delivery of a defined output, the challenge to
objectively measure output for a given compensation, peer-pressure, industry trends in
employment contracts - also influence the attitude towards moonlighting.
But IT professionals can't be treated as captives. The industry must set the bar for high
performance and productivity, yet in trusted working conditions that rewards fairly and
recognizes performance and skills in a transparent way. A fair and broad-based definition of
moonlighting must be included in the employment contract. A sound HR policy anchored in
ethical management principles will ensure that there is no need to howl at moonlighting.
The practice of working for one organization while also taking up extra responsibilities and job
with another requires:
a. Trust
b. Conflict of interest
c. Stagnation of employee growth
d. Employees adding limited value to their parent organization
e. Intellectual property rights
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer: (A) a, b, e only
Explanation
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
There has been much froth and foam across rooms and boardrooms regarding the ethics, legality
and appropriateness of the practice of working for one organization while also taking up extra
responsibilities and jobs with another. As a trend, it is becoming commonplace in the IT and ITeS
space. This is welcome. It makes sense to encourage more flexibility to employees if these firms
want to move up the value chain. So, employers should accept the reality and use it to their
advantage.
But genuine concerns against 'side-hustles' must be addressed. During the pandemic, the IT sector
swiftly adapted to work from home (WFH), and professionals furthered their professional
practice. Many preferred continuing WFH. But that raised the suspicion of many employers about
workers taking up a second job to earn more. Meanwhile, a sharp rise in demand for IT
professionals with new skills, and their shortage, widened the demand supply gap. Those who
could not cope with the expectations - at the entry or middle levels - were fired. But the gig
economy provides choices and added competition to both employer and employee. Trust is a core
issue. Conflicts of interest and intellectual property rights violations are non-negotiable. Other
aspects - fatigue impacting productivity, short-term vs long-term engagements in two jobs, skill
acquisition, difficulty in monitoring beyond delivery of a defined output, the challenge to
objectively measure output for a given compensation, peer-pressure, industry trends in
employment contracts - also influence the attitude towards moonlighting.
But IT professionals can't be treated as captives. The industry must set the bar for high
performance and productivity, yet in trusted working conditions that rewards fairly and
recognizes performance and skills in a transparent way. A fair and broad-based definition of
moonlighting must be included in the employment contract. A sound HR policy anchored in
ethical management principles will ensure that there is no need to howl at moonlighting.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The practice of moonlighting is increasing because IT professionals are not being
rewarded fairly.
Statement II: The contents of employee contract have precisely defined the moonlighting.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Explanation
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
There has been much froth and foam across rooms and boardrooms regarding the ethics, legality
and appropriateness of the practice of working for one organization while also taking up extra
responsibilities and jobs with another. As a trend, it is becoming commonplace in the IT and ITeS
space. This is welcome. It makes sense to encourage more flexibility to employees if these firms
want to move up the value chain. So, employers should accept the reality and use it to their
advantage.
But genuine concerns against 'side-hustles' must be addressed. During the pandemic, the IT sector
swiftly adapted to work from home (WFH), and professionals furthered their professional
practice. Many preferred continuing WFH. But that raised the suspicion of many employers about
workers taking up a second job to earn more. Meanwhile, a sharp rise in demand for IT
professionals with new skills, and their shortage, widened the demand supply gap. Those who
could not cope with the expectations - at the entry or middle levels - were fired. But the gig
economy provides choices and added competition to both employer and employee. Trust is a core
issue. Conflicts of interest and intellectual property rights violations are non-negotiable. Other
aspects - fatigue impacting productivity, short-term vs long-term engagements in two jobs, skill
acquisition, difficulty in monitoring beyond delivery of a defined output, the challenge to
objectively measure output for a given compensation, peer-pressure, industry trends in
employment contracts - also influence the attitude towards moonlighting.
But IT professionals can't be treated as captives. The industry must set the bar for high
performance and productivity, yet in trusted working conditions that rewards fairly and
recognizes performance and skills in a transparent way. A fair and broad-based definition of
moonlighting must be included in the employment contract. A sound HR policy anchored in
ethical management principles will ensure that there is no need to howl at moonlighting.
As per the given passage, those employees who could not meet the skill gap were:
Answer: (D) Discharged
Explanation
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
There has been much froth and foam across rooms and boardrooms regarding the ethics, legality
and appropriateness of the practice of working for one organization while also taking up extra
responsibilities and jobs with another. As a trend, it is becoming commonplace in the IT and ITeS
space. This is welcome. It makes sense to encourage more flexibility to employees if these firms
want to move up the value chain. So, employers should accept the reality and use it to their
advantage.
But genuine concerns against 'side-hustles' must be addressed. During the pandemic, the IT sector
swiftly adapted to work from home (WFH), and professionals furthered their professional
practice. Many preferred continuing WFH. But that raised the suspicion of many employers about
workers taking up a second job to earn more. Meanwhile, a sharp rise in demand for IT
professionals with new skills, and their shortage, widened the demand supply gap. Those who
could not cope with the expectations - at the entry or middle levels - were fired. But the gig
economy provides choices and added competition to both employer and employee. Trust is a core
issue. Conflicts of interest and intellectual property rights violations are non-negotiable. Other
aspects - fatigue impacting productivity, short-term vs long-term engagements in two jobs, skill
acquisition, difficulty in monitoring beyond delivery of a defined output, the challenge to
objectively measure output for a given compensation, peer-pressure, industry trends in
employment contracts - also influence the attitude towards moonlighting.
But IT professionals can't be treated as captives. The industry must set the bar for high
performance and productivity, yet in trusted working conditions that rewards fairly and
recognizes performance and skills in a transparent way. A fair and broad-based definition of
moonlighting must be included in the employment contract. A sound HR policy anchored in
ethical management principles will ensure that there is no need to howl at moonlighting.
Moonlighting encourages:
a. Commitment for the organization.
b. Flexibility to employees.
c. Adding skills.
d. Employee turnover rate.
e. Work from home.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Codes
Answer: (D) b, c, e only
Explanation
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
There has been much froth and foam across rooms and boardrooms regarding the ethics, legality
and appropriateness of the practice of working for one organization while also taking up extra
responsibilities and jobs with another. As a trend, it is becoming commonplace in the IT and ITeS
space. This is welcome. It makes sense to encourage more flexibility to employees if these firms
want to move up the value chain. So, employers should accept the reality and use it to their
advantage.
But genuine concerns against 'side-hustles' must be addressed. During the pandemic, the IT sector
swiftly adapted to work from home (WFH), and professionals furthered their professional
practice. Many preferred continuing WFH. But that raised the suspicion of many employers about
workers taking up a second job to earn more. Meanwhile, a sharp rise in demand for IT
professionals with new skills, and their shortage, widened the demand supply gap. Those who
could not cope with the expectations - at the entry or middle levels - were fired. But the gig
economy provides choices and added competition to both employer and employee. Trust is a core
issue. Conflicts of interest and intellectual property rights violations are non-negotiable. Other
aspects - fatigue impacting productivity, short-term vs long-term engagements in two jobs, skill
acquisition, difficulty in monitoring beyond delivery of a defined output, the challenge to
objectively measure output for a given compensation, peer-pressure, industry trends in
employment contracts - also influence the attitude towards moonlighting.
But IT professionals can't be treated as captives. The industry must set the bar for high
performance and productivity, yet in trusted working conditions that rewards fairly and
recognizes performance and skills in a transparent way. A fair and broad-based definition of
moonlighting must be included in the employment contract. A sound HR policy anchored in
ethical management principles will ensure that there is no need to howl at moonlighting.
The practice of 'moonlighting' is:
Answer: (C) Adds value to the organization.
Explanation
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Indian aviation will fly out of pandemic-induced fare bands with some of its heaviest losses
behind it. Indian fliers have also been through a bout of technical glitches that the authorities have
traced back to aircraft not having enough certifying manpower and flying with the minimum
permissible list of defective equipment. A strong festive demand could reverse the sequential
declines in air travel during the ongoing lean season. The removal of airfare caps coincides with a
recent softening of jet fuel prices which, however, remain elevated. Freedom to pass on the
biggest cost component to fliers should improve the financial metrics of airlines. One is keeping
one's fingers crossed and seat belts buckled.
The industry is witnessing a round of capital infusion that also affects the competitive intensity.
The Tatas are consolidating the splintered market share of the group's various airlines, and
SpiceJet is considering a stake sale to raise funds. Market leader Indigo expects its strong revenue
performance will lead it back into profits soon. Although the industry's air traffic yields have
surpassed pre-pandemic levels, fuel costs and a declining rupee could subdue earnings. Newly
opened up foreign routes are likely to witness stiff competition. Tire launch of Akasa Air and
resumption of operations by Jet Airways will increase demand for airline employees. Air India is
restoring salaries to pre-Covid levels.
Industry-wide losses are expected to fall sharply this year as Indian aviation enters another phase
of growth. India is among the fastest growing aviation markets in the world and has a lot of
catching up to do in terms of the size of its commercial aircraft fleet. Given the country's traffic
growth projections, Indian airlines are likely to acquire more clout as aircraft buyers. The
government, on its part, has a high budget for decongesting airports and is encouraging the
development of the domestic aircraft maintenance industry. As India's airlines fly out of the
current cloud bank, sunny skies await.
The factor adversely affecting Indian aviation is:
Answer: (C) Declining value of rupee against US dollar.
Explanation
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Indian aviation will fly out of pandemic-induced fare bands with some of its heaviest losses
behind it. Indian fliers have also been through a bout of technical glitches that the authorities have
traced back to aircraft not having enough certifying manpower and flying with the minimum
permissible list of defective equipment. A strong festive demand could reverse the sequential
declines in air travel during the ongoing lean season. The removal of airfare caps coincides with a
recent softening of jet fuel prices which, however, remain elevated. Freedom to pass on the
biggest cost component to fliers should improve the financial metrics of airlines. One is keeping
one's fingers crossed and seat belts buckled.
The industry is witnessing a round of capital infusion that also affects the competitive intensity.
The Tatas are consolidating the splintered market share of the group's various airlines, and
SpiceJet is considering a stake sale to raise funds. Market leader Indigo expects its strong revenue
performance will lead it back into profits soon. Although the industry's air traffic yields have
surpassed pre-pandemic levels, fuel costs and a declining rupee could subdue earnings. Newly
opened up foreign routes are likely to witness stiff competition. Tire launch of Akasa Air and
resumption of operations by Jet Airways will increase demand for airline employees. Air India is
restoring salaries to pre-Covid levels.
Industry-wide losses are expected to fall sharply this year as Indian aviation enters another phase
of growth. India is among the fastest growing aviation markets in the world and has a lot of
catching up to do in terms of the size of its commercial aircraft fleet. Given the country's traffic
growth projections, Indian airlines are likely to acquire more clout as aircraft buyers. The
government, on its part, has a high budget for decongesting airports and is encouraging the
development of the domestic aircraft maintenance industry. As India's airlines fly out of the
current cloud bank, sunny skies await.
The future of Indian aviation industry is likely to be:
Answer: (A) Favourable
Explanation
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Indian aviation will fly out of pandemic-induced fare bands with some of its heaviest losses
behind it. Indian fliers have also been through a bout of technical glitches that the authorities have
traced back to aircraft not having enough certifying manpower and flying with the minimum
permissible list of defective equipment. A strong festive demand could reverse the sequential
declines in air travel during the ongoing lean season. The removal of airfare caps coincides with a
recent softening of jet fuel prices which, however, remain elevated. Freedom to pass on the
biggest cost component to fliers should improve the financial metrics of airlines. One is keeping
one's fingers crossed and seat belts buckled.
The industry is witnessing a round of capital infusion that also affects the competitive intensity.
The Tatas are consolidating the splintered market share of the group's various airlines, and
SpiceJet is considering a stake sale to raise funds. Market leader Indigo expects its strong revenue
performance will lead it back into profits soon. Although the industry's air traffic yields have
surpassed pre-pandemic levels, fuel costs and a declining rupee could subdue earnings. Newly
opened up foreign routes are likely to witness stiff competition. Tire launch of Akasa Air and
resumption of operations by Jet Airways will increase demand for airline employees. Air India is
restoring salaries to pre-Covid levels.
Industry-wide losses are expected to fall sharply this year as Indian aviation enters another phase
of growth. India is among the fastest growing aviation markets in the world and has a lot of
catching up to do in terms of the size of its commercial aircraft fleet. Given the country's traffic
growth projections, Indian airlines are likely to acquire more clout as aircraft buyers. The
government, on its part, has a high budget for decongesting airports and is encouraging the
development of the domestic aircraft maintenance industry. As India's airlines fly out of the
current cloud bank, sunny skies await.
Given below are two statements:
One is labelled as Assertion 'A' and the other is labelled as Reason 'R'.
Assertion (A): Pandemic is not the only reason for the losses in the aviation industry.
Reason (R): Large number of technical reasons have resulted into the cancellation of flights.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
Answer: (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Indian aviation will fly out of pandemic-induced fare bands with some of its heaviest losses
behind it. Indian fliers have also been through a bout of technical glitches that the authorities have
traced back to aircraft not having enough certifying manpower and flying with the minimum
permissible list of defective equipment. A strong festive demand could reverse the sequential
declines in air travel during the ongoing lean season. The removal of airfare caps coincides with a
recent softening of jet fuel prices which, however, remain elevated. Freedom to pass on the
biggest cost component to fliers should improve the financial metrics of airlines. One is keeping
one's fingers crossed and seat belts buckled.
The industry is witnessing a round of capital infusion that also affects the competitive intensity.
The Tatas are consolidating the splintered market share of the group's various airlines, and
SpiceJet is considering a stake sale to raise funds. Market leader Indigo expects its strong revenue
performance will lead it back into profits soon. Although the industry's air traffic yields have
surpassed pre-pandemic levels, fuel costs and a declining rupee could subdue earnings. Newly
opened up foreign routes are likely to witness stiff competition. Tire launch of Akasa Air and
resumption of operations by Jet Airways will increase demand for airline employees. Air India is
restoring salaries to pre-Covid levels.
Industry-wide losses are expected to fall sharply this year as Indian aviation enters another phase
of growth. India is among the fastest growing aviation markets in the world and has a lot of
catching up to do in terms of the size of its commercial aircraft fleet. Given the country's traffic
growth projections, Indian airlines are likely to acquire more clout as aircraft buyers. The
government, on its part, has a high budget for decongesting airports and is encouraging the
development of the domestic aircraft maintenance industry. As India's airlines fly out of the
current cloud bank, sunny skies await.
Which one of the following will impair the competitive intensity of the industry?
Answer: (A) Capital infusion.
Explanation
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Indian aviation will fly out of pandemic-induced fare bands with some of its heaviest losses
behind it. Indian fliers have also been through a bout of technical glitches that the authorities have
traced back to aircraft not having enough certifying manpower and flying with the minimum
permissible list of defective equipment. A strong festive demand could reverse the sequential
declines in air travel during the ongoing lean season. The removal of airfare caps coincides with a
recent softening of jet fuel prices which, however, remain elevated. Freedom to pass on the
biggest cost component to fliers should improve the financial metrics of airlines. One is keeping
one's fingers crossed and seat belts buckled.
The industry is witnessing a round of capital infusion that also affects the competitive intensity.
The Tatas are consolidating the splintered market share of the group's various airlines, and
SpiceJet is considering a stake sale to raise funds. Market leader Indigo expects its strong revenue
performance will lead it back into profits soon. Although the industry's air traffic yields have
surpassed pre-pandemic levels, fuel costs and a declining rupee could subdue earnings. Newly
opened up foreign routes are likely to witness stiff competition. Tire launch of Akasa Air and
resumption of operations by Jet Airways will increase demand for airline employees. Air India is
restoring salaries to pre-Covid levels.
Industry-wide losses are expected to fall sharply this year as Indian aviation enters another phase
of growth. India is among the fastest growing aviation markets in the world and has a lot of
catching up to do in terms of the size of its commercial aircraft fleet. Given the country's traffic
growth projections, Indian airlines are likely to acquire more clout as aircraft buyers. The
government, on its part, has a high budget for decongesting airports and is encouraging the
development of the domestic aircraft maintenance industry. As India's airlines fly out of the
current cloud bank, sunny skies await.
Which of the following are the initiatives taken by the Government to promote aviation industry?
a. Big budget for decongesting airports.
b. Encouraging domestic aircraft maintenance industry.
c. Capital infusion to expand capacity.
d. Reducing the permissible list of defective equipment.
e. Removal of airfare caps.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer: (B) a, b, e only
Explanation
Paper 1 had 50 questions and Paper 2 (Management) had 100 questions, for 150 in total across 3 hours.
No. Each correct answer earns 2 marks and there is no penalty for a wrong answer, so leaving a question blank is never better than attempting it.
Answers follow the official NTA answer key for this session. If you spot a discrepancy, use the report option inside the practice test and we will review it.
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