Paper 2 — Management · June 2, 2024

100 questions with the answer key and explanations.

Question 1
Which among the following characteristics influence consumer buying behaviour strongly?
A. Cultural
B. Social
C. Personal
D. Psychological
E. Technological

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, C and D Only
2. BA, B, D, and E only
3. CB, C, D and E only
4. DA, C, D and E only
Answer: (A) A, B, C and D Only
Explanation
✅ Correct answer: A, B, C and D Only ✅ Explanation: The four major factors that influence consumer buying behaviour are: 🔹 A. Cultural Factors – ✅ Culture, subculture, and social class shape preferences and behaviors. 🔹 B. Social Factors – ✅ Reference groups, family, roles, and status affect consumer decisions. 🔹 C. Personal Factors – ✅ Age, lifestyle, occupation, economic status, personality, and self-concept. 🔹 D. Psychological Factors – ✅ Motivation, perception, learning, beliefs, and attitudes. ❌ E. Technological – While technology affects marketing and product development, it is not classified as a primary psychological or sociological influence on individual consumer behavior in classical consumer behavior theory. It is considered more of an external environmental force, not a core influence category. ✅ Final Answer: A, B, C and D Only.
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Question 2
Find the initial feasible solution of the following transportation problem by Vogel's Approximation Method (VAM).
From / To W1 W2 W3 Supply
F1 16 20 12 200
F2 14 8 18 160
F3 26 24 16 100
Demand 180 130 150 460
1. A₹6060
2. B₹6660
3. C₹6000
4. D₹6600
Answer: (A) ₹6060
Explanation
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Question 3
Arrange the following components of a cost sheet in proper sequence starting from first to last.
A. Cost of sale
B. Cost of production
C. Raw material consumed
D. Factory cost
E. Prime cost

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AC, D, E, B, A
2. BA, B, C, D, E
3. CC, E, D, B, A
4. DC, D, E, A, B
Answer: (D) C, D, E, A, B
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: C, E, D, B, A ✅ Explanation: The correct sequence of components in a cost sheet from first to last is: C. Raw Material Consumed This is the starting point for calculating direct costs. E. Prime Cost Prime Cost = Direct Materials (Raw Material Consumed) + Direct Labour + Direct Expenses. D. Factory Cost Also called Works Cost = Prime Cost + Factory/Manufacturing Overheads. B. Cost of Production Factory Cost + Administrative Overheads related to production. A. Cost of Sale Cost of Production + Selling & Distribution Overheads (after adjusting for opening/closing stock of finished goods). ✅ Final Answer: C, E, D, B, A
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Question 4
Arrange the following Buyer-Readiness stages in correct sequence from starting to end.
A. Knowledge
B. Awareness
C. Preference
D. Conviction
E. Liking

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AB, E, A, C, D
2. BB, A, E, C, D
3. CA, B, C, D, E
4. DE, A, B, D, C
Answer: (A) B, E, A, C, D
Explanation
✅ Correct answer: B, A, E, C, D ✅ Explanation: The Buyer-Readiness Stages refer to the mental stages a prospective customer goes through before making a purchase decision. The typical sequence is: B. Awareness – The buyer becomes aware of the product or brand. A. Knowledge – The buyer learns more about the product features and benefits. E. Liking – The buyer develops a favorable attitude or interest toward the product. C. Preference – The buyer prefers the product over competing offerings. D. Conviction – The buyer decides firmly that they want the product and is ready to act. This is a psychological funnel that helps marketers design communication strategies based on where the customer stands in their readiness to purchase. ✅ Final Answer: B, A, E, C, D.
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Question 5
Which of the following are settlement machineries of industrial disputes under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
A. Works Committee
B. Collective Bargaining
C. Conciliation
D. Adjudication
E. Voluntary Arbitration

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AB, C, D, and E Only
2. BA, C, D, and E Only
3. CA, B, C, and D Only
4. DC, A, and D Only
Answer: (B) A, C, D, and E Only
Explanation
✅Correct answer: A, C, D, and E Only ✅ Explanation:The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 provides various machineries for the settlement of industrial disputes. These mechanisms aim to promote industrial peace and resolve conflicts between employers and employees. The official settlement machineries under the Act include: A. Works Committee:Formed in establishments with 100 or more workers to promote harmony and resolve day-to-day issues.✅ Yes, it is a statutory settlement machinery. C. Conciliation:A formal process conducted by Conciliation Officers or Boards to mediate between parties.✅ Included under the Act. D. Adjudication:Refers to dispute resolution by Labour Courts, Industrial Tribunals, or National Tribunals.✅ A major legal machinery under the Act. E. Voluntary Arbitration:Allows parties to refer disputes to an arbitrator by mutual consent, with legal backing under Section 10A.✅ Recognized under the Act. ❌ Why the other option is incorrect: B. Collective Bargaining:This is a negotiation process between employer and employees (usually via unions), not a formal statutory machinery under the Industrial Disputes Act.❌ Not considered a statutory dispute settlement machinery, though it’s a means of preventing disputes. ✅ Final Answer: A, C, D, and E Only.
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Question 6
“The right that is delegated to an individual or department to control specified processes, practices, policies, or other matters relating to activities undertaken by persons in other departments” is called:
1. AService authority
2. BProduct authority
3. CTemporary authority
4. DFunctional authority
Answer: (B) Product authority
Explanation
✅Correct answer: Functional authority Unit I: Business Management and Managerial Economics Topic: Organization Structure and Design: Authority 📖 Explanation: This question tests your knowledge of types of authority in organizations. The key phrase is: “The right that is delegated to an individual or department to control specified processes, practices, policies, or other matters relating to activities undertaken by persons in other departments.” This is the standard definition of Functional Authority Example: An HR Manager may have authority over recruitment policies across all departments, or a Safety Officer may enforce safety procedures throughout the organization. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Product authority Reason: Refers to authority over a specific product or product line, not over functions or activities across departments. Temporary authority Reason: Refers to authority granted for a limited period and is not the concept described in the question. Service authority Reason: Refers to advisory or support services and does not involve controlling activities in other departments. ✅ Final Answer: Functional authority.
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Question 7
Which of the following helps in Business decision making in an ill-structured decision situation, often using a complex spreadsheet by creating “what if” models for the manager?
1. ADecision Support System (DSS)
2. BManagement Information System (MIS)
3. CExecutive Support System (ESS)
4. DKnowledge Work System (KWS)
Answer: (B) Management Information System (MIS)
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: Decision Support System (DSS) 📘 Explanation: A Decision Support System (DSS) is designed to help managers make decisions in ill-structured or semi-structured situations, where problems are complex and not routine. DSS often uses tools like complex spreadsheets and “what-if” models to simulate different scenarios and analyze potential outcomes, supporting better decision-making. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Management Information System (MIS): Primarily focuses on providing routine, structured information and reports to manage operations efficiently but does not handle complex or unstructured decision scenarios. Knowledge Work System (KWS): Supports knowledge workers in creating and integrating new knowledge but is not primarily focused on decision-making with what-if analysis. Executive Support System (ESS): Provides senior executives with summarized information and easy access to external and internal data, usually for strategic decisions, but less focused on interactive “what-if” modeling. ✅ Final Answer: Decision Support System (DSS)
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Question 8
When we measure, what type of demand we assume that effects of other variables are constant?
1. AAll the options are correct
2. BGross elasticity of demand
3. CRevenue and price elasticity of demand
4. DPromotional elasticity of demand
Answer: (C) Revenue and price elasticity of demand
Explanation
✅ Correct answer: All the options are correct. Unit I: Business Management and Managerial Economics Topic: Demand analysis: Elasticity 📖 Explanation: The ceteris paribus assumption — “all other things remaining constant” — is not exclusive to any one type of elasticity. It is a universal assumption applied across all types of elasticity measurement. Whenever we measure how demand responds to a change in any one variable, we must hold all other influencing variables constant to isolate the effect of that single variable. Price elasticity of demand — measures demand response to price change, holding income, tastes, and other prices constant. Income elasticity of demand — measures demand response to income change, holding price, tastes, and promotions constant. Gross (Cross) elasticity of demand — measures demand response to price change of a related good, holding all other variables constant. Promotional elasticity of demand — measures demand response to advertising spend change, holding price, income, and other variables constant. Every elasticity measure is built on this ceteris paribus foundation — it is the bedrock assumption of demand analysis. ✅ Final Answer: All the options are correct.
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Question 9

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I: Macro-level organisational stressors	List-II: Causative factor in organisation
A. Rotating work shifts	I. Organisational structure and design
B. Line-staff conflicts	II. Administrative policies and strategies
C. Appraisal system	III. Working conditions
D. Polluted air	IV. Organisational process

AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
BA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
CA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
DA-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

Answer: (C) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Explanation

Question 10
Which one of the following is NOT a component of Balance of Payments?
1. ADeficit Account
2. BOfficial Reserves Account
3. CCurrent Account
4. DCapital Account
Answer: (C) Current Account
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: Deficit Account 📘 Explanation: The Balance of Payments (BOP) is a systematic record of all economic transactions between residents of a country and the rest of the world. It consists mainly of: Current Account: Records trade in goods and services, income, and current transfers. Capital Account: Records capital transfers and acquisition/disposal of non-produced, non-financial assets. Financial Account: Tracks investment flows (not listed here but part of BOP). Official Reserves Account: Shows changes in a country’s reserves of foreign currency and gold held by the central bank. There is no specific “Deficit Account” in the Balance of Payments. The term “deficit” refers to when the BOP or one of its components is negative, but it is not an account itself. ✅ Final Answer: Deficit Account
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Question 11
Which among the following are true about World Trade Organisation (WTO)?
A. The WTO is a simple extension of General Agreement of Tariffs and Trade (GATT)
B. The WTO is a permanent institution with its own secretariat
C. The agreements which constitute the WTO are almost all plurilateral and thus involve commitments for the entire members
D. The WTO includes Trade in Services and trade-related aspects of intellectual property rights
E. The WTO dispute settlement system is faster, more automatic and thus much less susceptible to blockages, than old GATT system

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AB, C, and D Only
2. BA, B, and C Only
3. CC, D, and E Only
4. DB, D, and E Only
Answer: (A) B, C, and D Only
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: B, D, and E Only 📘 Explanation: B. True: The WTO is a permanent institution with its own secretariat based in Geneva. This is a key difference from GATT, which was a provisional agreement without a permanent organization. D. True: The WTO covers not only trade in goods but also trade in services (GATS) and trade-related intellectual property rights (TRIPS), expanding its scope beyond GATT. E. True: The WTO dispute settlement system is known to be faster, more automatic, and less vulnerable to blockages compared to the GATT system, improving enforcement of trade rules. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: A. False: The WTO is not just a simple extension of GATT. It replaced GATT with a broader and more robust organization. C. False: The agreements constituting the WTO are mostly multilateral, not plurilateral (which involve only some members). Multilateral agreements require commitments from all members. ✅ Final Answer: B, D, and E Only
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Question 12
“Dividing a market into smaller segments of buyers with distinct needs, characteristics, or behaviours that might require separate marketing strategies or mixes” is termed as?
1. AMarket Segmentation
2. BMarket Positioning
3. CMarket Differentiation
4. DMarket Targeting
Answer: (B) Market Positioning
Explanation
✅ Correct answer: Market Segmentation ✅ Explanation: The definition provided in the question is a textbook definition of Market Segmentation: “Dividing a market into smaller segments of buyers with distinct needs, characteristics, or behaviours that might require separate marketing strategies or mixes.” Market segmentation helps marketers: Identify specific groups of customers Tailor marketing strategies to fit each group Increase marketing efficiency and effectiveness ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Market Targeting – ❌ This is the next step after segmentation, where the firm selects which segment(s) to serve. Market Differentiation – ❌ This refers to differentiating a product to make it stand out from competitors. Market Positioning – ❌ This is about how the product is perceived in the minds of target consumers. ✅ Final Answer: Market Segmentation.
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Question 13

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I: Derivative type	List-II: Their explanation
A. Call option	I. Agreement to buy or sell an asset on a specific date at a specified price; settlement occurs at the end of the period.
B. Put option	II. Agreement to buy or sell an asset at a future time at a stated price through standardised contracts traded on a stock exchange.
C. Futures contract	III. Contract giving the holder the right, but not the obligation, to buy specified securities at an exercise date.
D. Forward contract	IV. Contract giving the holder the right, but not the obligation, to sell securities on or by a stated date at a fixed exercise price.

AA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
BA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
CA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
DA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Answer: (D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Explanation

Question 14
Which of the following are correct with respect to foreign exchange market?
A. Short position = Supply of a currency < demand for currency
B. Short position = Supply of a currency > demand for currency.
C. Long position = Supply of a currency > demand for currency.
D. Long position = Supply of a currency < demand for currency.
E. Square position = Supply of a currency = demand for currency.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, D and E Only
2. BB, C and E Only
3. CB, D and E Only
4. DA, C and E Only
Answer: (A) A, D and E Only
Explanation
✅Correct answer: B, D and E Only ✅ Explanation: Golden Rule: Going long means you profit when the price/demand goes up in the future, while going short means you profit when the price/demand goes down in the future. Let us understand this in the context of foreign exchange market, In Foreign exchange market, positions are determined based on the relationship between the demand and supply of a currency held by a dealer or bank. A short position would mean that the price/demand of the item should go down in the future. So, if the demand goes down in the future, the supply would be high compared to demand. A. Short position = Supply of a currency < demand for currency → ❌Wrong. B. Short position = Supply of a currency > demand for currency →✅ Correct. A Long position would mean that the price/demand of the item should go up in the future. So, if the demand goes down in the up, the supply would be lower compared to demand. C. Long position = Supply of a currency > demand for currency. → ❌Wrong D. Long position = Supply of a currency < demand for currency → ✅Correct. In a square position, purchases and sales of currency are equal, so there is no net exposure. E. Square position = Supply of a currency = demand for currency →✅ Correct. ✅ Final Answer: B, D and E Only
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Question 15

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I: Pricing situation	List-II: Description
A. Product-line pricing	I. Pricing optional or accessory products sold with the main product
B. Optional-product pricing	II. Setting prices across an entire product line
C. Captive-product pricing	III. Pricing low-value by-products to get rid of them or make money from them
D. By-product pricing	IV. Pricing products that must be used with the main product

AA-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
BA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
CA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
DA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Answer: (C) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Explanation

Question 16
Prepaid salary is which type of account?
1. ANominal Account
2. BPersonal Account
3. CBoth Personal and Real Account
4. DReal Account
Answer: (A) Nominal Account
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: Personal Account ✅ Explanation: Prepaid salary is classified as a personal account because it represents an amount owed to the employee, and personal accounts typically deal with entities like individuals, organizations, or creditors. In accounting, prepaid salary is considered an asset, as it represents an advance payment for salary that will be expensed over time. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Real Account: Real accounts typically relate to assets, liabilities, or property (e.g., cash, buildings, machinery). While prepaid salary is an asset, it is not classified under real accounts because it involves a specific individual or entity, making it a personal account. Nominal Account: Nominal accounts deal with income, expenses, gains, and losses. Prepaid salary is not related to an income or expense but represents a prepaid amount related to future salary payments. ✅ Final Answer: Personal Account.
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Question 17
The mean of a binomial distribution is 40 and its standard deviation is 6. What is the value of n?
1. A36
2. B360
3. C400
4. D40
Answer: (C) 400
Explanation
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Question 18
Arrange the Repatriation process in proper order as given by Peter J Dowling.
A. Preparation
B. Transition
C. Physical relocation
D. Re-adjustment

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, C, B, D
2. BA, B, C, D
3. CA, D, B, C
4. DB, A, C, D
Answer: (B) A, B, C, D
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: A, C, B, D ✅ Explanation: According to Peter J. Dowling, the Repatriation Process (bringing an expatriate employee back home after an international assignment) involves four key stages in the following order: A. Preparation – Planning for return before the assignment ends (includes career planning, cultural training, communication). C. Physical Relocation – Actual movement of the employee and family back to the home country. B. Transition – Psychological and professional adjustment to the home country environment. D. Re-adjustment – Long-term adaptation to personal life, work, and organizational role in the home country. ✅ Final Answer: A, C, B, D ✅
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Question 19
“The process for enabling employees to better understand and develop their career and interests more effectively” is termed as?
1. ACareer Management
2. BCareer Planning
3. CCareer Counselling
4. DCareer Development
Answer: (B) Career Planning
Explanation
✅ Correct answer: Career Management ✅ Explanation:The phrase — “The process for enabling employees to better understand and develop their career and interests more effectively” — most accurately refers to Career Management. Career Management is a structured, organizational process that helps employees: Understand their career goals and aspirations, Align their individual objectives with organizational needs, Get support through development programs, mentoring, training, and feedback. It is a collaborative effort between the employee and the organization, ensuring that the employee’s career growth aligns with the company’s long-term talent strategy. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Career Planning:Refers more to the individual’s effort to identify career goals and the path to achieve them.❌ Focuses on personal goal-setting, not organizational support mechanisms. Career Development:Is part of career management and focuses on skill-building and personal growth.❌ It’s a subset, not the full management process. Career Counselling:Involves personal guidance to make career decisions, often by a professional counsellor.❌ It is more one-on-one support, not a strategic or continuous process. ✅ Final Answer: Career Management.
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Question 20
Arrange the Model of Organisation Development Process of H.M.F Rush in proper sequence from beginning to end.
A. Problem Recognition
B. Organization Diagnosis
C. Feedback for Change Strategy
D. Interventions
E. Measurement and Evaluation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AC, A, D, B, E
2. BA, B, C, D, E
3. CA, B, C, E, D
4. DB, A, C, D, E
Answer: (B) A, B, C, D, E
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: A, B, C, D, E ✅ Explanation: The Organisation Development (OD) Process Model by H.M.F. Rush follows a systematic five-step sequence to improve organizational effectiveness. Here’s the correct order: Step Stage Description A Problem Recognition Identify organizational issues or areas needing change. B Organization Diagnosis Analyze root causes through data collection and assessment. C Feedback for Change Strategy Share findings and develop appropriate change strategies. D Interventions Implement specific actions to bring about the desired change. E Measurement and Evaluation Assess the effectiveness and impact of the interventions. ✅ Final Answer: A, B, C, D, E ✅
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Question 21
Arrange the career management process in proper sequence from beginning to end.
A. Assessment
B. Strategy
C. Career Planning
D. Career Evaluation
E. Career Development

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, D, C, E
2. BB, A, D, C, E
3. CA, B, C, D, E
4. DB, A, C, E, D
Answer: (B) B, A, D, C, E
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: B, A, C, E, D ✅ Explanation: The correct sequence of the Career Management Process is as follows: B. Strategy – Define the organizational career management strategy or goals. A. Assessment – Assess employee skills, interests, values, and personality. C. Career Planning – Based on assessment, create a career plan with goals. E. Career Development – Provide training, mentoring, and experiences for growth. D. Career Evaluation – Review and evaluate progress and effectiveness. This sequence ensures alignment from strategy to assessment, planning, development, and evaluation. ✅ Final Answer: B, A, C, E, D ✅
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Question 22

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I: Nature of study	List-II: Choice of sampling method
A. Size of all strata is equal	I. Quota sampling
B. Information can be provided by few respondents	II. Convenience sampling
C. Information is required from a particular stratum of population	III. Judgement sampling
D. To obtain quick information	IV. Stratified random sampling

AA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
BA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
CA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
DA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Answer: (A) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Explanation

Question 23
Whistle blowing is:
1. AA discrepancy between some current state of affairs and some desired state
2. BRefers to choices that are consistent and value maximising
3. CThe choices made from among two or more alternatives
4. DReporting unethical practices by their employer to outsiders
Answer: (C) The choices made from among two or more alternatives
Explanation
✅ Correct answer: Reporting unethical practices by their employer to outsiders Unit II: Organizational Behaviour Topic: Whistle Blowing 📘 Explanation: Whistle Blowing is the act of disclosing unethical, illegal, fraudulent, or harmful activities occurring within an organization to individuals or authorities who can take corrective action. The primary objective of whistle blowing is to protect public interest, uphold ethical standards, and prevent harm to stakeholders. Effective whistle blowing is generally expected to be carried out in good faith and supported by credible evidence. Whistle blowing is refers to reporting unethical practices by their employer to outsiders. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: The choices made from among two or more alternatives Reason: This defines decision making, which is the process of selecting the best course of action from available alternatives. It has no relation to reporting unethical practices. A discrepancy between some current state of affairs and some desired state Reason: This defines a problem, which represents the gap between the existing situation and the desired situation. It is a concept associated with problem-solving rather than whistle blowing. Refers to choices that are consistent and value maximising Reason: This describes rational decision making, where decisions are made to maximize value while remaining consistent with objectives. It does not involve reporting unethical behaviour. ✅ Final Answer: Reporting unethical practices by their employer to outsiders.
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Question 24
Which of the following Institutions are providing micro finance services to the poor?
A. Conventional weaker section lending banks.
B. Microfinance Institution.
C. Self Help Group-bank linkage programme
D. EXIM banks

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B and C Only
2. BC and D Only
3. CB and C Only
4. DA and B Only
Answer: (D) A and B Only
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: A, B and C Only ✅ Explanation:Microfinance services are aimed at providing financial access—particularly small loans, savings, and insurance—to low-income and underserved populations. Among the options: A. Conventional weaker section lending banks: ✅ YesThese include public sector banks, regional rural banks (RRBs), and cooperative banks that offer targeted loans to the weaker sections under government-mandated priority sector lending. B. Microfinance Institutions (MFIs): ✅ YesMFIs are specialized entities that provide micro-loans and related financial services to the poor, particularly in rural and semi-urban areas. C. Self Help Group (SHG)-Bank Linkage Programme: ✅ YesThis is a flagship initiative by NABARD that connects SHGs of the poor with formal banking institutions, allowing them to access credit and savings facilities collectively. D. EXIM Bank (Export-Import Bank of India): ❌ NoEXIM Bank is a specialized financial institution that supports export and import businesses, not microfinance for the poor. ✅ Final Answer: A, B and C Only
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Question 25
From the following information, what is the value of the P/V ratio?
Year 2021 2022
Sales ₹32,00,000 ₹57,00,000
Profit/Loss ₹3,00,000 ₹7,00,000
1. A16%
2. B40%
3. C12.5%
4. D25%
Answer: (A) 16%
Explanation
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Question 26
Which one of the following is NOT a technique of foreign trade financing?
1. AForfeiting
2. BDiscounting
3. CFactoring
4. DBanker's Acceptance
Answer: (A) Forfeiting
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: Discounting 📘 Explanation: Discounting refers to the process of selling a bill of exchange or promissory note to a bank or financial institution before its maturity at a discount to receive immediate funds. While discounting is a financing tool, it is not considered a core technique of foreign trade financing on its own. It is more of a general financial practice that can be applied in various contexts, including but not limited to international trade. In foreign trade, more specialized instruments and techniques are used to handle the complexities and risks involved in cross-border transactions. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Banker’s Acceptance: A widely used foreign trade financing tool where the bank guarantees a time draft, making it easier for the exporter to get payment and for the importer to delay it. Factoring: Although more common in domestic trade, international factoring is a recognized method of foreign trade financing, especially for small exporters. It involves selling receivables to a factor to receive early payment. Forfeiting: Specifically designed for foreign trade, forfeiting involves selling receivables from international transactions (typically medium to long-term export receivables) to a forfeiter, often a bank, on a non-recourse basis. ✅ Final Answer: Discounting
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Question 27

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I: Type of variance	List-II: Formula
A. Material cost variance	I. (Standard quantity − actual quantity) × standard price
B. Material price variance	II. (Standard price − actual price) × actual quantity
C. Material usage variance	III. Standard cost of actual quantity of actual mixture − standard cost of actual quantity of standard mixture
D. Material mix variance	IV. (Standard price × standard quantity) − (actual price × actual quantity)

AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
BA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
CA-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
DA-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Answer: (D) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Explanation

Material cost variance compares standard cost with actual cost (A-IV). Price variance uses the standard-price minus actual-price difference multiplied by actual quantity (B-II); usage variance uses the quantity difference times standard price (C-I); and mix variance compares the standard cost of the actual mix with that of the standard mix for the actual total quantity (D-III). Therefore option D is correct.

Question 28
Arrange the steps in demand forecasting from beginning to end.
A. Specifying objectives
B. Making choice of methods
C. Determining the perspective
D. Estimation and interpretation of results
E. Collection of data and data adjustment

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, D, C, E
2. BC, B, A, D, E
3. CA, C, B, E, D
4. DC, A, E, D, B
Answer: (D) C, A, E, D, B
Explanation
✅ Correct answer: A, C, B, E, D Unit I: Business Management and Managerial Economics Topic: Demand analysis: Forecasting 📖 Explanation: A. Specifying objectives The forecasting process begins by clearly defining why the forecast is needed — whether for production planning, inventory management, pricing decisions, etc. Without a clear objective, the entire exercise lacks direction. C. Determining the perspective Once objectives are set, the firm determines the time horizon and scope of the forecast — short-term, medium-term, or long-term — and whether it is for a product, market segment, or the whole industry. B. Making choice of methods Based on the objectives and perspective, the appropriate forecasting method is selected — survey methods, statistical methods, trend analysis, Delphi method, etc. The choice depends on data availability, time frame, and purpose. E. Collection of data and data adjustment After the method is chosen, relevant data is collected from primary or secondary sources and adjusted for any inconsistencies, seasonal variations, or anomalies to make it suitable for analysis. D. Estimation and interpretation of results Finally, the chosen method is applied to the collected data to estimate future demand, and the results are interpreted in the context of business decisions. ✅ Final Answer: A, C, B, E, D.
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Question 29
Which of the following are positional averages?
A. Geometric mean
B. Harmonic mean
C. Mode
D. Median
E. Percentiles

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AD and E Only
2. BC, D, and E Only
3. CC and D Only
4. DA, B, and E Only
Answer: (D) A, B, and E Only
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: D. Median, and E. Percentiles 📘 Explanation: Positional Averages are measures of central tendency that depend on the position of values in an ordered dataset. These include: Median (D) → The middle value when data is arranged in order. Percentiles (E) → Values that divide data into 100 equal parts, based on position. Why Not A, B, and C? Geometric Mean (A) → A mathematical average, calculated using multiplication and roots. Harmonic Mean (B) → Another mathematical average, based on reciprocals. Mode (C) → A frequency-based measure, not based on position in an ordered dataset. ✅ Final Answer: D. Median, and E. Percentiles
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Question 30
In which of the following Association/organisation Ela Bhatt is associated?
1. ASelf Employed Women's Association
2. BMukta Services
3. CLijjat Papad
4. DAvya Global Connect
Answer: (C) Lijjat Papad
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: Self Employed Women’s Association (SEWA) ✅ Explanation: Ela Bhatt is the founder of the Self Employed Women’s Association (SEWA), a trade union established in 1972 in Ahmedabad, India. SEWA advocates for the rights of low-income, self-employed women workers, aiming to secure full employment, which encompasses work security, income security, food security, and social security like health care, child care, insurance, pension, and shelter. Under her leadership, SEWA grew rapidly, with nearly 2 million members across India by 2023. The organization operates on Gandhian principles of truth, non-violence, and integration of all people. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Mukta Services: There is no widely recognized association or organization by this name linked to Ela Bhatt. Lijjat Papad: This is a cooperative of women in India, known for producing papad. While similar in empowering women, it is not associated with Ela Bhatt. Avya Global Connect: This organization does not have any known association with Ela Bhatt. ✅ Final Answer: Self Employed Women’s Association (SEWA)
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Question 31
Which one of the following is Walter's formula to determine market price per share?
1. A$p = -D/K + (r/K)(EPS - D)$
2. B$p = D + r(EPS - D)/K²$
3. C$p = D/K + r(EPS - D)/K²$
4. D$p = D/K + r(EPS - D)/K$
Answer: (C) $p = D/K + r(EPS - D)/K²$
Explanation
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Question 32
Which of the following is a type of off-price retailer?
1. ASuperstore
2. BCategory killer
3. CFactory outlet
4. DDiscount store
Answer: (C) Factory outlet
Explanation
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Question 33

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I: Types of buying decision behaviour	List-II: Their explanation
A. Complex buying behaviour	I. Highly involved in a purchase and perceive significant difference among brands
B. Dissonance-reducing buying behaviour	II. Low consumer involvement and little significant brand difference
C. Habitual buying behaviour	III. Low consumer involvement but significant perceived brand differences
D. Variety-seeking buying behaviour	IV. Highly involved with an expensive, infrequent, or risky purchase but see little difference among brands

AA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
BA-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
CA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
DA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Answer: (B) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

Explanation

Complex buying behaviour is high involvement with significant perceived brand differences (A-I), and dissonance-reducing behaviour is high involvement with little difference among brands (B-IV). Habitual buying should be low involvement with little brand difference (C-II), while variety-seeking buying should be low involvement with significant differences (D-III). That exact mapping is missing from the printed choices: option B is the closest available choice because A-I and B-IV are correct, but its C-III and D-II pairs are reversed in the source paper.

Question 34

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I: Societal classification of products	List-II: Degree of long-run consumer benefit and immediate consumer satisfaction
A. Deficient products	I. Low long-run consumer benefit and high immediate satisfaction
B. Pleasing products	II. High long-run consumer benefit and high immediate satisfaction
C. Salutary products	III. High long-run consumer benefit and low immediate satisfaction
D. Desirable products	IV. Low long-run consumer benefit and low immediate satisfaction

AA-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
BA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
CA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
DA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Answer: (A) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

Explanation

Question 35
Who has developed the HRD scorecard?
1. AJ. Bright
2. BPeter F. Drucker
3. CT.V Rao
4. DJ. Friedman
Answer: (A) J. Bright
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: T.V Rao ✅ Explanation: T.V. Rao, a prominent Indian scholar and HRD expert, is credited with developing the HRD Scorecard. He is widely recognized as the Father of Human Resource Development in India and has made significant contributions to the professionalization and systematization of HR practices in Indian organizations. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Peter F. Drucker – Known as the father of modern management but not specifically related to the HRD Scorecard. J. Friedman – Not associated with the HRD Scorecard. J. Bright – Not linked to the development of the HRD Scorecard either. ✅ Final Answer: T.V Rao.
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Question 36
In Flow Model, associated with forecasting personnel needs, the forecaster will-
A. Determine the time that should be covered.
B. Establish categories to which employees can be assigned.
C. Will not estimate the probability of transition.
D. Will solicit estimate of personnel needed from group of exports.
E. Count annual movements among states for several time period.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B and C Only
2. BA, B and D Only
3. CA, B and E Only
4. DB, C and D Only
Answer: (C) A, B and E Only
Explanation
✅ Correct answer: A, B and E Only ✅ Explanation:The Flow Model (also known as the Markov Analysis in HR forecasting) is a quantitative technique used to estimate future personnel needs by analyzing employee movements (flows) through different job states (e.g., promotion, transfer, exit). Here’s how the steps relate: A. Determine the time that should be covered:✅ Yes. Time frame selection (e.g., 1 year, 5 years) is essential to track and predict personnel movement. B. Establish categories to which employees can be assigned:✅ Yes. Employees are classified into job states or categories (like junior, senior, resigned, promoted, etc.) to analyze movement. E. Count annual movements among states for several time periods:✅ Yes. The core of the flow model involves tracking historical employee transitions between states over multiple time periods to forecast future movement. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: C. Will not estimate the probability of transition:❌ Incorrect. The flow model specifically involves estimating transition probabilities—how likely an employee is to move from one category/state to another. D. Will solicit estimate of personnel needed from group of experts:❌ This refers to the Delphi Technique, which is qualitative and expert-based—not part of the flow model. ✅ Final Answer: A, B and E Only.
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Question 37
Arrange the Project Life Cycle phase in proper sequence from starting to end.
A. Definition phase
B. Conception phase
C. Implementation phase
D. Planning and organising phase
E. Project clean-up phase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, D, E, C
2. BE, A, C, D, B
3. CB, A, C, D, E
4. DB, A, D, C, E
Answer: (B) E, A, C, D, B
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: B, A, D, C, E ✅ Explanation: The Project Life Cycle consists of sequential phases that guide a project from initiation to completion. The correct sequence is: B. Conception phase🔹 This is where the idea is born. Feasibility is explored and broad objectives are framed. A. Definition phase🔹 Project goals, scope, deliverables, and constraints are clearly defined. D. Planning and organising phase🔹 Resources, budgets, timelines, and risk management plans are laid out. Teams are organized. C. Implementation phase🔹 Actual execution of the work takes place here. Tasks are performed as per the plan. E. Project clean-up phase🔹 Final deliverables are handed over, documentation is completed, and post-project reviews are conducted. ✅ Final Answer: B, A, D, C, E ✅
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Question 38
The major strategies and policies that give a business enterprise its overall direction are likely to be in which areas?

A. Growth
B. Finance
C. Needs
D. Personnel
E. Marketing
1. AA, C, D and E only
2. BB, C, D and E only
3. CA, B, D and E only
4. DA, B, C and D only
Answer: (C) A, B, D and E only
Explanation
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Question 39

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I: Name of theory	List-II: Propounder
A. Theory of opportunities and innovation	I. Frank H. Knight
B. Theory of profit	II. Peter F. Drucker
C. Theory of entrepreneurial supply	III. Sigmund Freud
D. Psychoanalytic theory	IV. Thomas Cochran

AA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
BA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
CA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
DA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Answer: (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Explanation

Question 40
Arrange the financial institutions according to their formation from latest to earliest.
A. Industrial Finance Corporation of India
B. Regional Rural Bank
C. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
D. National Industrial Development Corporation
E. The Reserve Bank of India.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, C, D, E
2. BC, B, D, A, E
3. CB, D, E, C, A
4. DB, C, A, D, E
Answer: (B) C, B, D, A, E
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: C,B, D, A, E. ✅ Explanation:The question asks to arrange the financial institutions according to their formation from latest to earliest. Here’s the correct order based on their establishment years: C. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) – 1982Established to support rural development and manage rural credit. B. Regional Rural Bank (RRB) – 1975Created to provide credit facilities in rural areas and promote financial inclusion. D. National Industrial Development Corporation (NIDC) – 1954Formed to promote industrial growth by providing financial assistance and guidance. A. Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI) – 1948Set up to provide medium and long-term finance to industrial sectors. E. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) – 1935India’s central bank, established to regulate monetary policy and manage the country’s financial system. ✅ Final Answer: C,B, D, A, E.
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Question 41
Which of the following are correct formulas of combined leverage?

A. DCF = % Change in EPS / % Change in Sales
B. DCF = Contribution / Profit before Tax
C. DCF = Contribution / Profit after Tax
D. DCF = (EBIT + Fixed Cost) / PBT
E. DCF = Change in EBIT / Change in Sales
1. AA, B and C only
2. BB, C and D only
3. CA, C and D only
4. DA, B and D only
Answer: (D) A, B and D only
Explanation
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Question 42
Which of the following are properties of regression coefficients?
A. r = (byx X bxy)^0.5
B. Change in origin are not affected
C. Change in scale are not affected
D. If both the regression coefficient have negative sign, the correlation coefficient will have negative sign
E. If one regression coefficient is greater than one then other regression coefficient must be less than one.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, D and E Only
2. BB, C, D and E Only
3. CA, B, D and E Only
4. DA, B and E only
Answer: (C) A, B, D and E Only
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: A, B and E only 📘 Explanation: Properties of Regression Coefficients: ✅ (A) r = (byx × bxy) ^ 0.5 (Correct) This is a correct mathematical relationship between the correlation coefficient r and the regression coefficients byx and bxy. This property states that correlation (r) is the square root of the product of regression coefficients. ✅ (B) “Change in origin is not affected” (Correct) Regression coefficients are NOT affected by a change in origin (adding or subtracting a constant to X or Y). If we shift both x and y by adding/subtracting a constant (e.g., shifting data by a mean value), the regression coefficient remains unchanged. Thus, this statement is correct. ❌ (C) “Change in scale is not affected” (Incorrect) Regression coefficients ARE affected by a change in scale (multiplying or dividing all values by a constant). If we multiply or divide x or y by a constant, the regression coefficients change. Thus, this statement is incorrect. ❌ (D) “If both regression coefficients have a negative sign, the correlation coefficient will also be negative” (Incorrect) This statement seems correct at first, but let’s analyze it carefully: The correlation coefficient r depends on the square root of the product of regression coefficients: r=(byx×bxy)^0.5 The product of two negative numbers is positive. ✅ (E) “If one regression coefficient is greater than one, the other must be less than one” (Correct) There is a key mathematical property: byx × bxy ≤ 1 This means that if one regression coefficient is greater than 1, the other must be less than 1 to satisfy this inequality. Thus, this statement is correct. ✅ Final Answer: A, B and E only
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Question 43
Which of the following movement of products clearly defines the term “Inbound Logistics”?
1. AReseller to Customer
2. BCustomers to Suppliers
3. CSuppliers to company
4. DCompany to Reseller
Answer: (A) Reseller to Customer
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: Suppliers to company ✅ Explanation: Inbound logistics refers to the movement of raw materials, components, and goods from suppliers to the company for production or assembly. It includes processes like receiving, warehousing, and inventory management of incoming goods. It is the first phase of the logistics process and is crucial for ensuring that the materials required for manufacturing or assembling products are available on time and in the right quantity. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Company to Reseller:❌ This represents outbound logistics, where finished goods are transported from the company to distributors, wholesalers, or retailers. Reseller to Customer:❌ This also falls under outbound logistics or distribution, not inbound logistics. Customers to Suppliers:❌ This could be considered reverse logistics (e.g., returns or recycling), but not inbound logistics. ✅ Final Answer: Suppliers to company ✅
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Question 44
Which one of the following is a non-parametric test?
1. Aχ2-test
2. Bz-test
3. Ct-test
4. DF-test
Answer: (A) χ2-test
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: χ2-test 📘 Explanation: Parametric Tests (Assume Normal Distribution) Z-Test – Compares means for large samples (n ≥ 30). T-Test – Compares means for small samples (n<30): Independent T-test – Two unrelated groups. Paired T-test – Same group before/after. F-Test – Compares variances of two groups. ANOVA (Analysis of Variance) – Compares means of three or more groups. Pearson Correlation – Measures linear relationship between two variables. Linear Regression – Predicts dependent variable using independent variable(s). ✅ Final Answer: χ2-test
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Question 45
Arrange the following developments in International monetary system in the order of sequence starting from oldest to newest:
A. Gold standard
B. Smithsonian arrangement
C. Specie commodity standard
D. Floating Rate Regime
E. Fixed Party System

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AE, C, A, D, B
2. BA, C, B, E, D
3. CB, A, C, E, D
4. DC, A, E, B, D
Answer: (D) C, A, E, B, D
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: C, A, E, B, D 📘 Explanation: Here’s the correct chronological sequence of the major developments in the international monetary system: C. Specie Commodity Standard (Pre-19th century):The earliest form, where money was backed by a physical commodity such as gold or silver, often in coin form. A. Gold Standard (19th century – early 20th century):Countries fixed their currencies to a specific amount of gold. It was formalized in the 1870s and collapsed in the 1930s during the Great Depression. E. Fixed Parity System (Bretton Woods System, post-WWII – 1971):Currencies were pegged to the US dollar, which was convertible to gold. This created fixed exchange rates. B. Smithsonian Arrangement (1971):An attempt to preserve fixed exchange rates after the collapse of the Bretton Woods system. It was a temporary measure and soon failed. D. Floating Rate Regime (Post-1973 – Present):After the failure of fixed exchange systems, countries allowed their currencies to float freely in the market, determined by supply and demand. ✅ Final Answer: C, A, E, B, D
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Question 46
Who has propounded the ‘Diamond of National Competitive Advantages’ model of corporate level strategies?
1. AM. E Porter
2. BH. I Ansoff
3. CPeter F. Drucker
4. DJ.B Barney
Answer: (A) M. E Porter
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: M. E. Porter ✅ Explanation:The “Diamond of National Competitive Advantage” model was propounded by Michael E. Porter. This model explains why certain nations become globally competitive in specific industries. Porter introduced it in his book The Competitive Advantage of Nations (1990). The model identifies four major determinants of national competitive advantage: Factor Conditions Demand Conditions Related and Supporting Industries Firm Strategy, Structure, and Rivalry It is widely used in strategic management and international business. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: H. I. Ansoff → Known for the Ansoff Matrix and strategic planning concepts. J.B. Barney → Known for the VRIO Framework and Resource-Based View (RBV). Peter F. Drucker → Known as the father of modern management and for Management by Objectives (MBO). ✅ Final Answer: M. E. Porter
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Question 47
Which one of the following cost arises due to the failure of the customers to meet their obligations when payment on credit sales become due after the expiry of the credit period?
1. ACollection costs
2. BCapital costs
3. CDefault costs
4. DDelinquency costs
Answer: (C) Default costs
Explanation
✅Correct answer: Delinquency costs ✅ Explanation: Delinquency costs arise when customers delay payment beyond the allowed credit period. These costs occur due to follow-up actions, reminders, legal notices, and additional administrative efforts required to recover overdue receivables after the due date. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Collection costs → These are general expenses incurred in collecting receivables, not specifically due to delayed payment after the credit period. Capital costs → These represent the financing cost of funds tied up in receivables. Default costs → These arise when customers completely fail to pay, leading to bad debts. ✅ Final Answer: Delinquency costs
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Question 48
What can lead to the withdrawal of status respect according to Hagen’s theory of Entrepreneurship?
1. APerception that efforts and purposes are not valued by others
2. BPerception that efforts and purposes are highly valued
3. CIncreased recognition from the group
4. DBelief in the stability of status symbols
Answer: (D) Belief in the stability of status symbols
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: Perception that efforts and purposes are not valued by others ✅ Explanation:According to Everett Hagen’s Theory of Entrepreneurship, withdrawal of status respect is a key psychological factor that can trigger entrepreneurial behavior. This withdrawal occurs when an individual or group perceives that their efforts, goals, or values are not appreciated or respected by the larger society. This leads to frustration and a motivation to change their situation through innovation or entrepreneurship. Hagen believed that such a status frustration creates a drive in individuals to achieve success independently—often through entrepreneurial ventures—as a way to regain lost respect and improve their social status. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Increased recognition from the group: This would reinforce status respect, not lead to its withdrawal. Perception that efforts and purposes are highly valued: This affirms status, so it would not create entrepreneurial tension. Belief in the stability of status symbols: This suggests comfort and satisfaction with existing status, not a trigger for change. ✅ Final Answer: Perception that efforts and purposes are not valued by others
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Question 49
Arrange the Hambrick and Fredrickson model of strategic management in proper sequence from beginning to end.
A. Vision and mission
B. Goals and objectives
C. Internal and external strategic analysis
D. Implementation Levers and strategic leadership
E. Strategy arenas vehicles differentiators staging economic logic

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, C, D, E
2. BA, B, C, E, D
3. CB, A, C, D, E
4. DA, C, B, D, E
Answer: (B) A, B, C, E, D
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: A, B, C, E, D 📘 Explanation: The Donald C. Hambrick and James W. Fredrickson model follows a logical strategic management sequence from defining organizational purpose to implementation. A. Vision and Mission defines organizational purpose, direction, and philosophy. B. Goals and Objectives establish measurable targets and strategic priorities. C. Internal and External Strategic Analysis examines strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats through environmental and organizational analysis. E. Strategy Arenas, Vehicles, Differentiators, Staging, and Economic Logic focuses on where the firm will compete, how it will compete, sequence of actions, differentiation, and profitability logic. D. Implementation Levers and Strategic Leadership involves execution through leadership, structure, controls, and resource allocation. ✅ Final Answer: A, B, C, E, D
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Question 50
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I: Ind AS List-II: Related to
A. Ind AS 12 I. Earnings per share
B. Ind AS 16 II. Intangible assets
C. Ind AS 33 III. Property, plant and equipment
D. Ind AS 38 IV. Income taxes
1. AA-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
2. BA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
3. CA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
4. DA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Answer: (B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Explanation
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Question 51
Which of the followings are Career Development Initiatives?
A. Career Planning workshops.
B. Mentoring
C. Career Counselling
D. Coaching
E. Personal Development Plans

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, C and E Only
2. BB, C, D and E Only
3. CA, B, C and D Only
4. DA, C, D and E Only
Answer: (B) B, C, D and E Only
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: A, B, C and E Only ✅ Explanation: Career Development Initiatives are structured efforts by organizations to help employees grow professionally and prepare for future roles. The following are considered core career development initiatives: A. Career Planning Workshops – These are sessions designed to help employees assess their skills, set goals, and align their personal aspirations with organizational opportunities. B. Mentoring – Involves guidance and advice from experienced employees to support mentees’ career progression. C. Career Counselling – Offers professional support in making informed career decisions and navigating career paths. E. Personal Development Plans (PDPs) – Structured plans created by individuals (often in consultation with supervisors) to map out learning and career objectives. ❌ Why D. Coaching is not included: While coaching is a valuable tool for performance improvement and leadership development, it’s more performance or role-specific and not always considered a formal part of career development initiatives (which are more strategic and long-term in orientation). However, it can support career development indirectly. ✅ Final Answer: A, B, C and E Only.
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Question 52
John Challenger suggested that we should consider certain things in acting more ethically in downsizing. What things he suggested?
A. Planning
B. Pessimism about the future of the company
C. Emotions
D. Timing
E. Stakeholder perception

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, C and D Only
2. BA, B, D and E Only
3. CA, C, D and E Only
4. DB, C, D and E Only
Answer: (A) A, B, C and D Only
Explanation
✅ Correct answer: A, C, D and E Only ✅ Explanation: John Challenger, a prominent voice in human resource strategy, emphasized ethical considerations during downsizing — a process that can be emotionally and socially disruptive. He suggested that companies must pay attention to the following four key factors to ensure downsizing is handled ethically and responsibly: Planning – Proper planning ensures downsizing is done strategically, avoiding unnecessary harm to employees and preserving company morale. Emotions – Acknowledging and managing the emotional impact on employees and managers is crucial during lay-offs. Timing – Downsizing should be timed carefully to minimize disruption and confusion. Stakeholder perception – Companies must consider how downsizing actions are perceived by internal and external stakeholders (employees, customers, investors, etc.) to maintain trust and reputation. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Option B: “Pessimism about the future of the company” is not part of Challenger’s ethical downsizing framework. In fact, pessimism is something companies aim to avoid, as it can create panic and demoralization. ✅ Final Answer: A, C, D and E Only
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Question 53
Which one of the following is a type of Foreign Direct Investment?
1. ACommercial loans
2. BForeign Portfolio Investment
3. CGreenfield Investment
4. DQualified Foreign Investment
Answer: (A) Commercial loans
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: Greenfield Investment 📘 Explanation: Greenfield Investment is a type of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) where a parent company builds its operations in a foreign country from the ground up. This includes constructing new production facilities, offices, or other infrastructure, and it often involves hiring local employees and actively managing the business. FDI, particularly Greenfield Investment, indicates a long-term interest and significant control over the foreign enterprise, distinguishing it from other forms of international capital flow. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Foreign Portfolio Investment: This involves purchasing financial assets like stocks and bonds in a foreign country and does not give the investor control over business operations. It is a short-term investment and not a type of FDI. Qualified Foreign Investment: This refers to regulated investments by foreigners in certain markets (like India’s Qualified Foreign Investors scheme) and generally applies to portfolio investments, not FDI. Commercial Loans: These are debt-based financial instruments and do not involve ownership or control over foreign business operations. They are not classified as FDI. ✅ Final Answer: Greenfield Investment
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Question 54
A phenomenon in which the norm for consensus overrides that realistic appraisal of alternative course of action is:
1. AGroupthink
2. BGroupshift
3. CBrainstorming
4. DNominal group technique
Answer: (B) Groupshift
Explanation
✅ Correct answer: Groupthink Unit II: Organizational Behaviour Topic: Group Behaviour: Group Dynamics (Group Decision Making) 📘 Explanation: “A phenomenon in which the norm for consensus overrides that realistic appraisal of alternative course of action.” describes Groupthink. Groupthink is a situation where group members focus so much on reaching agreement that they fail to evaluate all possible alternatives properly. The concept was introduced by Irving Janis, who explained that highly cohesive groups may make poor decisions because members avoid disagreement and critical thinking. Groupthink usually occurs when members give more importance to maintaining harmony than to making the best decision. As a result, they may ignore risks, overlook better alternatives, and hesitate to express opposing views. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Groupshift Reason: Groupshift refers to the tendency of group members to take more extreme positions after group discussion. It explains changes in the level of risk-taking or conservatism, not the pressure to reach consensus. Brainstorming Reason: Brainstorming is a creative technique developed by Alex F. Osborn to generate a large number of ideas. It encourages free thinking and postpones criticism, making it the opposite of Groupthink. Nominal Group Technique Reason: Nominal Group Technique (NGT) is a structured decision-making method where members first generate ideas individually and then discuss and rank them. It is designed to reduce conformity and prevent problems like Groupthink. ✅ Final Answer: Groupthink.
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Question 55

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I: Conflict	List-II: Appropriate view
A. Traditional view	I. Conflict is a natural and inevitable outcome in any group
B. Human relations view	II. All conflict is harmful and must be avoided
C. Interactionist view	III. Conflict supports group goals and improves performance
D. Functional conflict	IV. Conflict is not positive in itself but is necessary for effective performance

AA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
BA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
CA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
DA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Answer: (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Explanation

Question 56

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I: International business orientation	List-II: Explanation
A. Ethnocentric orientation	I. Global marketing strategy across countries, treating the world as one market
B. Polycentric orientation	II. Common strategy in a group of foreign countries with similar consumers and business environments
C. Regiocentric orientation	III. Marketing strategies modified for local consumers in a foreign market
D. Geocentric orientation	IV. Domestic-market strategy applied in a foreign country

AA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
BA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
CA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
DA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Answer: (B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Explanation

Question 57
Arrange the following Trade Negotiation Rounds of World Trade Organisation in the order of their occurrence from oldest to latest:
A. Bali Conference
B. Geneva Conference
C. Hong Kong Conference
D. Cancun Conference
E. Doha Conference

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AB, C, D, E, A
2. BA, B, C, D, E
3. CE, D, C, B, A
4. DA, B, C, E, D
Answer: (D) A, B, C, E, D
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: E, D, C, B, A 📘 Explanation: The World Trade Organization (WTO) has held a series of ministerial conferences and trade negotiation rounds. The correct chronological order among the given options is: E. Doha Conference (2001): Marked the launch of the Doha Development Agenda, focusing on trade and development. D. Cancun Conference (2003): A continuation of the Doha Round but failed due to disagreements between developed and developing nations. C. Hong Kong Conference (2005): Some progress was made, particularly in phasing out agricultural export subsidies. B. Geneva Conference (2009): Continued negotiations but with little substantive progress. A. Bali Conference (2013): Notable for the successful conclusion of the Trade Facilitation Agreement. ✅ Final Answer: E, D, C, B, A
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Question 58
Who has suggested the 7-S framework for organisational change?
1. AMintzberg
2. BMcKinsey
3. CPeter Drucker
4. DDale Yoder
Answer: (A) Mintzberg
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: McKinsey 📘 Explanation: The 7-S Framework for organizational change was developed by McKinsey & Company, a global management consulting firm. It was introduced by consultants Robert Waterman, Tom Peters, and Julian Phillips in the early 1980s. The framework identifies seven internal elements of an organization that must be aligned for it to be successful. Strategy – The plan or direction the organization is taking to achieve its goals. Structure – The way the organization is arranged, including reporting lines and hierarchical setup. Systems – The processes and procedures that support the organization’s operations. Shared Values – The core beliefs and culture that guide the behavior and decisions of the organization. Skills – The capabilities and competencies of the employees. Style – The leadership approach and how leaders interact with their teams. Staff – The human resources or people who make up the organization. This framework helps organizations to analyze and understand how these elements interrelate and how changes in one area might affect others, making it a powerful tool for managing organizational change. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Peter Drucker: While Peter Drucker made significant contributions to management theory, he did not create the 7-S Framework. Dale Yoder: Known for his work in human resource management, Yoder did not develop the 7-S Framework. Mintzberg: Henry Mintzberg is well-known for his work on organizational structures and strategy, but he did not propose the 7-S Framework. ✅ Final Answer: McKinsey
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Question 59
The structuralist theory of inflation was proposed by:
1. AV.N Pandit
2. BFritz Machlup
3. CKeynes
4. DG. Myrdal and P. Streeten
Answer: (A) V.N Pandit
Explanation
✅Correct answer: G. Myrdal and P. Streeten Unit I: Business Management and Managerial Economics Topic: Inflation 📖 Explanation: This question tests your knowledge of the Structuralist Theory of Inflation. G. Myrdal and P. Streeten Reason: The Structuralist Theory of Inflation was developed by structural economists such as Gunnar Myrdal and Paul Streeten. The theory argues that inflation in developing countries arises due to structural rigidities and bottlenecks in sectors such as agriculture, infrastructure, foreign exchange, and public finance. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: V.N. Pandit Reason: Not the proposer of the Structuralist Theory of Inflation. Milton Friedman Reason: Associated with Monetarism, not Structuralism. Fritz Machlup Reason: Not linked to the Structuralist Theory of Inflation. Keynes Reason: Associated with demand-side explanations of inflation. ✅ Final Answer: G. Myrdal and P. Streeten.
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Question 60
“Formulating and executing human resource policies and practices that produce the employee competencies and behaviours the company needs to achieve its strategic aims” is called?
1. AStrategic human resource Auditing
2. BStrategic human resource Planning
3. CStrategic human resource Evaluation
4. DStrategic human resource Management
Answer: (A) Strategic human resource Auditing
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: Strategic Human Resource Management ✅ Explanation: The statement describes the integration of HRM practices with the strategic goals of an organization to improve business performance and develop an organizational culture that fosters innovation, flexibility, and competitive advantage. Strategic Human Resource Management (SHRM) refers to: Aligning HR policies and practices with the strategic objectives of the organization. Ensuring that employee competencies and behaviors are developed and directed toward achieving business goals. Making HR a strategic partner in the overall planning process. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Strategic Human Resource Planning:Focuses more on forecasting future HR needs and planning to meet those needs—not necessarily the execution of policies and behaviors. Strategic Human Resource Auditing:Involves evaluating the effectiveness and compliance of HR systems—not about formulating or executing strategies. Strategic Human Resource Evaluation:Focuses on measuring outcomes of HR strategies—such as performance metrics—not the strategic formulation itself. ✅ Final Answer: Strategic Human Resource Management
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Question 61
Arrange the Five Stages of Conflict Process in proper sequence from beginning to end
A. Potential opposition or incompatibility
B. Intentions
C. Cognition and personalization
D. Outcomes
E. Behavior

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, C, D, E
2. BA, D, E, C, B
3. CA, C, E, B, D
4. DA, C, B, E, D
Answer: (B) A, D, E, C, B
Explanation
✅ Correct answer: A, C, B, E, D Unit II: Organizational Behaviour Topic: Group Behaviour: Group Dynamics (Conflict Management) 📘 Explanation: The Five Stages of Conflict Process was proposed by Stephen P. Robbins to explain how conflict develops and progresses within an organization. The model describes conflict as a dynamic process that begins with the existence of conditions for conflict and ends with outcomes that may be either functional or dysfunctional. Understanding these stages helps managers identify conflict early and apply appropriate conflict management strategies before it adversely affects organizational performance. A. Potential Opposition or Incompatibility Reason: This is the first stage where conditions such as poor communication, organizational structure, or personal differences create the possibility of conflict. At this stage, conflict has not yet occurred but the potential for it exists. C. Cognition and Personalization Reason: In this stage, the parties become aware of the conflict and begin to experience emotional involvement. Conflict is perceived and may develop into feelings such as frustration, anger, or anxiety. B. Intentions Reason: After recognizing the conflict, individuals decide how they intend to respond. Their intentions may involve competing, collaborating, compromising, avoiding, or accommodating. E. Behavior Reason: This is the stage where intentions are translated into actual actions and interactions. The conflict becomes visible through discussions, disagreements, negotiations, or other forms of behaviour. D. Outcomes Reason: This is the final stage where conflict produces results that may be functional (improving decision-making, creativity, or performance) or dysfunctional (reducing cooperation, morale, or productivity). ✅ Final Answer: A, C, B, E, D.
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Question 62
Which of the following are merits of Internal Rate of Return Method of Capital Budgeting?
A. Consider all cash flows
B. Satisfies the value additivity principle
C. Generally consistent with wealth maximization principle
D. It considers the time value of money
E. It never fails to indicate correct choice between mutually exclusive projects.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, C, and D only
2. BA, C and E Only
3. CB, C and D Only
4. DA, B and E Only
Answer: (D) A, B and E Only
Explanation
✅Correct answer: A, C, and D only 📘 Explanation: The Internal Rate of Return (IRR) method is a widely used technique in capital budgeting. It calculates the rate of return at which the net present value (NPV) of a project is zero. Its major merits include: A. Consider all cash flows → IRR takes into account all cash inflows and outflows during the life of the project. C. Generally consistent with wealth maximization principle → IRR usually aligns with shareholder wealth maximization for independent projects. D. It considers the time value of money → IRR discounts future cash flows, so time value is recognized. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: B. Satisfies the value additivity principle → This is a feature of the NPV method, not IRR. E. It never fails to indicate correct choice between mutually exclusive projects → IRR can give misleading rankings in mutually exclusive projects due to scale and timing differences. ✅ Final Answer: A, C, and D only
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Question 63
Which one of the following is true about service marketing?
1. AServices can be separated from the service providers
2. BServices can be seen, tasted, felt, heard, or smelled before purchase
3. CServices can be stored for later sale or use
4. DQuality of services depends on who provides them and when, where, and how
Answer: (C) Services can be stored for later sale or use
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: Quality of services depends on who provides them and when, where, and how ✅ Explanation: This statement refers to the variability (or heterogeneity) characteristic of services. Unlike physical goods, services vary greatly depending on who provides them, when, where, and how. For example, the quality of a haircut may differ depending on the skill of the stylist, their mood, the location, and even the time of day. This is a key truth in service marketing, and it’s part of the inseparability, variability, intangibility, and perishability (IVIP) framework that defines service characteristics. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: “Services can be seen, tasted, felt, heard, or smelled before purchase”❌ Incorrect – This contradicts the intangibility characteristic of services; they cannot be evaluated through senses before consumption. “Services can be separated from the service providers”❌ Incorrect – Services are typically inseparable from their providers. For example, you can’t separate the service of a doctor from the doctor himself. “Services can be stored for later sale or use”❌ Incorrect – Services are perishable, meaning they cannot be stored. An unoccupied hotel room for one night cannot be sold later. ✅ Final Answer: Quality of services depends on who provides them and when, where, and how ✅
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Question 64

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I: Approach of management	List-II: Explanation
A. Decision theory approach	I. Managing is seen as a mathematical process
B. Management science approach	II. Managerial practice depends on circumstances
C. Operational approach	III. Focus is on making decisions
D. Contingency approach	IV. Draws together concepts, principles, techniques and knowledge from other managerial fields

AA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
BA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
CA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
DA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Answer: (A) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Explanation

Question 65
The procedure for determining the duties and skill requirements of a job and the kind of person who should be hired for it is:
1. AJob description
2. BJob evaluation
3. CJob specification
4. DJob analysis
Answer: (B) Job evaluation
Explanation
✅ Correct answer: Job Analysis ✅ Explanation:Job Analysis is the systematic process of determining and documenting: The duties and responsibilities of a job The skills, knowledge, abilities, and other characteristics (KSAOs) required to perform the job The type of person best suited for the job It serves as the foundation for many HR functions, including recruitment, selection, training, performance appraisal, and compensation. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Job Description:❌ It is an output of job analysis that provides a written summary of the duties and responsibilities of a job. Job Specification:❌ Also an output of job analysis that outlines the qualifications, skills, and experience needed to perform the job. Job Evaluation:❌ This is a separate HR process used to determine the relative worth or value of a job for compensation purposes—not about duties or skill requirements. ✅ Final Answer: Job Analysis.
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Question 66
A sum total of ways in which an individual reacts and interacts with others is called:
1. APersonality
2. BAttitude
3. CPerception
4. DValues
Answer: (C) Perception
Explanation
✅ Correct answer: Personality Unit II: Organizational Behaviour Topic: Individual Behaviour: Personality 📘 Explanation: Personality refers to the unique and relatively stable pattern of thoughts, emotions, and behaviours that distinguishes one individual from another. It influences how a person reacts to people, situations, and the surrounding environment. According to Stephen P. Robbins, personality is: “The sum total of ways in which an individual reacts and interacts with others.” This definition highlights that personality is reflected in a person’s overall pattern of behaviour and interaction. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Perception Reason: Perception is the process through which individuals select, organize, and interpret information to make sense of their environment. It explains how people understand situations, not their overall pattern of behaviour. Attitude Reason: Attitude is a learned tendency to respond positively or negatively towards a person, object, or situation. It reflects a person’s evaluation or feelings rather than their complete behavioural pattern. Values Reason: Values are deeply held beliefs about what is right, desirable, or important. They guide an individual’s decisions and behaviour but do not describe the person’s overall personality. ✅ Final Answer: Personality.
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Question 67
Which of the following is true about the term “KAIZEN”?
1. AKAIZEN is subtle and its results are seldom immediately visible. It is an ongoing process and involves the entire organisation.
2. BKAIZEN is dramatic, a real attention-getter. It is like magma that appears in abrupt eruptions from time to time.
3. CKAIZEN involves all the activities directed towards maintaining current technological, managerial and operating standards and improving current standards.
4. DKAIZEN is seen as major changes in the wake of technological breakthroughs or the introduction of latest management concepts or production techniques.
Answer: (C) KAIZEN involves all the activities directed towards maintaining current technological, managerial and operating standards and improving current standards.
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: KAIZEN is subtle and its results are seldom immediately visible. It is an ongoing process and involves the entire organisation. 📘 Explanation: Kaizen is not dramatic or abrupt like an eruption; instead, it focuses on small, continuous improvements over time. It does not rely on sudden technological breakthroughs or major changes but rather on gradual refinements in processes, efficiency, and quality. Kaizen involves all employees, from management to frontline workers, in making small, incremental improvements that accumulate into significant long-term benefits. ✅ Final Answer: KAIZEN is subtle and its results are seldom immediately visible. It is an ongoing process and involves the entire organisation.
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Question 68
In which of the following cases will there be a Flow of Funds?
A. Purchase of Building for cash
B. Cash collection from debtors
C. Cash payment to creditors
D. Issue of share for cash
E. Payment of creditors by issue of shares

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, and C Only
2. BA, D, and E Only
3. CA, C, and D Only
4. DB and C Only
Answer: (D) B and C Only
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: A, D, and E Only ✅ Explanation: Flow of Funds occurs when there is a change between current and non-current accounts, i.e., movement of funds between different categories (working capital vs. non-working capital items). Let’s analyze each case: Transaction Type Flow of Funds? Explanation A. Purchase of Building for cash Non-current asset ↔ Current asset ✅ Yes Cash (current asset) decreases, building (non-current asset) increases — a fund flow. B. Cash collection from debtors Current asset ↔ Current asset ❌ No Cash increases, debtors decrease — both are current assets, no flow of funds. C. Cash payment to creditors Current asset ↔ Current liability ❌ No Cash and creditors both are current items — it affects working capital but not a fund flow. D. Issue of shares for cash Non-current liability ↔ Current asset ✅ Yes Share capital increases (non-current), cash increases (current) — fund flow. E. Payment of creditors by issue of shares Non-current ↔ Current liability ✅ Yes Share capital increases, creditors decrease — movement between different categories. ✅ Final Answer: A, D, and E Only
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Question 69
Arrange the following procedures of hypothesis testing in proper sequence.

A. Making decisions
B. Setting a test criterion
C. Set up hypothesis
D. Set up a suitable significance level
E. Doing computations
1. AC, D, B, E, A
2. BB, C, D, A, E
3. CC, D, A, B, E
4. DD, C, B, E, A
Answer: (A) C, D, B, E, A
Explanation
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Question 70

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I: Form of strike	List-II: Appropriate meaning
A. Economic strike	I. Strike protesting illegal employer conduct
B. Unfair-labour-practice strike	II. Strike resulting from failure to agree on contract terms
C. Wildcat strike	III. Strike by one union in support of another union’s strike
D. Sympathy strike	IV. Unauthorised strike occurring during a contract term

AA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
BA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
CA-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
DA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Answer: (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Explanation

Question 71

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I: Corporate restructuring	List-II: Meaning
A. Leveraged buyout	I. Company sells a part of its business to a third party
B. Divestment	II. Company creates a new company from an existing single entity
C. Sell-off	III. Sale of company assets or a division to outsiders
D. Spin-off	IV. Acquisition substantially financed through debt

AA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
BA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
CA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
DA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Answer: (A) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Explanation

Question 72
Robert L. Katz identified three kinds of skills for administrators. Which was NOT identified by Katz?
1. ATechnical skill
2. BHuman skill
3. CDesign skill
4. DConceptual skill
Answer: (C) Design skill
Explanation
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Question 73
Arrange the following stages/elements of technology management in proper sequence starting from first to last:
A. Technology Adaptation
B. Technology Abandonment
C. Technology Advancement
D. Technology Acquisition
E. Technology Awareness

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AB, C, D, A, E
2. BD, C, A, B, E
3. CE, D, A, C, B
4. DA, C, D, B, E
Answer: (C) E, D, A, C, B
Explanation
✅Correct answer: E, D, A, C, B ✅ Explanation: The correct sequence of technology management stages reflects the life cycle of technology in an organization, from awareness to eventual abandonment: E. Technology Awareness– First, organizations must become aware of emerging technologies and their potential. D. Technology Acquisition– After identifying relevant technologies, the next step is to acquire them through purchase, licensing, or partnership. A. Technology Adaptation– Once acquired, the technology must be adapted to the specific needs and processes of the organization. C. Technology Advancement– As the organization uses the technology, it may upgrade or improve it for better performance and innovation. B. Technology Abandonment– Eventually, when the technology becomes obsolete or less efficient, it is phased out or replaced. ✅ Final Answer: E, D, A, C, B
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Question 74
A company paid a dividend of ₹3.70 in the previous year. Dividends are expected to grow perpetually at 8%. What is the share price today if the market capitalisation rate is 12%?
1. A₹40
2. B₹33.33
3. C₹100
4. D₹200
Answer: (C) ₹100
Explanation
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Question 75
Arrange the following Historical Events in operations management in the order of sequence starting from oldest to newest:
A. Quality Revolution
B. Scientific Management
C. Industrial Revolution
D. Operations Research
E. Human Relations

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AC, B, E, D, A
2. BE, C, B, A, D
3. CA, B, D, C, E
4. DB, C, D, E, A
Answer: (A) C, B, E, D, A
Explanation
✅Correct answer: C, B, E, D, A Unit I: Business Management and Managerial Economics Topic: Management: Theories and Approaches 📖 Explanation: To arrange the historical developments in Operations Management from oldest to newest: C. Industrial Revolution Reason: The Industrial Revolution (1760–1840) marked the beginning of modern manufacturing through mechanization and factory systems. B. Scientific Management Reason: Developed by F.W. Taylor in the early 1900s, it emphasized scientific methods to improve efficiency and productivity. E. Human Relations Reason: Emerged during the 1920s–1930s through the Hawthorne Studies led by Elton Mayo, focusing on human and social aspects of work. D. Operations Research Reason: Developed during World War II (1940s) to solve complex military and resource allocation problems using mathematical techniques. A. Quality Revolution Reason: Became prominent from the 1980s onwards, emphasizing continuous quality improvement through the work of Deming, Juran, Crosby, and others. ✅ Final Answer: C, B, E, D, A.
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Question 76
Which of the following terms are associated with the VRIO framework of Internal Analysis?
A. Valuable
B. Rare
C. Intimitable
D. Organised for usage
E. Innovative

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA and B Only
2. BA, B and C Only
3. CA, B and E Only
4. DA, B, C and D Only
Answer: (D) A, B, C and D Only
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: A, B, C and D Only 📘 Explanation: The VRIO framework is a tool used for analyzing an organization’s internal resources and capabilities to determine if they can lead to a sustained competitive advantage. VRIO stands for: Valuable (A): A resource is valuable if it helps the company exploit opportunities or neutralize threats in the market. It can create value by improving efficiency or effectiveness. Rare (B): A resource is rare if it is not widely possessed by competitors. If many firms have access to a particular resource, it loses its competitive value. Costly to Imitate (C): This refers to the difficulty or expense involved for competitors to replicate or imitate a resource. If a resource is costly to imitate, it can provide a sustained competitive advantage. Organized for Usage (D): Even if a resource is valuable, rare, and costly to imitate, it is only useful if the company is organized to fully utilize it. This involves having the appropriate structure, processes, and systems in place to leverage the resource. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: The term Innovative (E) is not part of the VRIO framework. While innovation can be valuable and contribute to competitive advantage, it’s not one of the core components of the VRIO framework. ✅ Final Answer: A, B, C and D Only
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Question 77
Which of the following are operational methodology of Self Help Group?
A. Village meeting of women in villages by MFI
B. Group formation
C. Group Training for 5-7 days on procedures and business development skills
D. Group meeting once in a week for mobilizing saving, disbursing and repaying loans
E. Lending money for long term loans

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AB, C and D Only
2. BB, C, D and E Only
3. CA, B, C and D Only
4. DA, B and C Only
Answer: (C) A, B, C and D Only
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: A, B, C and D Only ✅ Explanation:The operational methodology of a Self Help Group (SHG) involves several structured steps designed to empower members, build financial discipline, and foster sustainable livelihoods. These typically include: A. Village meeting of women in villages by MFI (Microfinance Institution): This is often the initial step where awareness is created and women are mobilized to form groups. B. Group formation: Core to SHG methodology, members are typically homogeneous and voluntarily come together to form a group. C. Group Training for 5-7 days on procedures and business development skills: This ensures that members understand how the SHG functions, including savings, lending, bookkeeping, and income-generating activities. D. Group meeting once in a week for mobilizing saving, disbursing and repaying loans: Regular meetings are essential for maintaining financial discipline and group cohesion. ❌ Why the other option is incorrect: E. Lending money for long term loans: SHGs primarily focus on short-term and small-ticket loans aimed at meeting immediate consumption or working capital needs. Long-term lending is generally not part of their standard operational methodology, especially in early stages. ✅ Final Answer: A, B, C and D Only
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Question 78
If profit before interest and tax is Rs. 10000, provision for Tax = Rs. 5000, No. of Equity Share = 3000, Preference dividend = 2000, Dividend per equity share = 0.40, what is the value of payout ratio?
1. A50%
2. B40%
3. C10%
4. D20%
Answer: (D) 20%
Explanation
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Question 79
Under brand sponsorship, store brands are also known as which of the following?

A. National brands
B. Generic brands
C. Private brands
D. Distributor brands
E. Manufacturer brands
1. AB, C and D only
2. BA, B and C only
3. CC, D and E only
4. DA, D and E only
Answer: (A) B, C and D only
Explanation
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Question 80
What is the value of cost of capital after tax in a perpetual bond sold at par, coupon rate of interest being 7 per cent. Assuming that firm pay tax at a 50 per cent rate?
1. A3.50%
2. B5%
3. C35%
4. D7%
Answer: (D) 7%
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: 3.50% 📘 Explanation: For a perpetual bond sold at par, the before-tax cost of debt is equal to the coupon rate. Given: Coupon Rate = 7% Tax Rate = 50% The formula for after-tax cost of debt (cost of capital) is: Kd = r(1-t) Where: (Kd) = After-tax cost of debt (r) = Interest rate on debt (t) = Tax rate Substituting the values: Kd = 7*(1 – 0.50) Kd = 7*0.50 Kd = 3.5% Therefore, the after-tax cost of capital is: ✅ 3.50% ✅ Final Answer: 3.50%
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Question 81
Which of the following are the modes of strategic decision making according to Mintzberg?
A. Entrepreneurial Mode
B. Adaptive Mode
C. Planning Mode
D. Logical Incrementalisation Mode

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA and B Only
2. BA, B, C and D Only
3. CA, B and C Only
4. DC and D Only
Answer: (C) A, B and C Only
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: A, B and C Only 📘 Explanation: Henry Mintzberg identified three major modes of strategic decision making in organizations. A. Entrepreneurial Mode involves strategy making driven by a strong leader focusing on opportunities, growth, and bold decisions. B. Adaptive Mode is characterized by reactive and incremental decision making where organizations adjust gradually to environmental changes. C. Planning Mode involves systematic analysis, formal planning, and structured strategic decision processes. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: D. Logical Incrementalisation Mode is not one of Mintzberg’s modes. It was proposed by James Brian Quinn as a separate strategic management concept emphasizing gradual and flexible strategic change. ✅ Final Answer: A, B and C Only
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Question 82
Which of the following are the main objectives of establishment of International Monetary Fund (IMF)?
A. To provide long-term funds at concession rates to the poorest member countries.
B. To promote the development of Private enterprises in member countries.
C. To regulate the exchange rates and enforce the rules.
D. To promote exchange stability, maintaining orderly exchange arrangements and avoiding competitive exchange devaluation.
E. To assist in establishment of a multilateral system of payments in respect of current transaction between members.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AC, D and E Only
2. BA, C and E Only
3. CA, B and C Only
4. DB, C and D Only
Answer: (D) B, C and D Only
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: C, D and E Only 🧾 Explanation: The International Monetary Fund (IMF) was established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference with the primary aim of ensuring the stability of the international monetary system. Its key objectives include: C. To regulate the exchange rates and enforce the rules:The IMF oversees the international monetary system and monitors the economic and financial policies of its member countries to ensure exchange rate stability. D. To promote exchange stability, maintaining orderly exchange arrangements and avoiding competitive exchange devaluation:A core mission of the IMF is to support stable exchange rates and discourage practices that could lead to instability in international trade. E. To assist in establishment of a multilateral system of payments in respect of current transaction between members:The IMF promotes the elimination of foreign exchange restrictions and helps establish a system where current transactions between countries can proceed freely and predictably. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: A. To provide long-term funds at concession rates to the poorest member countries:This is primarily the role of the World Bank and its affiliates like the International Development Association (IDA), not the IMF. B. To promote the development of Private enterprises in member countries:This is mainly the function of the International Finance Corporation (IFC), part of the World Bank Group, not the IMF. ✅ Final Answer: C, D and E Only
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Question 83
What is the primary objective of a feasibility study?
1. ATo assess the historical background of a business
2. BTo persuade investors to fund a project
3. CTo uncover strength and weakness of a business idea
4. DTo outline the technical development process
Answer: (C) To uncover strength and weakness of a business idea
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: To uncover strength and weakness of a business idea ✅ Explanation:The primary objective of a feasibility study is to analyze the strengths and weaknesses of a proposed business idea or project to determine whether it is viable and worth pursuing. This includes evaluating aspects such as: Market feasibility (demand, competition) Technical feasibility (resources, capabilities) Financial feasibility (costs, returns, funding) Legal and regulatory feasibility Operational feasibility This thorough assessment helps in making informed decisions before committing significant time and resources. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: To persuade investors to fund a project: This may be a secondary outcome, but the feasibility study is meant for internal decision-making, not sales or promotion. To assess the historical background of a business: This is part of a business analysis, not the primary focus of a feasibility study. To outline the technical development process: That is a part of a technical plan or project plan, not the main goal of a feasibility study. ✅ Final Answer: To uncover strength and weakness of a business idea
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Question 84
What is the belief among pluralists regarding conflict in an organization?
1. AConflict is necessary but it can be managed and resolved
2. BConflict should be eliminated through strict rules
3. CConflict is necessary and should be ignored
4. DConflict is unnecessary and should be avoided at all cost
Answer: (C) Conflict is necessary and should be ignored
Explanation
✅ Correct answer: Conflict is necessary but it can be managed and resolved Unit II: Organizational Behaviour Topic: Group Behaviour: Group Dynamics (Conflict Management) 📘 Explanation: Conflict is a process in which one party perceives that another party has negatively affected, or is likely to negatively affect, something that the first party values. Management thinkers have explained organizational conflict through three major views (theories), each having a different perspective on the role of conflict in organizations. Traditional View of Conflict:Conflict is unnecessary and should be avoided at all cost Reason: This view considers conflict harmful and believes it should be avoided or eliminated. It assumes that conflict arises due to poor communication, lack of trust, or ineffective management. Human Relations (Pluralist) View of Conflict: Conflict is necessary but it can be managed and resolved Reason: This view considers conflict as a natural and unavoidable part of organizational life because people have different goals, opinions, and interests. It believes that conflict can be managed and resolved in a constructive way to improve organizational effectiveness. Interactionist View of Conflict: Conflict is necessary and should be encouraged to some extent. Reason: This view argues that some level of conflict is desirable because it promotes creativity, innovation, and better decision-making. Too little conflict may lead to complacency and poor organizational performance. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Conflict is unnecessary and should be avoided at all cost Reason: This represents the Traditional View of Conflict, which considers conflict harmful and believes it should be prevented or eliminated. Conflict is necessary and should be ignored Reason: Although the pluralist view accepts conflict as natural, it does not support ignoring it. Unresolved conflict can negatively affect teamwork, employee morale, and organizational performance. Conflict should be eliminated through strict rules Reason: This reflects the traditional approach of suppressing conflict through rigid rules and controls. The pluralist view focuses on managing conflict through communication, negotiation, and conflict resolution techniques. ✅ Final Answer: Conflict is necessary but it can be managed and resolved.
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Question 85
Arrange the major steps of Luthan’s O.B. Mod approach to behavioral performance management from earlier to later
A. Measure
B. Identify
C. Intervene
D. Analyze
E. Evaluate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, C, B, E, D
2. BA, B, C, D, E
3. CB, A, D, C, E
4. DB, C, D, E, A
Answer: (D) B, C, D, E, A
Explanation
✅ Correct answer: B, A, D, C, E Unit II: Organizational Behaviour Topic: Individual Behaviour: Learning (OB Mod) 📘 Explanation: Organizational Behaviour Modification (OB Mod) is a behaviour management technique developed by Fred Luthans based on B.F. Skinner’s Operant Conditioning Theory. It applies reinforcement principles to encourage desirable workplace behaviours and improve employee performance. Luthans proposed a five-step OB Mod process for managing behaviour systematically: B. Identify Reason: The first step is to identify the critical behaviours that significantly affect employee or organizational performance. A. Measure Reason: After identifying the behaviour, its current frequency or performance level is measured to establish a baseline. D. Analyze Reason: The causes and consequences of the behaviour are analyzed to understand why it occurs and what reinforces it. C. Intervene Reason: Appropriate interventions such as positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, punishment, or extinction are applied to modify behaviour. E. Evaluate Reason: The final step is to assess whether the intervention has successfully changed behaviour and improved performance. ✅ Final Answer: B, A, D, C, E
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Question 86
Which type of Intrapreneur is known for generating innovative ideas and seeking ways to improve process?
1. AImplementers Intrapreneur
2. BCreator Intrapreneur
3. CEmployee Intrapreneur
4. DDoers Intrapreneur
Answer: (C) Employee Intrapreneur
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: Creator Intrapreneur ✅ Explanation:Creator Intrapreneurs are known for their ability to generate innovative ideas and proactively seek ways to improve processes, products, or services within an organization. They are the visionaries who thrive on creativity and original thinking, often identifying opportunities for innovation that others may overlook. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Employee Intrapreneur: This is a general term that refers to any employee exhibiting entrepreneurial behavior within an organization. It’s not a specific type. Doers Intrapreneur: These are action-oriented individuals who execute ideas effectively but may not necessarily be the originators of those ideas. Implementers Intrapreneur: Focused on putting plans into action; they excel at operationalizing strategies rather than originating them. ✅ Final Answer: Creator Intrapreneur
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Question 87
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I: Model/framework List-II: Developed by
A. VRIO framework I. J. B. Barney
B. Value-chain analysis II. M. E. Porter
C. Product-market matrix III. H. I. Ansoff
D. PEST analysis IV. Johnson and Scholes
1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2. BA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
3. CA-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
4. DA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Answer: (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Explanation
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Question 88
“Consumer buying behaviour in situations characterised by high consumer involvement in a purchase and significant perceived differences among brands” is termed as:
1. AHabitual bying behaviour
2. BVariety-seeking buying behaviour
3. CComplex buying behaviour
4. DDissonance-reducing buying behaviour
Answer: (A) Habitual bying behaviour
Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: Complex buying behaviour ✅ Explanation: Complex buying behaviour occurs when the consumer is highly involved in the purchase decision and perceives significant differences among brands. This type of behaviour is usually observed in the purchase of expensive, infrequent, and high-risk products, such as buying a house, car, or laptop. Consumers spend a lot of time researching and comparing alternatives before making a decision. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Dissonance-reducing buying behaviour:❌ Involves high involvement but little perceived brand difference. The consumer is worried about post-purchase dissonance and chooses quickly, e.g., buying carpet flooring. Habitual buying behaviour:❌ Characterized by low involvement and little brand difference, such as buying salt or toothpaste regularly without much thought. Variety-seeking buying behaviour:❌ Involves low involvement but significant brand differences, such as choosing snacks or cookies — consumers may switch brands for the sake of variety. ✅ Final Answer: Complex buying behaviour ✅
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Question 89
If Rf = 10%, Rm = 18%, and B = 1.35, what is the expected rate of return for security?
1. A18.80%
2. B28.80%
3. C8.80%
4. D20.80%
Answer: (D) 20.80%
Explanation
✅Correct answer: 20.80% 📘 Explanation: This question is based on the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) used to calculate the required rate of return on equity. The formula is: Ke = Rf + beta(Rm – Rf) Risk-free Rate = Rf = 10% Market Rate of Return = Rm = 18% Beta = beta = 1.35 Return on Equity = Ke = ? Return on Equity: Ke = Rf + beta(Rm – Rf) Ke = 10 + 1.35(18-10) Ke = 10 + 1.35*8 Ke = 10 + 10.8 Ke = 20.8 ✅ Final Answer: 20.80%
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Question 90
Which one of the following is true about the role of sales force/personal selling?
1. APersonal selling consists largely of non-personal communication with large groups of customers
2. BPersonal selling is the interpersonal arm of the promotion mix
3. CPersonal selling is less effective than advertising in complex selling situations
4. DA sales force cannot adjust an offer and presentation to individual customer needs
Answer: (B) Personal selling is the interpersonal arm of the promotion mix
Explanation
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Question 91
What might employees in a competitive organisational culture display?
Organizational culture refers to workplace qualities that influence employees, while organizational behavior is the resulting behavior of people within the organization. Culture includes core values, a mission statement, and expectations of employees. A customer-service culture can encourage communication, professionalism, customer satisfaction, friendliness, and helpfulness. A competitive culture can instead prompt aggressiveness and competitiveness. Culture provides the foundation for employee behavior, so a healthy culture is essential for a positive working environment.
1. ACooperation and teamwork
2. BFriendliness and helpfulness
3. CIndifference and passiveness
4. DAggressiveness and competitiveness
Answer: (D) Aggressiveness and competitiveness
Explanation
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Question 92
Which of the following is NOT a factor included in organisational culture?
Organizational culture refers to workplace qualities that influence employees, while organizational behavior is the resulting behavior of people within the organization. Culture includes core values, a mission statement, and expectations of employees. A customer-service culture can encourage communication, professionalism, customer satisfaction, friendliness, and helpfulness. A competitive culture can instead prompt aggressiveness and competitiveness. Culture provides the foundation for employee behavior, so a healthy culture is essential for a positive working environment.
1. ACore values
2. BCompany's mission
3. CEmployee's salary
4. DExpectations of employees
Answer: (C) Employee's salary
Explanation
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Question 93
In a company with a culture focused on customer service, employees are expected to demonstrate behaviours such as:
Organizational culture refers to workplace qualities that influence employees, while organizational behavior is the resulting behavior of people within the organization. Culture includes core values, a mission statement, and expectations of employees. A customer-service culture can encourage communication, professionalism, customer satisfaction, friendliness, and helpfulness. A competitive culture can instead prompt aggressiveness and competitiveness. Culture provides the foundation for employee behavior, so a healthy culture is essential for a positive working environment.
1. ACompetitiveness and aggression
2. BFriendliness and helpfulness
3. CIndependence and autonomy
4. DInnovation and creativity
Answer: (B) Friendliness and helpfulness
Explanation
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Question 94
What role does organisational behavior play in the workplace?
Organizational culture refers to workplace qualities that influence employees, while organizational behavior is the resulting behavior of people within the organization. Culture includes core values, a mission statement, and expectations of employees. A customer-service culture can encourage communication, professionalism, customer satisfaction, friendliness, and helpfulness. A competitive culture can instead prompt aggressiveness and competitiveness. Culture provides the foundation for employee behavior, so a healthy culture is essential for a positive working environment.
1. AIt defines organisational goals
2. BIt represents resultant employee actions
3. CIt determines managerial decisions
4. DIt outlines employee training programmes
Answer: (B) It represents resultant employee actions
Explanation
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Question 95
Which statement best describes the relationship between organisational culture and organisational behavior?
Organizational culture refers to workplace qualities that influence employees, while organizational behavior is the resulting behavior of people within the organization. Culture includes core values, a mission statement, and expectations of employees. A customer-service culture can encourage communication, professionalism, customer satisfaction, friendliness, and helpfulness. A competitive culture can instead prompt aggressiveness and competitiveness. Culture provides the foundation for employee behavior, so a healthy culture is essential for a positive working environment.
1. AOrganisational culture influences the resulting behavior of employees
2. BOrganisational culture is the result of organisational behavior
3. COrganisational behavior is solely determined by external factors
4. DOrganisational behavior is independent of organisational culture
Answer: (A) Organisational culture influences the resulting behavior of employees
Explanation
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Question 96
Which statement summarises a potential outcome of AI advancement in the workforce according to the passage?
AI affects the workforce through automation of repetitive tasks, changing skill requirements, and possible job displacement. It can free employees for complex and creative work and create jobs in data analytics, machine learning, and AI development, but also creates a need for reskilling and upskilling. Risks include algorithmic bias and discrimination, privacy concerns, and cybersecurity threats. AI can nevertheless improve efficiency and productivity and create opportunities for workers with appropriate skills and knowledge.
1. AAI will eliminate all job roles that require creativity
2. BAI will benefit workers in specialised technical fields
3. CAI advancement may create new job opportunities
4. DAI will lead to a decrease in overall workforce productivity
Answer: (C) AI advancement may create new job opportunities
Explanation
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Question 97
What is one potential benefit of AI in the workforce mentioned in the passage?
AI affects the workforce through automation of repetitive tasks, changing skill requirements, and possible job displacement. It can free employees for complex and creative work and create jobs in data analytics, machine learning, and AI development, but also creates a need for reskilling and upskilling. Risks include algorithmic bias and discrimination, privacy concerns, and cybersecurity threats. AI can nevertheless improve efficiency and productivity and create opportunities for workers with appropriate skills and knowledge.
1. AIncreased job displacement
2. BAutomation of repetitive tasks
3. CReduced need for creativity
4. DDecreased demand for data analysis
Answer: (B) Automation of repetitive tasks
Explanation
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Question 98
According to the passage, what must be ensured as AI becomes more advanced in the workforce?
AI affects the workforce through automation of repetitive tasks, changing skill requirements, and possible job displacement. It can free employees for complex and creative work and create jobs in data analytics, machine learning, and AI development, but also creates a need for reskilling and upskilling. Risks include algorithmic bias and discrimination, privacy concerns, and cybersecurity threats. AI can nevertheless improve efficiency and productivity and create opportunities for workers with appropriate skills and knowledge.
1. AProtection of personal data and cybersecurity
2. BImproved job security for all workers
3. CIncreased bias in decision making
4. DDecreased efficiency in operations
Answer: (A) Protection of personal data and cybersecurity
Explanation
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Question 99
Which potential drawback of AI in the workforce is associated with algorithmic decision-making?
AI affects the workforce through automation of repetitive tasks, changing skill requirements, and possible job displacement. It can free employees for complex and creative work and create jobs in data analytics, machine learning, and AI development, but also creates a need for reskilling and upskilling. Risks include algorithmic bias and discrimination, privacy concerns, and cybersecurity threats. AI can nevertheless improve efficiency and productivity and create opportunities for workers with appropriate skills and knowledge.
1. AReduced efficiency
2. BIncreased job satisfaction
3. CBias and discrimination
4. DEnhanced security measures
Answer: (C) Bias and discrimination
Explanation
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Question 100
Which skill is likely to become increasingly important in light of AI's impact on the workforce?
AI affects the workforce through automation of repetitive tasks, changing skill requirements, and possible job displacement. It can free employees for complex and creative work and create jobs in data analytics, machine learning, and AI development, but also creates a need for reskilling and upskilling. Risks include algorithmic bias and discrimination, privacy concerns, and cybersecurity threats. AI can nevertheless improve efficiency and productivity and create opportunities for workers with appropriate skills and knowledge.
1. AManual labour
2. BRoutine administrative tasks
3. CFollowing predefined procedures
4. DCreative thinking and problem-solving
Answer: (D) Creative thinking and problem-solving
Explanation
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Attempt Paper 2 — Management · June 2, 2024 as a timed test

Exam	UGC NET June 2024
Papers	Paper 1 (General Aptitude) and Paper 2 (Management)
Exam date(s)	June 2, 2024 · June 18, 2024
Shift(s)	Shift 2
Paper 1 questions	50 questions · 60 minutes · 100 marks
Paper 2 questions	100 questions · 120 minutes · 200 marks
Total	150 questions
Marking scheme	+2 per correct answer · No negative marking

Disease	Patients (%)
Heart Disease	22%
AIDS	10%
TB	8%
Hepatitis	6%
Kidney Disease	30%
Others	24%

Continent	All Patients (%)	Kidney Patients (%)
Europe	10%	10%
Australia	6%	5%
South America	15%	40%
Africa	25%	10%
North America	12%	15%
Asia	32%	20%

Disease	Patients (%)
Heart Disease	22%
AIDS	10%
TB	8%
Hepatitis	6%
Kidney Disease	30%
Others	24%

Continent	All Patients (%)	Kidney Patients (%)
Europe	10%	10%
Australia	6%	5%
South America	15%	40%
Africa	25%	10%
North America	12%	15%
Asia	32%	20%

Year	2021	2022
Sales	₹32,00,000	₹57,00,000
Profit/Loss	₹3,00,000	₹7,00,000

List-I: Ind AS	List-II: Related to
A. Ind AS 12	I. Earnings per share
B. Ind AS 16	II. Intangible assets
C. Ind AS 33	III. Property, plant and equipment
D. Ind AS 38	IV. Income taxes

List-I: Model/framework	List-II: Developed by
A. VRIO framework	I. J. B. Barney
B. Value-chain analysis	II. M. E. Porter
C. Product-market matrix	III. H. I. Ansoff
D. PEST analysis	IV. Johnson and Scholes

List I (Communication form)	List II (Description)
A. Personal address	I. Sequential accounts told and retold from a particular viewpoint
B. Social drama	II. Subject to a community's rules for appropriate conduct
C. Narratives	III. Points to self and others in interaction
D. Silence	IV. Invokes local socio-cultural rules for behavior

Water-specific diseases	Examples
A. Waterborne diseases (due to ingestion of polluted water)	I. Malaria
B. Water-washed diseases (due to lack of cleaning water)	II. Schistosomiasis
C. Water-based diseases (due to contact with polluted water)	III. Typhoid
D. Water-related diseases (due to habitation of disease-causing parasites in polluted water)	IV. Trachoma

Internet Protocol	Internet Activity
A. HTTP	I. Sends email through the Internet
B. SSL	II. Encrypts data for online transmission
C. SMTP	III. Sends TCP/IP packets to a web server for displaying web pages
D. FTP	IV. Transfers files over the Internet

College	Founder
A. Poona College for Hindu Learning	I. Alexander Duff
B. Hindu College, Kolkata (Presidency College)	II. M. Elphinstone
C. Bishop College, Sibpur	III. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
D. Scottish Missionary College, Kolkata	IV. Church of England

Threats to Internal Validity	Description
A. Maturation threat	I. When participants' behavior changes as a function of having been tested previously.
B. Attrition threat	II. When some event outside the research project affects participants systematically.
C. History threat	III. Occurs because of short- or long-term changes in participants due to psychological changes such as boredom, fatigue, etc.
D. Testing threat	IV. When participants drop out of a study, leading to a change in the nature of the sample.

From / To	W1	W2	W3	Supply
F1	16	20	12	200
F2	14	8	18	160
F3	26	24	16	100
Demand	180	130	150	460

Words	Codes
A. BOLT	I. 52
B. RING	II. 50
C. SOLD	III. 49
D. FROM	IV. 48

UGC NET Management June 2024 Question PaperPaper 1 & Paper 2 with Answer Key

UGC NET June 2024 at a glance

Management

General Aptitude

Paper 2 — Management · June 2, 2024

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