UGC NET Management January 2025 Question PaperPaper 1 & Paper 2 with Answer Key

50 questions with the answer key and explanations.

1. Question 1

   If the number of employees in IT and Marketing increases by 60% and 20%, respectively, in the next year, what is the ratio of employees in IT and Marketing?

   The table gives the percentage distribution of a company's employees. Marketing has 560 employees.

   Department	IT	Accounts	HR	Marketing	Production	Sales
   Percentage distribution	8%	18%	12%	14%	32%	16%

   1. A13 : 19
   2. B3 : 4
   3. C16 : 21
   4. D2 : 3

   Answer: (C) 16 : 21

   Explanation

   Marketing is 14% of the workforce, so the total is 560 / 0.14 = 4,000. IT becomes 320 × 1.60 = 512 and Marketing becomes 560 × 1.20 = 672; 512 : 672 simplifies to 16 : 21; therefore option C follows because the calculation directly compares the required quantities.

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2. Question 2

   If the male:female ratio in Accounts is 5:4 and 60% of HR employees are female, what is the total number of male employees in Accounts and HR?

   The table gives the percentage distribution of a company's employees. Marketing has 560 employees.

   Department	IT	Accounts	HR	Marketing	Production	Sales
   Percentage distribution	8%	18%	12%	14%	32%	16%

   1. A592
   2. B594
   3. C596
   4. D598

   Answer: (A) 592

   Explanation

   The total workforce is 4,000. Accounts has 720 employees, of whom 5/9 × 720 = 400 are male. HR has 480 employees and 40% are male, giving 192; together the total is 592; therefore option A follows because the calculation directly compares the required quantities.

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3. Question 3

   If the number of employees in Sales increases by 25% in the next year, what will be the number of employees in that department?

   The table gives the percentage distribution of a company's employees. Marketing has 560 employees.

   Department	IT	Accounts	HR	Marketing	Production	Sales
   Percentage distribution	8%	18%	12%	14%	32%	16%

   1. A700
   2. B800
   3. C900
   4. D920

   Answer: (B) 800

   Explanation

   The total workforce is 4,000, so Sales has 16% × 4,000 = 640 employees. A 25% increase adds 160 employees, giving 800; therefore option B follows because the calculation directly compares the required quantities.

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4. Question 4

   The number of employees in HR is what percentage less than the number in Production?

   The table gives the percentage distribution of a company's employees. Marketing has 560 employees.

   Department	IT	Accounts	HR	Marketing	Production	Sales
   Percentage distribution	8%	18%	12%	14%	32%	16%

   1. A64.5
   2. B61.5
   3. C63.5
   4. D62.5

   Answer: (D) 62.5

   Explanation

   HR has 12% × 4,000 = 480 employees and Production has 32% × 4,000 = 1,280. The shortfall is 800, and 800 / 1,280 × 100 = 62.5%; therefore option D follows because the calculation directly compares the required quantities.

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5. Question 5

   What is the average number of employees in Accounts, HR, Marketing and Production?

   The table gives the percentage distribution of a company's employees. Marketing has 560 employees.

   Department	IT	Accounts	HR	Marketing	Production	Sales
   Percentage distribution	8%	18%	12%	14%	32%	16%

   1. A760
   2. B780
   3. C800
   4. D820

   Answer: (A) 760

   Explanation

   The four department counts are 720, 480, 560 and 1,280. Their sum is 3,040, and dividing by four gives an average of 760; therefore option A follows because the calculation directly compares the required quantities.

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6. Question 6

   What is the full form of the acronym CBFC?

   1. ACentral Board of Film Censors
   2. BCentral Bureau of Film Certification
   3. CCentral Bureau of Film Censors
   4. DCentral Board of Film Certification

   Answer: (D) Central Board of Film Certification

   Explanation

   CBFC stands for Central Board of Film Certification. It is India's statutory film-certification body; the alternatives change either Board to Bureau or Certification to Censors.

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7. Question 7

   A man can complete work in 10 days. Together, the man and a boy can complete it in 8 days. What is the ratio of their efficiencies?

   1. A2 : 1
   2. B3 : 1
   3. C4 : 1
   4. D5 : 1

   Answer: (C) 4 : 1

   Explanation

   The man's rate is 1/10 per day and the combined rate is 1/8. The boy's rate is 1/8 − 1/10 = 1/40, so man:boy efficiency is 1/10 : 1/40 = 4 : 1; therefore option C follows because the calculation directly compares the required quantities.

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8. Question 8

   Which ethical principles should be followed in a research project dealing with human beings?

   A. All participants must give informed consent
   B. All participants should have adequate information on the experiment
   C. Rough treatment of participants is sometimes justifiable
   D. Some unwilling participants may be included

   1. AA and D only
   2. BA and B only
   3. CB, C and D only
   4. DB and C only

   Answer: (B) A and B only

   Explanation

   Human-subject research requires informed consent and enough information for a meaningful decision. Rough treatment and enrolling unwilling people violate the ethical duties of respect and non-maleficence.

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9. Question 9

   Match List-I with List-II.

   List-I (Schemes)	List-II (Objectives)
   A. Malviya Mission Scheme	I. Scholarship for north-east students
   B. Vidyanjali	II. To garner international experience
   C. GIAN	III. Remedial classes and training
   D. Ishan Uday	IV. Professional development of teachers

   1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
   2. BA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
   3. CA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
   4. DA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

   Answer: (D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

   Explanation

   Malviya Mission develops teachers, Vidyanjali supports remedial teaching, GIAN brings international expertise, and Ishan Uday is the north-east scholarship scheme. Thus the mapping is A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I.

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10. Question 10

    What can correctly be inferred from the mood OAO in the second figure?

    A. The middle term is distributed in the major premise
    B. It commits illicit minor fallacy
    C. The middle term is predicate in the minor premise
    D. The middle term is distributed in the minor premise
    E. The predicate of the conclusion is distributed

    1. AB and C only
    2. BA and D only
    3. CB and D only
    4. DA, C and E only

    Answer: (D) A, C and E only

    Explanation

    In second figure the middle term is predicate in both premises. An O major premise distributes that predicate, while the O conclusion distributes its predicate; the minor term is not illicitly distributed. Therefore A, C and E are correct.

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11. Question 11

    Which of the following goals is not a Millennium Development Goal?

    1. AEradicate extreme poverty and hunger
    2. BReduce child mortality
    3. CClimate action
    4. DEnsure environmental sustainability

    Answer: (C) Climate action

    Explanation

    The Millennium Development Goals included poverty and hunger, child mortality, and environmental sustainability. Climate action is a distinct Sustainable Development Goal adopted later in the SDG framework.

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12. Question 12

    Which is not a property of the chi-square distribution?

    1. AFor large degrees of freedom, it approaches a normal distribution
    2. BChi-square is a test statistic
    3. CThree times the number of degrees of freedom equals the variance
    4. DTwo times the number of degrees of freedom equals the variance

    Answer: (C) Three times the number of degrees of freedom equals the variance

    Explanation

    For a chi-square distribution with ν degrees of freedom, the mean is ν and the variance is 2ν. It becomes more normal-shaped for large ν, so the statement using 3ν is the incorrect one.

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13. Question 13

    Which apply to quantitative research methodology?

    A. Rationalism
    B. Emphasis on description of variables
    C. Empiricism
    D. Exploration of experiences, meanings, perceptions and feelings
    E. Structurally rigid methodology

    1. AA, B and D only
    2. BB, C and E only
    3. CA and E only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (B) B, C and E only

    Explanation

    Quantitative research measures and describes variables, relies on empirical observation, and typically follows a structured design. Exploring subjective meanings and feelings is characteristic of qualitative rather than quantitative research.

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14. Question 14

    In a coding scheme, ‘AC’ is coded as 8 and ‘PQ’ as 33. What is the code of ‘XZ’?

    1. A100
    2. B51
    3. C71
    4. D87

    Answer: (A) 100

    Explanation

    Use alphabetical positions and multiply their sum by their difference. AC gives (1 + 3) × (3 − 1) = 8 and PQ gives (16 + 17) × 1 = 33. Hence XZ gives (24 + 26) × 2 = 100; therefore option A follows because the calculation directly compares the required quantities.

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15. Question 15

    Arrange the principal soil profiles from top to bottom.

    A. A-horizon
    B. B-horizon
    C. C-horizon
    D. O-horizon
    E. R-horizon

    1. AA, B, D, E, C
    2. BB, A, C, D, E
    3. CD, A, B, C, E
    4. DC, B, A, E, D

    Answer: (C) D, A, B, C, E

    Explanation

    A complete soil profile runs from organic litter at the surface to bedrock: O, A, B, C, R. Therefore the required ordering is D, A, B, C, E.

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16. Question 16

    In constructing a good definition by genus and difference, what must be avoided?

    A. Stating the conventional intension of the term
    B. Stating the essential attributes
    C. Letting the definiendum appear in the definiens
    D. Letting the definiens denote more things than the definiendum
    E. Avoiding a negative definition when an affirmative one is possible

    1. AB and C only
    2. BA, D and E only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DB, D and E only

    Answer: (C) C and D only

    Explanation

    A definition is circular if the term being defined appears in its own definition. It is also too broad if the definiens applies to more things than the definiendum, so C and D must be avoided.

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17. Question 17

    Arrange the steps of the inference method of learning.

    A. Conclusion
    B. Reason
    C. Proposition
    D. Example
    E. Application

    1. AE-D-B-C-A
    2. BC-B-D-E-A
    3. CB-C-D-E-A
    4. DE-C-D-B-A

    Answer: (B) C-B-D-E-A

    Explanation

    The inference method begins with a proposition, explains the reason, illustrates it with examples, and then applies it before drawing the conclusion. The sequence is C, B, D, E, A.

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18. Question 18

    Which of the following are known carcinogens?

    A. Nickel
    B. Cadmium
    C. Benzene
    D. Ozone

    1. AA, B and D only
    2. BA, C and D only
    3. CB, C and D only
    4. DA, B and C only

    Answer: (D) A, B and C only

    Explanation

    Nickel compounds, cadmium compounds and benzene are established human carcinogens. Ozone is a harmful air pollutant, but it is not classified here as the carcinogen among these choices.

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19. Question 19

    What is the full form of WWW?

    1. AWorld White Web
    2. BWorld Wide Web
    3. CWorst Wide Web
    4. DWorst White Web

    Answer: (B) World Wide Web

    Explanation

    WWW stands for World Wide Web, the linked hypertext information system accessed through the internet. The other expansions alter standard words in the established acronym.

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20. Question 20

    Find the next term in the letter series: BFD, ELG, HRJ, ____.

    1. AKUM
    2. BJXM
    3. CKTM
    4. DKXM

    Answer: (A) KUM

    Explanation

    Each letter advances by three positions in its own column: B-E-H-K, F-I-L-U, and D-G-J-M. Applying those column-wise increments gives KUM; therefore option A follows because the calculation directly compares the required quantities.

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21. Question 21

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Author)	List-II (Books)
    A. Bourdieu, P	I. Theories of Media, Theories of Society
    B. Manuel Castells	II. The Culture Industry: Enlightenment as Mass Deception
    C. Adorno, T and Horkheimer	III. Public Opinion Does Not Exist
    D. Bennett, T	IV. The Internet Galaxy

    1. AA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    2. BA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    4. DA-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

    Answer: (A) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Explanation

    Bourdieu wrote ‘Public Opinion Does Not Exist’; Castells wrote ‘The Internet Galaxy’; Adorno and Horkheimer wrote ‘The Culture Industry’; and Bennett wrote ‘Theories of Media, Theories of Society’. Thus A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I is correct.

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22. Question 22

    Arrange the steps of the data-processing cycle in the correct sequence.

    A. Input
    B. Output
    C. Processing
    D. Storage

    1. AD, A, C, B
    2. BA, C, D, B
    3. CA, B, C, D
    4. DB, A, C, D

    Answer: (B) A, C, D, B

    Explanation

    Data first enters the system as input, is processed, stored as needed, and then presented as output. This gives the conventional sequence A, C, D, B.

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23. Question 23

    The Ten Category System that measures verbal interactions in the classroom was developed by whom?

    1. ARobert Flaser
    2. BB. F. Skinner
    3. CIsrael Scheffler
    4. DNed A. Flanders

    Answer: (D) Ned A. Flanders

    Explanation

    Flanders developed the Flanders Interaction Analysis Categories, a ten-category system for observing classroom verbal interaction. Skinner is associated with operant conditioning, not this interaction-analysis system.

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24. Question 24

    Arrange Maslow's hierarchy of needs from lowest to highest.

    A. Self-actualization
    B. Self-esteem needs
    C. Physiological needs
    D. Social needs
    E. Safety-security needs

    1. AC, E, D, B, A
    2. BE, D, A, B, C
    3. CE, B, C, D, A
    4. DC, A, B, D, E

    Answer: (A) C, E, D, B, A

    Explanation

    Maslow places physiological needs first, followed by safety, belongingness or social needs, esteem, and self-actualization. The sequence is therefore C, E, D, B, A.

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25. Question 25

    Pick the correct statements.

    A. UGC plagiarism regulations allow a similarity index up to ten percent
    B. Emphasis on mother tongue as medium of instruction was first suggested by NEP 2020
    C. Operation Blackboard was recommended by RTE 2009
    D. NEP 2020 suggests a 5+3+3+4 system instead of 10+2+3

    1. AB and C only
    2. BA and D only
    3. CA, B and C only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (B) A and D only

    Explanation

    UGC regulations treat similarity up to 10% as Level 0, and NEP 2020 replaces the old structure with 5+3+3+4. Mother-tongue instruction predates NEP 2020, while Operation Blackboard came from the 1986 education policy, not RTE 2009.

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26. Question 26

    Which are non-projected aids?

    A. Epidiascope
    B. Audio cassettes
    C. Filmstrip and slides
    D. Models
    E. Plastigraph

    1. AA and C only
    2. BB, C and E only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DB, D and E only

    Answer: (D) B, D and E only

    Explanation

    Audio cassettes, physical models and plastigraphs are used without projecting an image onto a screen. An epidiascope and filmstrips or slides are projection-based aids, so B, D and E are non-projected.

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27. Question 27

    A man earns an annual pay of Rs 9.0 lakh. His expenditure and savings are in the ratio 5:1. What are his average monthly savings?

    1. ARs 15,000
    2. BRs 12,500
    3. CRs 16,000
    4. DRs 18,000

    Answer: (B) Rs 12,500

    Explanation

    Savings are one of six equal parts of the annual income. One-sixth of Rs 9,00,000 is Rs 1,50,000 per year, and Rs 1,50,000 divided by 12 is Rs 12,500 per month; therefore option B follows because the calculation directly compares the required quantities.

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28. Question 28

    Two successive discounts of 10% and 15% are equivalent to a single discount of:

    1. A23.5%
    2. B25%
    3. C18.5%
    4. D22.5%

    Answer: (A) 23.5%

    Explanation

    Successive discounts multiply the remaining price, not the discount percentages. The retained price is 0.90 × 0.85 = 0.765, so the discount is 1 − 0.765 = 23.5%; therefore option A follows because the calculation directly compares the required quantities.

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29. Question 29

    Which of the following is a non-impact printer?

    1. ADot matrix
    2. BDaisy wheel
    3. CLine printer
    4. DLaser printer

    Answer: (D) Laser printer

    Explanation

    A laser printer forms an image electrostatically and uses toner, so it does not strike the paper. Dot-matrix, daisy-wheel and line printers are impact printers because they print by mechanical impact.

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30. Question 30

    Pedagogy refers to:

    1. ATeaching-learning process
    2. BChild psychology
    3. CTeaching methods
    4. DEvaluation and measurement of learning

    Answer: (A) Teaching-learning process

    Explanation

    Pedagogy is the theory and practice of teaching and learning. Teaching methods are one element within it, whereas child psychology and evaluation are related but narrower fields.

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31. Question 31

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Teaching aids	I. Online education
    B. Chalkboard	II. Non-projective aid
    C. Overhead projector	III. Makes teaching-learning interesting
    D. MOOCs	IV. Projective aid

    1. AA-III, B-I, C-V, D-II
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    3. CA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    4. DA-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

    Answer: (D) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

    Explanation

    Teaching aids make learning interesting, a chalkboard is non-projective, an overhead projector is projective, and MOOCs provide online education. The mapping is A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I.

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32. Question 32

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Network devices)	List-II (Functions)
    A. Bridge	I. Receives data, analyses it and transmits it to other networks
    B. Router	II. Set of rules for connecting computers and devices through LAN cables
    C. Gateway	III. Serves as the entry and exit point of a network
    D. Ethernet	IV. Connects one LAN to another LAN using the same protocol

    1. AA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    2. BA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    3. CA-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
    4. DA-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

    Answer: (C) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

    Explanation

    A bridge connects LANs using the same protocol, a router receives and forwards across networks, a gateway is a network entry and exit point, and Ethernet specifies LAN connection rules. Therefore A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II is correct.

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33. Question 33

    Which statements about distribution of terms are correct?

    A. An A proposition distributes its predicate
    B. An E proposition distributes its subject and predicate
    C. An I proposition distributes only its subject
    D. An O proposition distributes only its predicate
    E. An A proposition distributes both subject and predicate

    1. AA and C only
    2. BB and D only
    3. CC and E only
    4. DD and E only

    Answer: (B) B and D only

    Explanation

    An E proposition distributes both terms, while an O proposition distributes only its predicate. An A proposition distributes only its subject, and an I proposition distributes neither term; hence B and D are correct.

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34. Question 34

    Which statements about network security are correct?

    A. Viruses, worms and Trojan horses are malware
    B. A Trojan horse is non-self-replicating malicious software
    C. Non-delivery after payment is phishing
    D. In HTTPS, s stands for Secure

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DA, B and D only

    Answer: (D) A, B and D only

    Explanation

    Viruses, worms and Trojans are malware, and a Trojan normally relies on deception rather than self-replication. HTTPS uses Secure; non-delivery after payment is a fraud scenario, not necessarily phishing.

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35. Question 35

    Which of the following does not refer to a style of referencing?

    1. AMLA
    2. BAPS
    3. CChicago
    4. DMHRA

    Answer: (B) APS

    Explanation

    MLA, Chicago and MHRA are established citation styles. APS is not a standard general referencing style in this list, so it is the item that does not fit.

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36. Question 36

    Who was the chairperson of the First Press Commission?

    1. AP. K. Goswami
    2. BK. K. Mathew
    3. CG. S. Rajadhyaksha
    4. DGirilal Jain

    Answer: (C) G. S. Rajadhyaksha

    Explanation

    The First Press Commission in India was chaired by Justice G. S. Rajadhyaksha. Its reports addressed the condition and development of the Indian press.

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37. Question 37

    According to Naiyayikas, universal soundness (sabdatva) inhering in sound is perceived through:

    1. ASamavaya
    2. BSamaveta-Samavaya
    3. CSamyukta-Samaveta-Samavaya
    4. DSamyukta-Visesanata

    Answer: (B) Samaveta-Samavaya

    Explanation

    Sabdatva is a universal that inheres in sound, and sound itself is connected by inherence. Nyaya describes perception of such a universal in an inhering quality through samaveta-samavaya.

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38. Question 38

    Identify the fallacy: ‘How do I know ginseng tea cures the common cold? Last week I had sniffles, drank a cup, and the next morning they were gone.’

    1. ASlippery slope
    2. BQuestionable cause
    3. CHasty generalization
    4. DStrawman

    Answer: (B) Questionable cause

    Explanation

    The argument treats a later recovery as proof that the tea caused it, ignoring natural recovery and other possible causes. This post hoc reasoning is the fallacy of questionable cause.

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39. Question 39

    In which categories did Charles Sanders Peirce classify signs?

    A. Object
    B. Indices
    C. Icons
    D. Interpretant
    E. Symbols

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and E only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DA, D and E only

    Answer: (B) B, C and E only

    Explanation

    Peirce's commonly taught classification of signs is icon, index and symbol. Object and interpretant are parts of his broader triadic sign relation, not the three categories requested here.

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40. Question 40

    Arrange the following in chronological order.

    A. Start of external services of All India Radio
    B. Establishment of Film Division
    C. Release of the talkie film ‘Alam Ara’
    D. Renaming Radio Broadcasting as All India Radio

    1. AC, D, A, B
    2. BC, B, D, A
    3. CA, B, C, D
    4. DD, C, A, B

    Answer: (A) C, D, A, B

    Explanation

    ‘Alam Ara’ was released in 1931. Radio Broadcasting was renamed All India Radio in 1936, external services began in 1939, and the Films Division was established in 1948; hence C, D, A, B.

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41. Question 41

    Which statements are correct about a hypothesis?

    A. It is a proved assumption
    B. It should be capable of being tested
    C. It should be inconsistent with known facts
    D. It should state a relationship between variables
    E. It should be limited in scope and specific

    1. AA and C only
    2. BB, D and E only
    3. CA, B and C only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (B) B, D and E only

    Explanation

    A hypothesis is a tentative, testable proposition rather than a proved assumption. It should fit known facts, state a relationship where relevant, and be sufficiently specific and limited for empirical testing.

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42. Question 42

    Which thermal-pollution reduction method is most expensive to construct and operate?

    1. ALarge shallow pond
    2. BCooling tower
    3. CSprinkler tower
    4. DDry tower

    Answer: (D) Dry tower

    Explanation

    Dry cooling towers need extensive specialised equipment and consume substantial energy to reject heat without evaporative cooling. Shallow ponds and wet or sprinkler systems are generally less expensive alternatives.

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43. Question 43

    Which of the following cannot be associated with skills?

    1. APractice
    2. BLearning
    3. CProficiency
    4. DIncapacity

    Answer: (D) Incapacity

    Explanation

    Skills are developed through learning and practice and are reflected in proficiency. Incapacity denotes inability rather than an acquired or demonstrated skill.

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44. Question 44

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Environment laws)	List-II (Year)
    A. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act	I. 1974
    B. Forest Conservation Act	II. 1981
    C. Environmental Protection Act	III. 1980
    D. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act	IV. 1986

    1. AA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
    3. CA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    4. DA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Answer: (D) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Explanation

    The Air Act is from 1981, Forest Conservation Act from 1980, Environment Protection Act from 1986, and Water Act from 1974. The resulting mapping is A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I.

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45. Question 45

    Unnat Bharat Abhiyan was launched in 2014 for:

    1. APromoting entrepreneurship
    2. BPromoting skill education
    3. CConnecting higher education institutions with society and villages
    4. DCottage and mid-size industries

    Answer: (C) Connecting higher education institutions with society and villages

    Explanation

    Unnat Bharat Abhiyan connects higher educational institutions with rural communities to identify and address village-development needs. It is not primarily an entrepreneurship, industry, or generic skill-education programme.

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46. Question 46

    Parts of which places are built on soft landfill or poorly consolidated soil?

    The 2004 earthquake and tsunami in Banda Aceh, Indonesia, killed over 230,000 people and caused damage as far away as Africa. Less than a year later, an earthquake in Pakistan killed 80,000 people. Earthquakes are sudden movements in the earth's crust along faults, where one rock mass slides past another.

    When movement along faults occurs gradually and smoothly, it is called creep or seismic slip. When friction prevents easy slipping, stress builds until it is released with a sudden jerk. The point on a fault at which the first movement occurs during an earthquake is called the epicenter.

    Cities such as Kobe, Japan, or Mexico City, parts of which are built on soft landfill or poorly consolidated soil, usually suffer the greatest damage. Water-saturated soil can liquify when shaken, and buildings can sink or fall under these conditions.

    1. AKobe, Japan and Mexico City
    2. BIndonesia and Pakistan
    3. CPakistan
    4. DIndonesia

    Answer: (A) Kobe, Japan and Mexico City

    Explanation

    The passage specifically identifies parts of Kobe and Mexico City as built on soft landfill or poorly consolidated soil. Indonesia and Pakistan are mentioned for earthquakes, not for this soil condition.

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47. Question 47

    The main cause of earthquakes can be considered as:

    The 2004 earthquake and tsunami in Banda Aceh, Indonesia, killed over 230,000 people and caused damage as far away as Africa. Less than a year later, an earthquake in Pakistan killed 80,000 people. Earthquakes are sudden movements in the earth's crust along faults, where one rock mass slides past another.

    When movement along faults occurs gradually and smoothly, it is called creep or seismic slip. When friction prevents easy slipping, stress builds until it is released with a sudden jerk. The point on a fault at which the first movement occurs during an earthquake is called the epicenter.

    Cities such as Kobe, Japan, or Mexico City, parts of which are built on soft landfill or poorly consolidated soil, usually suffer the greatest damage. Water-saturated soil can liquify when shaken, and buildings can sink or fall under these conditions.

    1. AVolcanic eruptions
    2. BSudden movements in the earth's crust along faults
    3. CFlood
    4. DExtreme weather conditions

    Answer: (B) Sudden movements in the earth's crust along faults

    Explanation

    The passage defines earthquakes as sudden movements in the earth's crust along faults. Floods and weather are unrelated here, while volcanic eruptions are not the stated general cause.

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48. Question 48

    Gradual and smooth movement along a fault is called:

    The 2004 earthquake and tsunami in Banda Aceh, Indonesia, killed over 230,000 people and caused damage as far away as Africa. Less than a year later, an earthquake in Pakistan killed 80,000 people. Earthquakes are sudden movements in the earth's crust along faults, where one rock mass slides past another.

    When movement along faults occurs gradually and smoothly, it is called creep or seismic slip. When friction prevents easy slipping, stress builds until it is released with a sudden jerk. The point on a fault at which the first movement occurs during an earthquake is called the epicenter.

    Cities such as Kobe, Japan, or Mexico City, parts of which are built on soft landfill or poorly consolidated soil, usually suffer the greatest damage. Water-saturated soil can liquify when shaken, and buildings can sink or fall under these conditions.

    1. ASeismic jerk
    2. BEpicenter
    3. CSeismic slip
    4. DFault rupture

    Answer: (C) Seismic slip

    Explanation

    The passage directly calls gradual, relatively smooth movement along faults creep or seismic slip. A sudden jerk describes stress release, while the epicenter is the initial point of movement.

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49. Question 49

    According to the passage, what can cause buildings to sink out of sight during an earthquake?

    The 2004 earthquake and tsunami in Banda Aceh, Indonesia, killed over 230,000 people and caused damage as far away as Africa. Less than a year later, an earthquake in Pakistan killed 80,000 people. Earthquakes are sudden movements in the earth's crust along faults, where one rock mass slides past another.

    When movement along faults occurs gradually and smoothly, it is called creep or seismic slip. When friction prevents easy slipping, stress builds until it is released with a sudden jerk. The point on a fault at which the first movement occurs during an earthquake is called the epicenter.

    Cities such as Kobe, Japan, or Mexico City, parts of which are built on soft landfill or poorly consolidated soil, usually suffer the greatest damage. Water-saturated soil can liquify when shaken, and buildings can sink or fall under these conditions.

    1. ATsunamis
    2. BCreep
    3. CShaking of water-saturated soil
    4. DSoil expansion

    Answer: (C) Shaking of water-saturated soil

    Explanation

    The passage explains that water-saturated soil can liquify when shaken. This liquefaction removes stable support beneath buildings, allowing them to sink or collapse.

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50. Question 50

    What is the epicenter in an earthquake?

    The 2004 earthquake and tsunami in Banda Aceh, Indonesia, killed over 230,000 people and caused damage as far away as Africa. Less than a year later, an earthquake in Pakistan killed 80,000 people. Earthquakes are sudden movements in the earth's crust along faults, where one rock mass slides past another.

    When movement along faults occurs gradually and smoothly, it is called creep or seismic slip. When friction prevents easy slipping, stress builds until it is released with a sudden jerk. The point on a fault at which the first movement occurs during an earthquake is called the epicenter.

    Cities such as Kobe, Japan, or Mexico City, parts of which are built on soft landfill or poorly consolidated soil, usually suffer the greatest damage. Water-saturated soil can liquify when shaken, and buildings can sink or fall under these conditions.

    1. AThe point where the most damage occurs
    2. BThe area with the highest population
    3. CThe point on a fault where the first movement occurs
    4. DThe centre of a tsunami

    Answer: (C) The point on a fault where the first movement occurs

    Explanation

    For this passage, the epicenter is defined as the point on a fault where the first movement occurs. The other choices describe possible effects or unrelated features, not the defined point.

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100 questions with the answer key and explanations.

1. Question 1

   Which of the following are functions of Management Information System (MIS)?

   A. To support tactical and operational decision making
   B. To process data into meaningful information
   C. To predict future data trends
   D. To develop artificial intelligence algorithm

   Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

   1. AA, B and C only
   2. BC and D only
   3. CA and B only
   4. DA and C only

   Answer: (C) A and B only

   Explanation

   Management Information Systems (MIS) primarily process operational data into structured, meaningful information and provide scheduled reports to support operational and tactical decision making.

   • A — MIS summarizes day-to-day operational transactions into periodic reports that help middle and lower-level managers track operations and make tactical decisions.
   • B — Transforming raw data into organized and meaningful information is the core function of any MIS.
   • C — Forecasting and predictive analytics are specialized functions of Decision Support Systems (DSS) or predictive modeling tools rather than routine MIS.
   • D — Developing AI algorithms is a computer science engineering process, not an organizational MIS function.

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2. Question 2

   Strategic analysis is concerned with evaluating the organization in terms of which of the following.

   1. AMission, corporate appraisal
   2. BMarket segmentation, product selection
   3. CSelection of competitors, choice of distribution channel
   4. DManpower planning, manpower inventory

   Answer: (A) Mission, corporate appraisal

   Explanation

   Strategic analysis evaluates the overall purpose and capabilities of an organization to establish long-term strategy.

   • A. Mission, corporate appraisal — correct. Strategic analysis begins by clarifying organizational purpose through the mission statement and assessing internal strengths and weaknesses alongside external conditions through corporate appraisal.
   • B. Market segmentation, product selection — these represent marketing-level tactical choices rather than holistic organizational strategic analysis.
   • C. Selection of competitors, choice of distribution channel — these are competitive positioning and channel management tactics.
   • D. Manpower planning, manpower inventory — these are operational human resource management activities.

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3. Question 3

   In Job Analysis, broadening of job design directly results in what, among the following?

   1. AEmployee motivation and job satisfaction
   2. BAutonomy of employees
   3. C360° feed back
   4. DBetter pay

   Answer: (A) Employee motivation and job satisfaction

   Explanation

   Broadening job design through job enlargement and job enrichment adds task variety and responsibility, directly enhancing employee motivation and job satisfaction.

   • A. Employee motivation and job satisfaction — correct. Hackman and Oldham's Job Characteristics Model demonstrates that greater skill variety, task identity, and significance directly improve intrinsic motivation and work satisfaction.
   • B. Autonomy of employees — autonomy specifically reflects freedom in decision-making and scheduling, which may be one component of enrichment but is not the overall direct outcome of job broadening.
   • C. 360° feed back — this is a multi-source performance appraisal method, completely distinct from job design.
   • D. Better pay — pay levels are governed by compensation policies and wage structures rather than job design alone.

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4. Question 4

   Arrange the following Accounting standard (Ind-AS) according to their number in ascending order.

   A. Cash flow statement
   B. Income Tax
   C. Revenue
   D. Property Plant and Equipment
   E. Borrowing Cost

   Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

   1. AB, A, C, D, E
   2. BE, A, B, C, D
   3. CA, B, D, C, E
   4. DA, B, D, E, C

   Accepted answers: (C) A, B, D, C, E, (D) A, B, D, E, C

   Explanation

   Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS) correspond to specific standard numbers:

   • Ind AS 7 — Statement of Cash Flows (A)
   • Ind AS 12 — Income Taxes (B)
   • Ind AS 16 — Property, Plant and Equipment (D)
   • Ind AS 18 — Revenue (or Ind AS 115 Revenue from Contracts with Customers) (C)
   • Ind AS 23 — Borrowing Costs (E)

   Under Ind AS 18 for Revenue, the ascending sequence of numbers is 7, 12, 16, 18, 23, which yields A, B, D, C, E (Option C). If Revenue is taken under the newer Ind AS 115, the ascending order is 7, 12, 16, 23, 115, yielding A, B, D, E, C (Option D). Both options are recognized under standard interpretations.

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5. Question 5

   What is the sequence of consumer readiness to try new products?

   A. Early majority
   B. Early Adopters
   C. Innovators
   D. Laggards
   E. Late Majority

   Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

   1. AB, C, D, A, E
   2. BC, B, A, E, D
   3. CC, B, A, D, E
   4. DC, B, E, A, D

   Answer: (B) C, B, A, E, D

   Explanation

   Everett Rogers' Diffusion of Innovations framework classifies consumers into five adopter categories based on when they adopt a new product:

   C, B, A, E, D

   • Innovators (C) — first 2.5% of adopters, venturesome and willing to take risks on new ideas.
   • Early Adopters (B) — next 13.5%, opinion leaders who adopt early after observing innovators.
   • Early Majority (A) — next 34%, deliberate consumers who adopt just before the average individual.
   • Late Majority (E) — next 34%, skeptical consumers who adopt only after the majority has embraced the innovation.
   • Laggards (D) — final 16%, tradition-bound consumers who resist change until forced.

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6. Question 6

   Match List-I with List-II.

   List-I	List-II
   A. ANOVA test	I. It determines the validity of observed data regarding the assumption about the distribution of a population
   B. T-Test	II. Applicable when the sample size is large (n > 30)
   C. Z-Test	III. The technique helps to draw inferences whether the samples have been drawn from the same population
   D. Goodness of fit Test	IV. Applicable when the sample size is small (n ≤ 30)

   1. AA - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
   2. BA - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
   3. CA - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I
   4. DA - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

   Answer: (A) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

   Explanation

   Statistical tests are chosen based on sample size and distributional properties:

   A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

   • A. ANOVA test — III. Analysis of variance tests whether three or more independent sample means differ significantly, determining whether samples come from populations with identical means.
   • B. T-Test — IV. Student's t-test is applied when population variance is unknown and the sample size is small (n ≤ 30).
   • C. Z-Test — II. The z-test utilizes the standard normal distribution and is applicable when sample size is large (n > 30) or population variance is known.
   • D. Goodness of fit Test — I. The chi-square goodness-of-fit test determines whether observed frequency data conform to an assumed theoretical population distribution.

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7. Question 7

   Match List-I with List-II.

   List-I	List-II
   A. Decision support system (DSS)	I. Capturing organising and sharing organisational knowledge
   B. Knowledge management system	II. Provides information for non-routine and complex decision making
   C. Artificial intelligence	III. Integrating core business processes across departments
   D. Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)	IV. Simulation of human intelligence in machines

   1. AA - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III
   2. BA - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
   3. CA - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
   4. DA - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

   Answer: (B) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

   Explanation

   Enterprise and information systems serve distinct organizational roles:

   A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

   • A. Decision support system (DSS) — II. Provides analytical models and interactive data access for non-routine and complex managerial decision making.
   • B. Knowledge management system — I. Focuses on capturing, organizing, storing, and sharing tacit and explicit organizational knowledge.
   • C. Artificial intelligence — IV. Replicates human cognitive capabilities such as reasoning, learning, and problem solving in computer systems.
   • D. Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) — III. Integrates core business processes (finance, HR, supply chain, production) into a shared enterprise-wide database.

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8. Question 8

   Arrange the steps in ethical decision making :

   A. Decision making and implementation
   B. Identification of all stakeholders
   C. Getting All the Facts
   D. Applying an ethical framework
   E. Finding the Subject

   Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

   1. AA, B, C, D, E
   2. BC, E, B, D, A
   3. CC, E, B, A, D
   4. DC, E, A, B, D

   Answer: (B) C, E, B, D, A

   Explanation

   Systematic ethical decision-making follows a structured problem-solving sequence:

   C, E, B, D, A

   • Getting All the Facts (C) — first gather relevant data and understand the context.
   • Finding the Subject (E) — identify and clarify the specific ethical dilemma or moral issue.
   • Identification of all stakeholders (B) — determine which individuals or groups are impacted by the decision.
   • Applying an ethical framework (D) — evaluate options using ethical principles (such as utilitarianism, deontology, or virtue ethics).
   • Decision making and implementation (A) — select the preferred course of action and implement it.

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9. Question 9

   Which of the following are correct formulas of Financial leverage (FL)?

   A. FL = % Change in EBIT / % Change in sales
   B. FI = % Change in EPS / % Change in EBIT
   C. FL = EBIT / PBT
   D. FL = Contribution / EBT
   E. FI = Contribution / PBT

   Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

   1. AA, B, C only
   2. BB, C, D only
   3. CA and E only
   4. DB and C only

   Answer: (D) B and C only

   Explanation

   Financial leverage measures the responsiveness of earnings per share to changes in operating profits:

   • B — Degree of Financial Leverage equals the percentage change in EPS divided by the percentage change in EBIT.
   • C — Financial Leverage at a given level of EBIT equals EBIT divided by Profit Before Tax (PBT or EBT).
   • A — % Change in EBIT / % Change in sales is the formula for Operating Leverage, not Financial Leverage.
   • D & E — Contribution / EBT is the formula for Combined Leverage, not Financial Leverage.

   Therefore, only statements B and C represent valid financial leverage formulas.

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10. Question 10

    Which of the following techniques is used for project management in operations research?

    1. APERT
    2. BEOQ
    3. CVAM
    4. DLCM

    Answer: (A) PERT

    Explanation

    Project management in operations research uses network scheduling techniques:

    • A. PERT — correct. Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT), along with the Critical Path Method (CPM), is used to plan, schedule, and control complex projects involving uncertain activity durations.
    • B. EOQ — Economic Order Quantity is an inventory management model that minimizes total ordering and holding costs.
    • C. VAM — Vogel's Approximation Method is an algorithm used to find an initial basic feasible solution in a transportation problem.
    • D. LCM — Least Cost Method is another heuristic for finding initial feasible solutions in transportation modeling.

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11. Question 11

    Arrange the process of selection in proper sequence.

    A. Reference Check
    B. Interview
    C. Medical Examination
    D. Application Review
    E. Hiring Decision

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, D, C, E
    2. BD, B, C, A, E
    3. CD, A, B, E, C
    4. DA, D, B, C, E

    Answer: (B) D, B, C, A, E

    Explanation

    The employee selection procedure follows a step-by-step funnel to screen candidates:

    D, B, C, A, E

    • Application Review (D) — initial screening of application forms against minimum eligibility criteria.
    • Interview (B) — detailed comprehensive evaluation of knowledge, personality, and job suitability.
    • Medical Examination (C) — assessing physical and health fitness required for the job duties.
    • Reference Check (A) — verifying previous employment record, credentials, and conduct.
    • Hiring Decision (E) — final job offer issued to successful candidates.

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12. Question 12

    If risk free rate is 7 percent, beta of equity is 1.2, and market risk premium is 8 percent. What is cost of equity?

    1. A16.6 percent
    2. B16.4 percent
    3. C9.6 percent
    4. D18 percent

    Answer: (A) 16.6 percent

    Explanation

    Under the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), the cost of equity is calculated using the formula:

    Cost of Equity = Rf + Beta * (Market Risk Premium)

    Substitute the given values into the equation:

    Cost of Equity = 7% + 1.2 * 8%
    1.2 * 8% = 9.6%
    Cost of Equity = 7% + 9.6% = 16.6%

    Note that market risk premium represents (Rm - Rf), so multiplying beta directly by 8% is required.

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13. Question 13

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Selective perception	I. The tendency to draw a negative general impression about an individual based on a single characteristic
    B. Halo effect	II. Judging some one based on one's perception of the group to which that person belongs
    C. Stereotyping	III. The tendency to draw a positive general impression about an individual based on a single characteristics
    D. Horns effect	IV. The tendency to choose to interpret what one sees based on one's interest, background, experience, attitudes

    1. AA - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
    2. BA - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I
    3. CA - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
    4. DA - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

    Answer: (C) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

    Explanation

    Perceptual shortcuts and cognitive biases are defined as follows:

    A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

    • A. Selective perception — IV. The tendency to filter and interpret incoming stimuli based on personal interests, background, experience, and attitudes.
    • B. Halo effect — III. Drawing a favorable general impression of an individual based on a single positive characteristic.
    • C. Stereotyping — II. Judging someone based on the perception of the social, ethnic, or demographic group to which that person belongs.
    • D. Horns effect — I. Drawing an unfavorable general impression of an individual based on a single negative characteristic.

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14. Question 14

    Which of the following C's should online marketers focus on to create an effective website design?

    A. Commerce
    B. Connection
    C. Contour
    D. Content
    E. Context

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AOnly A, B, C, D and E
    2. BOnly B, D and C
    3. COnly B, C, D and E
    4. DOnly A, B, D and E

    Answer: (D) Only A, B, D and E

    Explanation

    Rayport and Jaworski's 7Cs framework identifies key customer interface design elements for e-commerce websites:

    • Context (E) — site layout and functional design.
    • Content (D) — digital text, audio, video, and graphics presented.
    • Community — member-to-member communication features.
    • Customization — site ability to tailor itself to users.
    • Communication — dialogue between site and users.
    • Connection (B) — links between the site and other external sites.
    • Commerce (A) — commercial transaction processing capability.

    Contour (C) is not part of the 7Cs framework. Therefore, only A, B, D, and E are correct.

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15. Question 15

    Which of the following labour laws are meant for providing social security?

    A. The Employees' State Insurance Act 1948
    B. The Industrial Disputes Act 1947
    C. The Payment of Gratuity Act 1972
    D. The Workmen's Compensation Act 1923
    E. The Companies Act, 2013

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and E only
    2. BB, D and E only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DA, B, C and D only

    Answer: (C) A, C and D only

    Explanation

    Social security legislation in India provides protection against contingencies such as sickness, maternity, disability, and retirement:

    • A. The Employees' State Insurance Act 1948 — provides medical care and cash benefits during sickness, maternity, and employment injury.
    • C. The Payment of Gratuity Act 1972 — provides terminal lump-sum retirement benefits for long service.
    • D. The Workmen's Compensation Act 1923 — mandates employer compensation for occupational disease or injury.
    • B. The Industrial Disputes Act 1947 — governs industrial relations, dispute resolution, strikes, and lockouts, not social security.
    • E. The Companies Act, 2013 — governs corporate formation and governance.

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16. Question 16

    In services marketing the service quality highly depends on:

    1. AInternal marketing
    2. BInteractive marketing
    3. CService marketing
    4. DExternal marketing

    Answer: (B) Interactive marketing

    Explanation

    In the Services Marketing Triangle (developed by Bitner and Parasuraman), three marketing forms operate together:

    • B. Interactive marketing — correct. Service delivery is inseparable from consumption, meaning service quality is experienced directly during the interaction between front-line employees and customers (the moment of truth).
    • A. Internal marketing — involves training and motivating employees to deliver high service standards.
    • C. Service marketing — the overarching discipline encompassing internal, external, and interactive practices.
    • D. External marketing — sets customer expectations through pricing, advertising, and promotional promises.

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17. Question 17

    With reference to the consumer decision-making process, which of the following sets consists of brands that consumers are indifferent to because they are viewed as having no significant advantage?

    1. ASample Set
    2. BIncentivized set
    3. CInert set
    4. DInappropriate set

    Answer: (C) Inert set

    Explanation

    In the consumer decision-making model, awareness sets are categorized into distinct subsets:

    • C. Inert set — correct. Brands the consumer knows about but feels indifferent toward, seeing no unique advantage or compelling benefit to warrant purchase.
    • Evoked (consideration) set — preferred brands actively evaluated for final purchase.
    • Inept set — rejected brands viewed negatively due to unacceptable attributes or poor past experience.
    • A, B, D — these are informal or distractor terms not used in standard consumer behavior literature.

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18. Question 18

    Arrange the following in the order in which the following appear in the cost sheet.

    A. Prime cost
    B. Factory cost
    C. Material Consumed
    D. Cost of production
    E. Cost of sales

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B , C, D, E
    2. BC, A, D, B, E
    3. CA, C, B, D, E
    4. DC, A, B, D, E

    Answer: (D) C, A, B, D, E

    Explanation

    The standard sequential compilation of components in a manufacturing cost sheet is:

    C, A, B, D, E

    • Material Consumed (C) — direct raw material cost is computed first.
    • Prime cost (A) — Direct Material + Direct Labour + Direct Expenses.
    • Factory cost (B) — Prime Cost + Factory / Works Overheads.
    • Cost of production (D) — Factory Cost + Office and Administrative Overheads.
    • Cost of sales (E) — Cost of Production + Selling and Distribution Overheads.

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19. Question 19

    Which of the following theories corresponds to the statement 'A type of conditioning in which desired voluntary behaviour leads to a reward or prevents a punishment'.

    1. ASocial learning theory
    2. BClassical conditioning theory
    3. CBehaviorism theory
    4. DOperant conditioning theory

    Answer: (D) Operant conditioning theory

    Explanation

    Behavioral learning theories explain how individuals acquire and modify actions:

    • D. Operant conditioning theory — correct. Formulated by B. F. Skinner, operant conditioning states that voluntary behavior is learned and reinforced when followed by desirable consequences (rewards) or avoidance of negative consequences (punishment).
    • B. Classical conditioning theory — Ivan Pavlov's model where involuntary, reflexive responses are elicited through paired associative stimuli.
    • A. Social learning theory — Albert Bandura's model emphasizing observational learning, modeling, and cognitive imitation.
    • C. Behaviorism theory — the broader psychological school of thought encompassing both classical and operant frameworks.

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20. Question 20

    Innovation in text and voice messaging is an example of what type of innovation. Choose one option from the following:

    1. ARadical Innovation
    2. BBreakthrough Innovation
    3. CTechnological Innovation
    4. DOrdinary Innovation

    Answer: (C) Technological Innovation

    Explanation

    In entrepreneurship and innovation classifications:

    • C. Technological Innovation — correct. Advancements in wireless data protocols, text messaging (SMS/messaging apps), and voice-over-IP are technical advancements that improve communication capabilities using engineering developments.
    • A. Radical Innovation — fundamentally disrupts existing market structures and replaces entire industries.
    • B. Breakthrough Innovation — introduces rare scientific discoveries that establish new technological domains.
    • D. Ordinary Innovation — minor cosmetic or routine incremental product tweaks with little technological differentiation.

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21. Question 21

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. To communicate detailed information	I. Social Media Marketing
    B. To release emotions	II. Data-driven marketing
    C. For the words that come out of my mouth	III. Display advertising, content marketing
    D. For repurchase	IV. Forum, Community

    1. AA - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III
    2. BA - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
    3. CA - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
    4. DA - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I

    Answer: (B) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

    Explanation

    Digital marketing communication channels serve distinct consumer purposes:

    A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

    • A. To communicate detailed information — III. Display advertising and content marketing provide structured, comprehensive information and educational material to target audiences.
    • B. To release emotions — I. Social media marketing platforms offer interactive outlets for sharing instant reactions, feelings, and emotional expressions.
    • C. For the words that come out of my mouth — IV. Online forums and communities enable open discussion and user-generated word-of-mouth dialogue.
    • D. For repurchase — II. Data-driven marketing utilizes predictive behavioral analytics, transaction history, and CRM data to trigger repeat purchases and customer retention.

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22. Question 22

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Certificate of Deposit	I. Issued by banks and Financial institutions
    B. Treasury Bill	II. Promissory note issued by high rated corporate entities
    C. Commercial Paper	III. Granted by supplier of goods
    D. Trade Credit	IV. Issued by Government

    1. AA - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III
    2. BA - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
    3. CA - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II
    4. DA - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I

    Answer: (A) A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III

    Explanation

    Short-term money market instruments and credit mechanisms have distinct issuing entities:

    A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III

    • A. Certificate of Deposit — I. Negotiable securitized deposit receipt issued by commercial banks and financial institutions.
    • B. Treasury Bill — IV. Short-term sovereign debt instrument issued by the central government through the central bank.
    • C. Commercial Paper — II. Unsecured promissory note issued by highly rated corporate entities to raise short-term working capital.
    • D. Trade Credit — III. Spontaneous short-term financing granted directly by suppliers of goods to buyers during normal trade operations.

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23. Question 23

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Mc Guire's response model	I. Awareness, Interest, Evaluation, Trial, Adoption
    B. AIDA model	II. Communication/presentation. Attention, Comprehension, Belief, Retention
    C. Theory of Diffusion of Innovation	III. Awareness, Knowledge, Liking, Preference, Conviction, Purchase
    D. Levidge and Steiner Model	IV. Awareness, Interest, Desire, Action

    1. AA - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
    2. BA - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
    3. CA - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III
    4. DA - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

    Answer: (D) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

    Explanation

    Advertising and consumer response hierarchy models map stages of customer adoption:

    A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

    • A. McGuire's response model — II. Communication presentation, attention, comprehension, yielding/belief, retention, and behavior.
    • B. AIDA model — IV. Classic sales model progressing through Awareness, Interest, Desire, and Action.
    • C. Theory of Diffusion of Innovation — I. Adoption stages comprising Awareness, Interest, Evaluation, Trial, and Adoption.
    • D. Lavidge and Steiner Model — III. Cognitive hierarchy-of-effects model comprising Awareness, Knowledge, Liking, Preference, Conviction, and Purchase.

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24. Question 24

    A data warehouse is primarily:

    1. AA system used for transaction processing
    2. BA tool for generating real time analysis
    3. CA database for unstructured data storage
    4. DA central repository for integrated data

    Answer: (D) A central repository for integrated data

    Explanation

    A data warehouse is a centralized repository that integrates structured data from multiple disparate transactional sources.

    • D. A central repository for integrated data — correct. Designed specifically for Online Analytical Processing (OLAP) and business intelligence reporting across an enterprise.
    • A. A system used for transaction processing — transaction processing is managed by operational Online Transaction Processing (OLTP) databases rather than analytical data warehouses.
    • B. A tool for generating real time analysis — data warehouses traditionally store historical, consolidated batches rather than pure real-time event streaming.
    • C. A database for unstructured data storage — storing raw unstructured data is the role of a data lake, while data warehouses primarily organize relational and structured data schemas.

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25. Question 25

    Which components of an MIS involve gathering and storing data?

    1. AHardware
    2. BSoftware
    3. CData processing
    4. DDatabase

    Answer: (D) Database

    Explanation

    In an Information System architecture, the database serves as the organized repository responsible for collecting and storing records:

    • D. Database — correct. Stores structured operational files, tables, and transactional records collected by the organization so they can be retrieved and updated.
    • A. Hardware — represents the physical computer machinery and networking equipment.
    • B. Software — provides the programmatic instructions and operating systems that manipulate data.
    • C. Data processing — the active computational phase that converts raw input into useful information, not the storage component itself.

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26. Question 26

    Alex F. Osborn is known as the father of?

    1. ABounded rationality
    2. BInvention
    3. CHeuristics
    4. DBrainstorming

    Answer: (D) Brainstorming

    Explanation

    Alex F. Osborn, an advertising executive, developed and popularized the creative problem-solving technique of brainstorming in his 1948 work Applied Imagination.

    • D. Brainstorming — correct. Osborn established the foundational rules of deferring judgment, encouraging wild ideas, aiming for quantity, and combining concepts to foster group creativity.
    • A. Bounded rationality — formulated by Herbert Simon to explain human decision-making limitations.
    • B. Invention — general term for novel technological creations rather than a specific method attributed to Osborn.
    • C. Heuristics — cognitive decision-making shortcuts studied extensively by Amos Tversky and Daniel Kahneman.

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27. Question 27

    Which one of the following is related to Cash Flow Statement?

    1. AInd AS-2
    2. BInd AS-3
    3. CInd AS-16
    4. DInd AS-7

    Answer: (D) Ind AS-7

    Explanation

    Under Indian Accounting Standards converged with IFRS, specific standard numbers govern financial statements:

    • D. Ind AS-7 — correct. Ind AS 7 prescribes the presentation and disclosure requirements for Statement of Cash Flows, categorizing cash flows into operating, investing, and financing activities.
    • A. Ind AS-2 — deals with Valuation of Inventories.
    • B. Ind AS-3 — there is no Ind AS 3 (the old Indian GAAP standard AS 3 covered cash flows, but under Ind AS it is Ind AS 7).
    • C. Ind AS-16 — governs Property, Plant and Equipment.

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28. Question 28

    Choose the correct sequence from the given steps of enterprise registration process:

    A. Obtaining a digital signature certificate
    B. File for incorporation
    C. Deciding your business structure
    D. File for name approval

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, D, C
    2. BC, A, D, B
    3. CC, B, D, A
    4. DA, D, C, B

    Answer: (B) C, A, D, B

    Explanation

    The legal enterprise registration and company incorporation process follows a mandatory administrative order:

    C, A, D, B

    • Deciding your business structure (C) — first choose the legal form (proprietorship, partnership, LLP, or private company).
    • Obtaining a digital signature certificate (A) — acquire DSC for designated partners or directors to sign electronic statutory filings.
    • File for name approval (D) — reserve and obtain clearance for the proposed corporate name via the Ministry of Corporate Affairs portal.
    • File for incorporation (B) — submit the final incorporation forms along with the charter documents (MoA and AoA).

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29. Question 29

    The decision making process in MIS can be classified into which levels?

    1. AOperational, Tactical, Strategic
    2. BLocal, National, Global
    3. CFinancial, Managerial, Operational
    4. DDirect, Indirect, Strategic

    Answer: (A) Operational, Tactical, Strategic

    Explanation

    Robert Anthony's framework classifies organizational decision-making and managerial control in MIS into three hierarchical tiers:

    • A. Operational, Tactical, Strategic — correct.
    • Strategic level — top management focuses on long-range policy formulation, resource allocation, and unstructured decisions.
    • Tactical level — middle management focuses on short-to-medium range planning, budget control, and semi-structured tactical decisions.
    • Operational level — frontline supervisors focus on routine daily transaction processing and highly structured operational decisions.
    • B, C, D — geographic or functional descriptions that do not represent the classic management hierarchy in MIS.

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30. Question 30

    Identify the accurate sequence of the Marketing Process.

    A. Construct an integrated marketing programme that delivers superior value
    B. Capture value from customers to create profit and customer equity
    C. Build profitable relationship and create customers' delight
    D. Understand the marketplace and customer needs and wants
    E. Design a customer-driven marketing strategy

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C, D, E
    2. BD, E, A, C, B
    3. CD, E, A, B, C
    4. DD, A, E, C, B

    Answer: (B) D, E, A, C, B

    Explanation

    Philip Kotler's five-step marketing process model creates value for customers and captures value in return:

    D, E, A, C, B

    • Understand the marketplace and customer needs and wants (D) — research customer demands, market trends, and consumer behavior.
    • Design a customer-driven marketing strategy (E) — select target segments and decide on value proposition and positioning.
    • Construct an integrated marketing programme that delivers superior value (A) — develop the marketing mix (product, price, place, promotion).
    • Build profitable relationship and create customers' delight (C) — establish customer relationship management and engagement.
    • Capture value from customers to create profit and customer equity (B) — harvest customer loyalty, lifetime value, and profits.

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31. Question 31

    A Company is expected to pay dividend of Rs. 60 at the end of year one. The dividend is expected to grow at 10% indefinitely. The cost of equity is 20%. The intrinsic value of the share will be?

    1. ARs. 660
    2. BRs. 600
    3. CRs. 300
    4. DRs. 330

    Answer: (B) Rs. 600

    Explanation

    Under Gordon's Constant Growth Dividend Discount Model, intrinsic value is computed as:

    Intrinsic Value = D1 / (Ke - g)

    Substitute the given parameters:

    • Expected dividend at the end of year one (D1) = Rs. 60
    • Cost of equity (Ke) = 20% = 0.20
    • Indefinite growth rate (g) = 10% = 0.10

    Intrinsic Value = 60 / (0.20 - 0.10)
    Intrinsic Value = 60 / 0.10 = Rs. 600

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32. Question 32

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Downward communication	I. Joint Forum
    B. Upward communication	II. Annual Reports
    C. Horizontal communication	III. Circular
    D. External communication	IV. Grievance

    1. AA - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
    2. BA - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
    3. CA - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
    4. DA - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

    Answer: (B) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

    Explanation

    Organizational communication channels are classified by direction and target audience:

    A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

    • A. Downward communication — III. Flows from management to staff through formal circulars, executive orders, and operational guidelines.
    • B. Upward communication — IV. Flows from subordinates to leadership through grievance submissions, feedback reports, and suggestions.
    • C. Horizontal communication — I. Lateral collaboration between peers and functional departments through consultative bodies such as a Joint Forum.
    • D. External communication — II. Transmission of corporate performance data to external stakeholders via published Annual Reports.

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33. Question 33

    Which of the following are examples of Management Information system (MIS)?

    A. Transaction Processing System (TPS)
    B. Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)
    C. Operating System Kernel (OSK)
    D. Decision Support System (DSS)

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and D only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA and C only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (A) A, B and D only

    Explanation

    Management Information Systems broadly encompass organizational business systems designed to process and deliver operational and tactical information:

    • A. TPS — records routine daily transactions that form the primary data inputs for all management reporting.
    • B. ERP — integrates cross-functional enterprise processes into an enterprise-wide information platform.
    • D. DSS — provides analytical modeling tools to aid complex, semi-structured managerial decision-making.
    • C. Operating System Kernel (OSK) — a low-level core component of system software that manages hardware resources, not an organizational management information system.

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34. Question 34

    Which of the following is a disadvantage of the 'Critical Incident Method of Performance Appraisal'?

    (a) Difficult to rate or rank employees relative to one another
    (b) Time consuming
    (c) Standards may be unclear
    (d) Halo effect bias can be a problem

    1. ADifficult to rate or rank employees relative to one another
    2. BTime consuming
    3. CStandards may be unclear
    4. DHalo effect bias can be a problem

    Answer: (A) Difficult to rate or rank employees relative to one another

    Explanation

    In the Critical Incident Method, evaluators maintain written logs of specific outstanding or undesirable employee behaviors over the appraisal period:

    • A. Difficult to rate or rank employees relative to one another — correct. Because critical incidents produce qualitative, narrative records of behavior rather than standardized numerical scores, comparing and ranking employees across departments for promotions and salary revisions is extremely difficult.
    • B. Time consuming — maintaining continuous logs is labor-intensive, but the inherent structural appraisal disadvantage remains the lack of objective comparative quantification.
    • C. Standards may be unclear — vague standards are primarily a flaw of graphic rating scales.
    • D. Halo effect bias — halo error occurs when one general trait colors an entire rating, which critical incident logs specifically aim to reduce by demanding objective behavior documentation.

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35. Question 35

    The vertical distance between the Total cost (TC) curve and the Total Variable cost (TVC) curve reflects:

    1. AThe law of diminishing returns
    2. BThe average fixed cost at each level of output
    3. CMarginal cost at each level of output
    4. DAverage variable cost at each level of output

    Answer: (B) The average fixed cost at each level of output

    Explanation

    In short-run cost theory, total cost is the sum of total fixed cost and total variable cost:

    TC = TFC + TVC

    Subtracting TVC from TC yields the vertical gap:

    TC - TVC = TFC

    The vertical distance between the TC and TVC curves represents Total Fixed Cost (TFC). The examination paper contains a minor terminology misnomer by stating 'average fixed cost' in option B instead of total fixed cost, but option B is the intended answer because fixed cost is the sole component separating total cost from total variable cost.

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36. Question 36

    Arrange the steps involved in building data warehouse:

    A. Data extraction from source system
    B. Data transformation and cleaning
    C. Data storage in the warehouse
    D. Data presentation and reporting

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C, D
    2. BA, C, D, B
    3. CB, D, C, A
    4. DD, C, B, A

    Answer: (A) A, B, C, D

    Explanation

    Building a data warehouse follows the standard Extract, Transform, Load, and Present lifecycle:

    A, B, C, D

    • Data extraction from source system (A) — capture structured data from disparate operational transaction systems.
    • Data transformation and cleaning (B) — standardize formats, resolve inconsistencies, and cleanse records.
    • Data storage in the warehouse (C) — load transformed data into enterprise relational tables and dimensional data marts.
    • Data presentation and reporting (D) — expose data via BI dashboards, OLAP cubes, and executive reporting tools.

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37. Question 37

    Marketing logistics means.

    1. AManaging upstream and downstream storage and warehousing facilities to meet consumer requirements
    2. BEmphasizing teamwork both inside the company and among all the marketing channel organisations
    3. CPlanning implementation and controlling physical flow of materials, final goods and related information from points of origin to points of consumption to meet customer requirements at a profit
    4. DCombining two or more modes of transportation of goods from place of production to place of distribution

    Answer: (C) Planning implementation and controlling physical flow of materials, final goods and related information from points of origin to points of consumption to meet customer requirements at a profit

    Explanation

    Marketing logistics encompasses physical distribution management:

    • C. Planning implementation and controlling physical flow... — correct. In standard marketing literature (Philip Kotler), logistics is defined as planning, implementing, and controlling the physical flow of materials, finished goods, and related information from points of origin to points of consumption to satisfy customer needs profitably.
    • A — describes warehousing operations, which represent only one component of logistics.
    • B — describes integrated supply chain collaboration and channel partnership.
    • D — specifically defines intermodal or multimodal transportation.

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38. Question 38

    Which of the following statements pertaining to indifference curve is true?

    A. The slope of the indifference curve represents the marginal rate of substitution between two goods
    B. Indifference curve in case of perfect substitutes is a straight line with positive slope
    C. Two indifference curves intersect with each other in case of perfectly complementary goods
    D. Indifference curves intersect with each other at their mid point
    E. In case of perfect substitutes, the indifference curves are linear

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and E only
    2. BA and B only
    3. CB, C and D only
    4. DA, D, and E only

    Answer: (A) A and E only

    Explanation

    Indifference curves reflect consumer preferences across combinations of two goods:

    • A — the slope of an indifference curve at any point equals the Marginal Rate of Substitution (MRSxy), measuring the rate at which a consumer is willing to trade one good for another.
    • E — for perfect substitutes, MRSxy is constant, causing indifference curves to be straight downward-sloping linear lines.
    • B — indifference curves for perfect substitutes have a negative slope, not a positive slope.
    • C & D — indifference curves can never intersect because an intersection violates the fundamental axiom of transitivity of preferences.

    Therefore, only statements A and E are correct.

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39. Question 39

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Project Management	I. Last come first served
    B. Assignment	II. VAM
    C. Transportation	III. CPM
    D. Queuing	IV. Complete Enumeration method

    1. AA - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
    2. BA - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
    3. CA - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II
    4. DA - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

    Answer: (A) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

    Explanation

    Operations research models address specific optimization and scheduling problems:

    A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

    • A. Project Management — III. Critical Path Method (CPM) plans and controls project activity durations.
    • B. Assignment — IV. Complete enumeration method systematically evaluates all possible assignment permutations to identify the cost-minimizing schedule.
    • C. Transportation — II. Vogel's Approximation Method (VAM) calculates penalty costs to generate an initial basic feasible solution.
    • D. Queuing — I. Last Come First Served (LCFS) represents a queue discipline governing the order of service.

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40. Question 40

    Which of the following are the execution styles for execution of advertising message?

    A. Fantasy
    B. Fashion
    C. Slice of life
    D. Testimonials
    E. Lifestyle

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C, D and E only
    2. BA, B, C and D only
    3. CB, C, D and E only
    4. DA, B, D and E only

    Answer: (A) A, C, D and E only

    Explanation

    Advertising message execution styles describe how an advertising appeal is presented to audiences:

    • A. Fantasy — creates an imaginative world around product usage.
    • C. Slice of life — depicts everyday consumers using the product in familiar scenarios.
    • D. Testimonials — features credible sources or actual customers endorsing product performance.
    • E. Lifestyle — shows how a product aligns with a particular style of living.
    • B. Fashion — represents a product sector or industry vertical, not an advertising message execution style.

    Therefore, only A, C, D, and E are advertising execution styles.

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41. Question 41

    Theory given by McClelland emphasizes on which key factor related to entrepreneurship? Choose one option from the following:

    1. AInnovation
    2. BPolitical system
    3. CAchievement
    4. DCultural values

    Answer: (C) Achievement

    Explanation

    David McClelland's Acquired Needs Theory identifies three fundamental psychological motives:

    • C. Achievement — correct. In The Achieving Society (1961), McClelland proved that individuals with a high Need for Achievement (n-Ach) are driven to take calculated risks, solve challenging problems, and pursue entrepreneurial ventures.
    • A. Innovation — emphasized in Joseph Schumpeter's theory of creative destruction.
    • B. Political system — structural political theories view entrepreneurship as an outcome of government incentives and property rights.
    • D. Cultural values — emphasized in sociological perspectives such as Max Weber's Protestant Ethic.

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42. Question 42

    Outstanding wages is which type of Account?

    1. APersonal Account
    2. BReal Account
    3. CNominal Account
    4. DNominal and Real Account

    Answer: (A) Personal Account

    Explanation

    In classical accounting classification rules:

    • A. Personal Account — correct. Outstanding wages represents wages earned by employees that remain unpaid at the close of the period, making it a Representative Personal Account representing the group of creditors owed compensation.
    • B. Real Account — represents tangible or intangible properties and assets (cash, machinery, building).
    • C. Nominal Account — represents bare expenses, losses, revenues, or gains — when a prefix or suffix like outstanding, prepaid, or accrued is added, the nominal account converts into a representative personal account.
    • D. Nominal and Real Account — hybrid classification that does not exist in double-entry bookkeeping.

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43. Question 43

    Which of the following is the pre-testing technique of measuring advertisement effectiveness.

    1. APortfolio tests
    2. BAided Recall test
    3. CAttitude tests
    4. DInquiry test

    Answer: (A) Portfolio tests

    Explanation

    Advertising research distinguishes between pre-testing (before broadcast/print release) and post-testing (after market exposure):

    • A. Portfolio tests — correct. Consumers review a portfolio containing test and control advertisements and are subsequently asked to recall what they noticed, evaluating message memorability prior to commercial launch.
    • B. Aided Recall test — post-testing method used to measure campaign recall among audiences after the advertisement has run in the media.
    • C. Attitude tests — typically post-testing techniques assessing shifts in consumer attitudes following ad exposure.
    • D. Inquiry test — post-testing technique measuring consumer response via coupons returned or direct inquiries generated.

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44. Question 44

    From the following options, choose the correct sequence of parts of a business plan that ideally come after one another.

    A. Executive summary
    B. Management and organization plan
    C. Description of Business
    D. Financial plan

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AC, B, D, A
    2. BA, B, C, D
    3. CA, C, B, D
    4. DC, B, A, D

    Answer: (C) A, C, B, D

    Explanation

    A formal venture business plan organizes sections in a logical narrative progression:

    A, C, B, D

    • Executive summary (A) — positioned at the very front to provide investors with a concise synthesis of the entire venture.
    • Description of Business (C) — outlines company vision, industry domain, product lines, and value proposition.
    • Management and organization plan (B) — details organizational hierarchy, key leadership profiles, and governance structure.
    • Financial plan (D) — presents quantitative cash flow forecasts, break-even analysis, capital requirements, and balance sheet projections.

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45. Question 45

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. National Institute of Small Industry Extension and Training (NISIET)	I. Training, research and consultancy
    B. National Institute for Entrepreneurship and Small Business Development (NIESBUD)	II. Render services to the instrumentation industry
    C. National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC)	III. Co-ordinating and overseeing activities of various institutes engaged in entrepreneurship development
    D. Institute for Design of Electrical Measuring Instruments (IDEMI)	IV. Supply of machinery, marketing assistance and training

    1. AA - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
    2. BA - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
    3. CA - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II
    4. DA - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV

    Answer: (C) A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II

    Explanation

    Institutional support bodies in India promote micro, small, and medium enterprises through specialized mandates:

    A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II

    • A. NISIET (now ni-msme, Hyderabad) — I. Provides specialized research, executive training, and consultancy services in small enterprise management.
    • B. NIESBUD (Noida) — III. Apex national agency coordinating and standardizing entrepreneurship development training across various institutions.
    • C. NSIC (New Delhi) — IV. Facilitates small industries by supplying machinery on hire-purchase, providing raw material distribution, and marketing support.
    • D. IDEMI (Mumbai) — II. Operates as a technical service institute catering directly to the design and calibration needs of the electrical measuring instruments sector.

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46. Question 46

    Which of the following has increased the importance of strategic planning due to the liberalization of the economy?

    1. AChange in the technological environment
    2. BChange in the career expectations of people at house hold level
    3. CRapid change in competitive forces in the business environment due to the entry of multinational corporations
    4. DGrowing cases of labour regulations and laws

    Answer: (C) Rapid change in competitive forces in the business environment due to the entry of multinational corporations

    Explanation

    Economic liberalization transforms the market landscape from a protected domestic regime to an open, hyper-competitive marketplace:

    • C. Rapid change in competitive forces... — correct. Dismantling industrial licensing and lowering trade barriers enabled the aggressive entry of multinational corporations (MNCs), forcing domestic businesses to formulate deliberate strategic plans to defend market share.
    • A. Change in the technological environment — affects operational efficiency and digital adoption, but liberalization directly impacts competitive market structure.
    • B. Career expectations — sociological workforce trend rather than a direct outcome of economic liberalization necessitating enterprise strategy.
    • D. Labour regulations — regulatory compliance constraints, which typically decrease or deregulate under liberalization rather than expand.

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47. Question 47

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Coaching	I. Advising, counseling and guiding
    B. Career	II. Pivots around which a person career swings
    C. Mentoring	III. Educating, instructing. and training subordinates
    D. Career anchors	IV. The occupational positions a person has had over many years

    1. AA - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
    2. BA - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
    3. CA - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III
    4. DA - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

    Answer: (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

    Explanation

    Human resource development and career development concepts are defined as follows:

    A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

    • A. Coaching — III. Task-focused, skill-oriented process of educating, instructing, and training subordinates to improve immediate job execution.
    • B. Career — IV. The cumulative progression of occupational positions and professional roles held by an individual across their working life.
    • C. Mentoring — I. Long-term relationship focused on advising, counseling, and guiding a junior colleague's career advancement and psychosocial growth.
    • D. Career anchors — II. Edgar Schein's framework denoting the self-perceived values and core competencies that act as steady pivots around which a career swings.

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48. Question 48

    Choose the option that represents the sequence of steps involved in capital budgeting analysis?

    A. Identification of investment / project
    B. Application of capital budgeting technique
    C. Forecasting the cash flows
    D. Accept/reject decision
    E. Calculation of cash flow after tax

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C, B, D, E
    2. BA, C, E, D, B
    3. CA, E, C, B, D
    4. DA, C, E, B, D

    Answer: (D) A, C, E, B, D

    Explanation

    Capital budgeting analysis evaluates long-term capital expenditure proposals in a structured sequence:

    A, C, E, B, D

    • Identification of investment / project (A) — originate capital investment proposals aligned with corporate goals.
    • Forecasting the cash flows (C) — estimate gross revenues, operating costs, and project lifetime.
    • Calculation of cash flow after tax (E) — compute annual net cash flows after deducting taxes and adding back non-cash depreciation.
    • Application of capital budgeting technique (B) — apply financial appraisal criteria such as NPV, IRR, or profitability index.
    • Accept/reject decision (D) — select proposals that exceed the hurdle rate and reject those that destroy value.

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49. Question 49

    Which of the following options is related to training for developmental strategy of rural entrepreneurship?

    1. ASkill enhancement
    2. BConstruction of modern infrastructure
    3. CCredit Assistance
    4. DIntegrating Government Efforts

    Answer: (A) Skill enhancement

    Explanation

    Developmental training programs for rural entrepreneurship focus on human resource capacity building:

    • A. Skill enhancement — correct. Training programs (such as RSETI or EDPs) directly enhance technical, artisanal, managerial, and financial skills of rural individuals, preparing them to establish viable micro-enterprises.
    • B. Construction of modern infrastructure — represents physical capital investment (roads, electricity, broadband), not educational training.
    • C. Credit Assistance — financial intervention provided through commercial banks and microfinance institutions.
    • D. Integrating Government Efforts — public policy coordination and administrative synergy, not direct training.

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50. Question 50

    Which of the following is part of corporate level strategies?

    A. Concentration strategies
    B. Retrenchment strategies
    C. Simultaneous and sequential
    D. Stakeholder analysis map
    E. Stability strategies

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C and D only
    2. BA, B, C and E only
    3. CB, C, D and E only
    4. DA and B only

    Answer: (B) A, B, C and E only

    Explanation

    Corporate-level (grand) strategies determine the overall scope and direction of a multi-business firm:

    • A. Concentration strategies — focusing on expansion within existing product-market domains.
    • B. Retrenchment strategies — turnaround, divestment, or liquidation to cut costs and stabilize distressed units.
    • E. Stability strategies — maintaining the current course with modest incremental improvements.
    • C. Simultaneous and sequential — combination strategies where a firm pursues multiple grand strategies simultaneously across business units or sequentially over time.
    • D. Stakeholder analysis map — an analytical diagnostic tool used in strategy formulation, not a corporate-level strategy.

    Therefore, statements A, B, C, and E constitute corporate-level strategies.

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51. Question 51

    If Current Ratio is 3.5 : 1 and Quick Ratio is 2 : 1. If excess of current assets over quick assets represented by inventories is Rs 24000. Calculate current assets.

    1. A32000
    2. B16000
    3. C48000
    4. D56000

    Answer: (D) 56000

    Explanation

    Current assets are calculated by linking the current ratio, quick ratio, and inventory value:

    Current Ratio = CA / CL = 3.5
    Quick Ratio = QA / CL = 2.0

    The difference between current assets and quick assets is inventory:

    CA - QA = 3.5 * CL - 2.0 * CL = 1.5 * CL

    Given that inventory equals Rs 24,000:

    1.5 * CL = 24,000
    CL = 24,000 / 1.5 = Rs 16,000

    Now compute Current Assets:

    CA = 3.5 * 16,000 = Rs 56,000

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52. Question 52

    Which of the following options indicates that the small industrial unit is sick?

    A. The unit's borrowing account remains below the standard level.
    B. Accumulated losses lead to erosion of capital
    C. The unit has been in commercial production for at least two years
    D. Lack of commitment from management
    E. Competitors are thriving

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AOnly A, B and C
    2. BOnly B, C and D
    3. COnly A, C, D and E
    4. DOnly A, B and D

    Answer: (A) Only A, B and C

    Explanation

    Under Reserve Bank of India (RBI) criteria, an industrial unit in the small-scale sector is classified as sick based on statutory financial and operational benchmarks:

    • A. Borrowing account irregularities — continuous default or account status falling below standard (NPA classification).
    • B. Erosion of capital — accumulated losses resulting in erosion of 50% or more of its peak net worth during previous accounting years.
    • C. Minimum operating duration — the enterprise has been in commercial production for at least two years to distinguish early startup gestation from chronic industrial sickness.
    • D & E — managerial commitment and competitor performance are external or behavioral factors rather than statutory criteria.

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53. Question 53

    In which of the following cases there will be flow of fund?

    A. Purchase of furniture for cash
    B. Payment of outstanding wages for cash
    C. Purchase of building by issue of shares
    D. Payment of creditor by issue of debenture
    E. Cash collection from debtors

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C only
    2. BA, D, E only
    3. CC, D, E only
    4. DA and D only

    Answer: (D) A and D only

    Explanation

    In funds flow analysis, a flow of funds occurs only when a transaction changes net working capital, which requires one current account and one non-current account:

    • A. Purchase of furniture for cash — furniture is a non-current asset and cash is a current asset. Working capital decreases, so this transaction represents an application of funds.
    • D. Payment of creditor by issue of debenture — creditors is a current liability and debenture is a non-current liability. Current liabilities decrease, increasing net working capital, so this constitutes a flow of funds.
    • B. Payment of outstanding wages for cash — involves two current accounts (cash and outstanding wages), leaving net working capital unchanged.
    • C. Purchase of building by issue of shares — involves two non-current accounts (fixed assets and equity), causing no change in working capital.
    • E. Cash collection from debtors — involves two current assets, causing zero net change in working capital.

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54. Question 54

    Which of the following factors are based on situation in the process of perception?

    A. Similarity
    B. Time
    C. Work setting
    D. Experience
    E. Social setting

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C and D only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CB, C and E only
    4. DA, B and D only

    Answer: (C) B, C and E only

    Explanation

    Stephen P. Robbins categorizes factors influencing perception into perceiver, target, and situational contexts:

    • Factors in the situation — Time (B), Work setting (C), and Social setting (E). Contextual elements dictate how an observed event or person is interpreted.
    • Factors in the perceiver — Attitudes, motives, interests, expectations, and past experience (D).
    • Factors in the target — Novelty, motion, sounds, size, background, proximity, and similarity (A).

    Therefore, only B, C, and E are factors based on the situation.

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55. Question 55

    'Strategic Drift' occurs when:

    1. AOrganizations deliberately move towards innovation
    2. BThere is a mismatch between the organisation strategy and its external environment over time
    3. COrganizations implement successful strategies consistently
    4. DFirms experience rapid growth and expansion

    Answer: (B) There is a mismatch between the organisation strategy and its external environment over time

    Explanation

    Strategic drift is a recognized phenomenon in strategic management described by Gerry Johnson:

    • B. There is a mismatch between the organisation strategy and its external environment over time — correct. Occurs when a firm's incremental strategic adjustments fail to keep pace with rapid external environmental changes, causing performance to deteriorate gradually.
    • A. Deliberately move towards innovation — this describes proactive transformation or radical innovation, the opposite of drift.
    • C. Implement successful strategies consistently — consistent strategic alignment prevents drift rather than creating it.
    • D. Rapid growth and expansion — drift is characterized by declining competitiveness and eventual crisis, not healthy expansion.

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56. Question 56

    Amongst the following options what are inclusive of opportunity recognition process?

    A. Risk taking ability
    B. Prior knowledge of markets and customer problems
    C. Entrepreneurial alertness
    D. Networks
    E. Availability of job opportunities

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DA, B, D and E only

    Answer: (B) B, C and D only

    Explanation

    In the Ardichvili, Cardozo, and Ray model of entrepreneurial opportunity recognition, the informational and cognitive foundations consist of:

    • B. Prior knowledge — familiarity with special interest areas, market conditions, and customer pain points.
    • C. Entrepreneurial alertness — high cognitive readiness to identify unnoticed market imbalances without deliberate search.
    • D. Networks — social and business ties that provide privileged access to valuable market intelligence.
    • A. Risk taking ability — a psychological personality trait that influences the decision to exploit an opportunity once discovered, not the discovery process itself.
    • E. Availability of job opportunities — an external labor market factor.

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57. Question 57

    Which of the following are the types of surface level diversity in an organisation?

    A. Age
    B. Sexual orientation
    C. Number aptitude
    D. Physical Disability
    E. Length of Tenure

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, and D only
    2. BA, C and E only
    3. CA, D and E only
    4. DB, D and E only

    Accepted answers: (A) A, B, and D only, (C) A, D and E only

    Explanation

    Workforce diversity classifications differentiate between surface-level and deep-level diversity:

    • Surface-level diversity encompasses observable demographic and biographical characteristics, primarily Age (A), Physical Disability (D), and Gender/Race.
    • Number aptitude (C) reflects an underlying cognitive ability, which represents deep-level diversity.
    • Depending on whether demographic classifications emphasize visible biographical records (including Length of Tenure, E) or social identity groupings (including Sexual orientation, B), either combination A, D, and E (Option C) or A, B, and D (Option A) has been supported in organizational behavior texts.

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58. Question 58

    Which queuing model represents a situation in which a customer comes to a bank counter every five minutes and it takes exactly five minutes for a banker to serve a customer?

    1. APoisson- Exponential Single Server
    2. BPoisson- Exponential Multi Server
    3. CPoisson Exponential Binary Server
    4. DDeterminant

    Answer: (D) Determinant

    Explanation

    In queuing theory, arrival and service patterns are classified by their probability distributions:

    • D. Determinant (Deterministic) — correct. When customers arrive at constant fixed intervals (exactly every 5 minutes) and service times are constant (exactly 5 minutes), arrival and service rates are completely non-random, conforming to a deterministic D/D/1 queuing model. The examination paper prints 'Determinant' as a typographical rendering of deterministic.
    • A. Poisson- Exponential Single Server — M/M/1 model where arrivals follow a Poisson distribution and service times follow an exponential distribution with random variance.
    • B & C — models assuming random stochastic Poisson arrival or multi-server Markovian processes.

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59. Question 59

    Arrange the organisational change in proper sequence :

    A. Diagnosis
    B. Implementation
    C. Information gathering
    D. Discuss
    E. Work proposal

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AB, D, C, A, E
    2. BA, C, D, E, B
    3. CA, D, E, C, B
    4. DA, B, C, D, E

    Answer: (B) A, C, D, E, B

    Explanation

    In planned organizational change and action research models, the consulting process follows a five-stage sequence:

    A, C, D, E, B

    • Diagnosis (A) — identify organizational problem areas and define change objectives.
    • Information gathering (C) — collect empirical operational data, survey feedback, and workflow metrics.
    • Discuss (D) — share gathered diagnostic findings with leaders and teams to build shared awareness.
    • Work proposal (E) — formulate the specific intervention plan, timelines, and resource commitments.
    • Implementation (B) — execute the planned change interventions across the organization.

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60. Question 60

    Which one of the following is the standard deviation of the first 'n' natural number?

    1. Aσ = √[(n²−1)/6]
    2. Bσ = √[(n²+1)/6]
    3. Cσ = √[(n²−1)/12]
    4. Dσ = √[(n²+1)/12]

    Answer: (C) σ = √[(n²−1)/12]

    Explanation

    The standard deviation of the first n natural numbers (1, 2, 3, ... n) is derived from the variance formula:

    Variance = E[X²] - (E[X])²

    For the first n natural numbers:

    Mean = (n + 1) / 2
    Sum of squares = n * (n + 1) * (2n + 1) / 6
    E[X²] = (n + 1) * (2n + 1) / 6

    Compute the variance:

    Variance = [(n + 1) * (2n + 1) / 6] - [(n + 1)² / 4] = (n² - 1) / 12

    Taking the square root yields the standard deviation:

    σ = √[(n² - 1) / 12]

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61. Question 61

    Which of the following are Positional Average?

    A. Mean
    B. Median
    C. Mode
    D. Quartiles
    E. Harmonic Mean

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, D, E only
    2. BB, C, E only
    3. CA, B, C, D only
    4. DB, C, D only

    Answer: (D) B, C, D only

    Explanation

    Measures of central tendency are mathematically divided into two broad groups:

    • Positional Averages — values determined by their position in an ordered dataset: Median (B), Mode (C), and partition values like Quartiles (D), Deciles, and Percentiles.
    • Mathematical Averages — values calculated by algebraic manipulation of all observations: Arithmetic Mean (A), Geometric Mean, and Harmonic Mean (E).

    Therefore, only B, C, and D are positional averages.

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62. Question 62

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Lockout	I. Having employees carry signs announcing their concerns near employer's place of work
    B. Injunction	II. A situation in which the parties are unable to reach an agreement
    C. Picketing	III. Refusal by the employer to provide work opportunities
    D. Impasse	IV. An order of the court ordering a party or parties to return to work or refrain from a particular act

    1. AA - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
    2. BA - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
    3. CA - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
    4. DA - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III

    Answer: (B) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

    Explanation

    Industrial relations and labor dispute terms are defined as follows:

    A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

    • A. Lockout — III. Temporary closing of a place of employment or refusal by an employer to provide work opportunities to employees.
    • B. Injunction — IV. Judicial decree issued by a court ordering a party to return to work or refrain from performing a specific act.
    • C. Picketing — I. Demonstrative protest where workers carry placards and gather near an employer's facility to publicize their grievances.
    • D. Impasse — II. Deadlock in collective bargaining negotiations where neither management nor the union can reach mutual agreement.

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63. Question 63

    In the VRIO Framework a resource leads to sustained competitive advantage only if is:

    1. AValuable, widely available and flexible
    2. BValuable, rare, costly to imitate, and efficiently organized
    3. CRare, technologically advanced and easily substitutable
    4. DUnique, non-valuable and adaptable

    Answer: (B) Valuable, rare, costly to imitate, and efficiently organized

    Explanation

    Jay Barney's Resource-Based View (RBV) evaluates organizational capabilities through the VRIO framework:

    • B. Valuable, rare, costly to imitate, and efficiently organized — correct. A firm achieves sustained competitive advantage only when a resource is Valuable (neutralizes threats or exploits opportunities), Rare (possessed by few rivals), Inimitable (costly to imitate), and Organized (the firm has internal structures to exploit it).
    • A — widely available resources lead only to competitive parity.
    • C — easily substitutable resources cannot defend sustained competitive advantage.
    • D — a non-valuable resource creates competitive disadvantage.

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64. Question 64

    Intermediate cash inflows are assumed to be reinvested at which rate under NPV method?

    1. AInternal Rate of Return
    2. BCost of capital
    3. CModified Internal Rate of Return
    4. DRepo Rate

    Answer: (B) Cost of capital

    Explanation

    Capital budgeting evaluation techniques rely on specific reinvestment rate assumptions:

    • B. Cost of capital — correct. The Net Present Value (NPV) method implicitly assumes that intermediate cash inflows generated during project life can be reinvested at the firm's hurdle rate or cost of capital.
    • A. Internal Rate of Return — the standard IRR technique unrealistically assumes intermediate inflows are reinvested at the project's own internal rate of return.
    • C. Modified Internal Rate of Return — MIRR is an appraisal technique that explicitly resolves the IRR reinvestment flaw by applying the cost of capital.
    • D. Repo Rate — the central bank benchmark lending rate, which does not govern firm-level corporate project appraisal.

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65. Question 65

    Arrange the following developments in the international monetary system in chronological order:

    A. Bretton Woods
    B. Classical Gold Standard
    C. Gold Exchange Standard
    D. European union
    E. Louvre Accord

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C, D, E
    2. BE, D, C, B, A
    3. CB, C, E, D, A
    4. DB, C, A, E, D

    Answer: (D) B, C, A, E, D

    Explanation

    The historical milestones of the international monetary system arranged chronologically are:

    B, C, A, E, D

    • Classical Gold Standard (B) — prevailing from approximately 1875 to 1914.
    • Gold Exchange Standard (C) — interwar monetary system established in 1925 and collapsing in 1931.
    • Bretton Woods (A) — fixed exchange rate system established in 1944.
    • Louvre Accord (E) — international agreement signed in February 1987 to stabilize exchange rates.
    • European union (D) — established via the Maastricht Treaty signed in 1992 (entering into force in November 1993).

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66. Question 66

    Which of the following are probability sampling methods?

    A. Quota Sampling
    B. Purposive Sampling
    C. Multistage Sampling
    D. Cluster Sampling
    E. Systematic Sampling

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BC, D and E only
    3. CA, C and E only
    4. DB, C, D and E only

    Answer: (B) C, D and E only

    Explanation

    In statistical research methods, sampling designs are classified by probability selection mechanisms:

    • Probability sampling methods — every population element has a known non-zero probability of selection: Multistage Sampling (C), Cluster Sampling (D), and Systematic Sampling (E).
    • Non-probability sampling methods — sample selection relies on researcher discretion: Quota Sampling (A) and Purposive Sampling (B).

    Therefore, only C, D, and E are probability sampling methods.

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67. Question 67

    Why are employers adopting Performance Management Systems (PMS)?

    A. Adoption of TQM philosophy
    B. Introducing productive appraisal strategies
    C. Aligning each employee in strategic planning
    D. Managing conflict day to day
    E. Reduce diverse workforce

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BA, C and D only
    3. CB, D and E only
    4. DA, B, C, D and E

    Answer: (A) A, B and C only

    Explanation

    Performance Management Systems (PMS) replace isolated annual appraisals with continuous strategic performance development:

    • A. Adoption of TQM philosophy — PMS supports Total Quality Management by fostering continuous improvement, customer satisfaction, and error elimination.
    • B. Introducing productive appraisal strategies — replaces backward-looking evaluations with developmental forward-looking coaching.
    • C. Aligning each employee in strategic planning — cascades organizational vision into measurable individual objectives.
    • D & E — day-to-day conflict handling is managed through operational leadership, and reducing workforce diversity is contrary to modern human resource strategy.

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68. Question 68

    Arrange the following stages of AI-based predictive analysis in proper sequence:

    A. Develop the model
    B. Collect and organize big data
    C. Integrate AI system with company software
    D. Evaluate performance

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C, D
    2. BB, A, C, D
    3. CB, C, A, D
    4. DC, B, A, D

    Answer: (B) B, A, C, D

    Explanation

    The end-to-end lifecycle for implementing predictive artificial intelligence in an enterprise follows a four-step progression:

    B, A, C, D

    • Collect and organize big data (B) — ingest, aggregate, and structure raw data from internal and external sources.
    • Develop the model (A) — train predictive algorithms and optimize hyperparameters using data pipelines.
    • Integrate AI system with company software (C) — deploy the trained predictive model into enterprise ERP and operational systems.
    • Evaluate performance (D) — monitor real-world inference accuracy, latency, and business outcomes continuously in production.

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69. Question 69

    Which one of the following economists is not related to oligopoly theory?

    1. APaul M. Sweezy
    2. BAugustin Cournot
    3. CHall and Hitch
    4. DJ. K. Galbraith

    Answer: (D) J. K. Galbraith

    Explanation

    Microeconomic oligopoly models address price rigidity and mutual interdependence among few dominant sellers:

    • D. J. K. Galbraith — correct. John Kenneth Galbraith was a prominent institutional economist renowned for concepts like countervailing power and the affluent society, not classical oligopoly pricing models.
    • A. Paul M. Sweezy — introduced the kinked demand curve model in 1939 to explain price rigidity under oligopoly.
    • B. Augustin Cournot — developed the foundational Cournot duopoly model in 1838 based on output competition.
    • C. Hall and Hitch — empirical Oxford economists who formulated full-cost pricing and kinked demand analysis in 1939.

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70. Question 70

    Arrange the steps of hypothesis testing in the correct sequence:

    A. Formulate decision rule to accept null hypothesis
    B. Select suitable significance test
    C. State null and alternative hypothesis
    D. Establish critical or rejection region
    E. State level of significance

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AC, E, D, B, A
    2. BE, C, B, D, A
    3. CC, B, E, D, A
    4. DB, C, E, A, D

    Answer: (C) C, B, E, D, A

    Explanation

    The standard formal procedure for statistical hypothesis testing follows a logical sequence:

    C, B, E, D, A

    • State null and alternative hypothesis (C) — formulate H0 and H1 clearly.
    • Select suitable significance test (B) — choose the appropriate test statistic based on distribution and sample size.
    • State level of significance (E) — establish the acceptable probability of committing a Type I error.
    • Establish critical or rejection region (D) — determine the cutoff threshold using statistical tables.
    • Formulate decision rule to accept null hypothesis (A) — compare the calculated test statistic with the critical value to conclude.

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71. Question 71

    Which one of the following is correct when a null hypothesis is accepted?

    1. Aχ²cal ≤ χ²table
    2. Bχ²cal > χ²table
    3. Cχ²cal < χ²table
    4. Dχ²cal = χ²table

    Answer: (A) χ²cal ≤ χ²table

    Explanation

    In statistical hypothesis testing using the chi-square distribution:

    • A. χ²cal ≤ χ²table — correct. A null hypothesis is accepted (failed to be rejected) when the computed test statistic is less than or equal to the critical table value at the specified degrees of freedom and alpha level.
    • B. χ²cal > χ²table — the decision condition under which the null hypothesis is rejected because observed deviations are statistically significant.
    • C & D — strict inequality or exact equality represent incomplete or single-boundary conditions rather than the standard decision rule.

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72. Question 72

    Premium is payable by a person who:

    A. Sells call option
    B. Purchases call option
    C. Sells futures
    D. Purchases put option
    E. Purchases futures

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and D only
    2. BB, D and E only
    3. CA, C and E only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (D) B and D only

    Explanation

    In financial derivatives, option premium payments represent the purchase price of the contract rights:

    • B. Purchases call option — pays premium to acquire the right to buy the underlying asset.
    • D. Purchases put option — pays premium to acquire the right to sell the underlying asset.
    • A. Sells call option — the option writer receives the premium rather than paying it.
    • C & E. Futures contracts — buyers and sellers in futures contracts post initial margin requirements, but neither party pays an option premium.

    Therefore, premium is payable only by buyers of options, B and D only.

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73. Question 73

    Arrange the five-stage model of group development in the correct order:

    A. Forming
    B. Adjourning
    C. Storming
    D. Performing
    E. Norming

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C, D, E
    2. BC, B, A, E, D
    3. CB, D, C, B, A
    4. DA, C, E, D, B

    Answer: (D) A, C, E, D, B

    Explanation

    Bruce Tuckman's five-stage group development model outlines team evolution over time:

    A, C, E, D, B

    • Forming (A) — orientation stage marked by ambiguity regarding group purpose, structure, and leadership.
    • Storming (C) — intragroup conflict as members negotiate roles, influence, and task expectations.
    • Norming (E) — close relationships and cohesion develop as common behavioral norms are established.
    • Performing (D) — group structure is fully functional and energy is devoted to task execution.
    • Adjourning (B) — disbanding and wrapping up activities for temporary project teams.

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74. Question 74

    The interplay of drives, stimuli, responses and reinforcement is known as:

    1. AAttitude
    2. BBelief
    3. CLearning
    4. DPerception

    Answer: (C) Learning

    Explanation

    In behavioral psychology and consumer learning models (Clark Hull and Neal Miller):

    • C. Learning — correct. Defined as a relatively permanent change in behavior resulting from the continuous interplay of strong internal drives, environmental cues or stimuli, behavioral responses, and positive or negative reinforcement.
    • A. Attitude — enduring positive or negative cognitive evaluations and emotional feelings toward an object or idea.
    • B. Belief — descriptive thoughts held by an individual about something.
    • D. Perception — the cognitive process of selecting, organizing, and interpreting sensory inputs.

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75. Question 75

    Out of the following alternatives, which one is a tool for allocating resources, linking business growth rate with relative competitive position of the firm.

    1. AStrategy
    2. BDelphi technique
    3. CTows matrix
    4. DPortfolio Matrix

    Answer: (D) Portfolio Matrix

    Explanation

    In strategic business portfolio analysis:

    • D. Portfolio Matrix — correct. A portfolio matrix (such as the BCG Growth-Share Matrix) plots market growth rate on the vertical axis against relative market share (competitive position) on the horizontal axis to guide capital allocation among strategic business units.
    • A. Strategy — the broad plan of action rather than a specific two-dimensional analytical portfolio matrix.
    • B. Delphi technique — a structured qualitative forecasting panel method using iterative rounds of expert questionnaires.
    • C. Tows matrix — a strategy formulation tool that matches internal strengths and weaknesses with external opportunities and threats.

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76. Question 76

    Which of the following are the steps in the business purchasing process?

    A. Identifying the problem
    B. Common routine specification
    C. Supplier Selection
    D. Offer request
    E. Post-purchase behavior

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AOnly A, B, C and D
    2. BA, B, C, D and E
    3. COnly B, C and D
    4. DOnly B, C, D and E

    Answer: (B) A, B, C, D and E

    Explanation

    In organizational buying behavior (the Robinson, Faris, and Wind Buygrid model), industrial purchasing follows eight buyphases:

    • A. Identifying the problem — recognizing a business need or operational deficit.
    • D. Offer request — proposal solicitation and requesting bids from qualified vendors.
    • C. Supplier Selection — evaluating proposals and selecting the supplier.
    • B. Common routine specification — order-routine specification establishing final purchase orders, delivery terms, and warranties.
    • E. Post-purchase behavior — vendor performance review and post-purchase audit.

    All five listed phases belong to the business purchasing process.

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77. Question 77

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Short term deposit	I. Operating Activities
    B. Proceeds from issue of equity shares	II. Investing Activities
    C. Purchase of Machinery	III. Financing Activities
    D. Employee benefits expenses paid	IV. Cash and cash equivalents

    1. AA - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
    2. BA - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
    3. CA - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
    4. DA - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

    Answer: (D) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

    Explanation

    Under Ind AS 7, transactions are classified across cash flow statement categories:

    A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

    • A. Short term deposit — IV. Highly liquid short-term investments convertible to cash without risk of loss constitute Cash and cash equivalents.
    • B. Proceeds from issue of equity shares — III. Inflows that alter the paid-up equity share capital structure of the company are Financing Activities.
    • C. Purchase of Machinery — II. Capital expenditure on long-term tangible plant and equipment represents Investing Activities.
    • D. Employee benefits expenses paid — I. Routine payroll disbursements incurred in primary revenue-generating activities represent Operating Activities.

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78. Question 78

    'A system of shared meaning held by an organizations' members that distinguishes the organisation from others', the above statement describes which of the following?

    1. AOrganisational learning
    2. BOrganisational culture
    3. COrganisational supremacy
    4. DOrganisational cohesiveness

    Answer: (B) Organisational culture

    Explanation

    In organizational behavior literature (Stephen P. Robbins):

    • B. Organisational culture — correct. Defined as a system of shared meaning, core values, beliefs, and assumptions held by members that distinguishes the organization from other organizations.
    • A. Organisational learning — the continuous process of creating, retaining, and transferring knowledge within an organization.
    • C. Organisational supremacy — non-academic distractor denoting competitive dominance.
    • D. Organisational cohesiveness — the degree to which members of a group are attracted to each other and motivated to stay in the group.

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79. Question 79

    Data Mining is the process of:

    1. ACleaning and storing data in a database
    2. BExtracting patterns and knowledge from large datasets
    3. CStructuring unorganised data into relational format
    4. DCreating storage schemas for raw data

    Answer: (B) Extracting patterns and knowledge from large datasets

    Explanation

    Data mining represents the analytical phase of Knowledge Discovery in Databases (KDD):

    • B. Extracting patterns and knowledge from large datasets — correct. Utilizes machine learning, statistical models, and pattern recognition to discover previously unknown, valid, and actionable insights from vast repositories.
    • A. Cleaning and storing data — describes data warehousing and data cleansing pipelines.
    • C. Structuring unorganised data — describes ETL and data transformation.
    • D. Creating storage schemas — database design and data modeling.

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80. Question 80

    Which one of the following is an advantage of advertising over publicity?

    1. ACredibility
    2. BSelectivity
    3. CControl
    4. DTiming

    Answer: (C) Control

    Explanation

    In the promotional mix comparison between paid advertising and earned publicity:

    • C. Control — correct. Advertising grants the sponsor complete control over message content, creative design, placement media, and broadcast scheduling. In publicity, editorial journalists determine if, when, and how the news story is reported.
    • A. Credibility — publicity carries significantly higher perceived credibility than paid advertising because it is filtered through an independent third party.
    • B. Selectivity — both promotional tools can target specific demographic groups.
    • D. Timing — although advertising schedules can be set precisely, the fundamental structural advantage is absolute message control.

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81. Question 81

    Identify the key aspects of Business Process Engineering from the following:

    A. Radical Redesign
    B. Operational Redesign
    C. Fundamental Rethinking
    D. Dramatic Results
    E. Operational Transformation

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C only
    2. BA, C, D only
    3. CA, B, D only
    4. DA, C, E only

    Answer: (B) A, C, D only

    Explanation

    Michael Hammer and James Champy's foundational definition of Business Process Reengineering (BPR) emphasizes four core tenets:

    • C. Fundamental Rethinking — asking why we do what we do and challenging ingrained assumptions.
    • A. Radical Redesign — disregarding current structures and inventing entirely new ways of accomplishing work.
    • D. Dramatic Results — seeking quantum leaps in performance rather than minor incremental improvements.
    • B & E — operational redesign and operational transformation are incremental continuous improvement concepts, not the defining radical pillars of BPR.

    Therefore, A, C, and D are the key aspects.

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82. Question 82

    Arrange the stages in New Product Development in the correct sequence:

    A. Commercialization
    B. Market strategy development and business analysis
    C. Product development and test marketing
    D. Idea generation and screening
    E. Concept development and testing

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AD, E, B, C, A
    2. BE, D, B, C, A
    3. CD, B, E, C, A
    4. DB, D, E, C, A

    Answer: (A) D, E, B, C, A

    Explanation

    The standard sequential stages of New Product Development (NPD) formulated by Philip Kotler are:

    D, E, B, C, A

    • Idea generation and screening (D) — pool product ideas and eliminate unfeasible proposals.
    • Concept development and testing (E) — turn ideas into detailed product concepts and test with consumers.
    • Market strategy development and business analysis (B) — design positioning strategy and forecast profitability.
    • Product development and test marketing (C) — build functional prototypes and launch in limited test markets.
    • Commercialization (A) — initiate full-scale production, mass distribution, and advertising.

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83. Question 83

    The Line and Staff relationship in Human Resource Management refers to:

    1. AFormal and informal relationship
    2. BResponsibility and status relationship
    3. CCommanding and supporting relationship
    4. DJob and Role relationship

    Answer: (C) Commanding and supporting relationship

    Explanation

    Organizational authority relationships establish distinct structural roles for line and staff personnel:

    • C. Commanding and supporting relationship — correct. Line managers possess direct command authority to direct operations and enforce instructions, while staff managers (such as HR specialists) possess advisory authority to provide expert support, counseling, and technical guidance.
    • A. Formal and informal relationship — refers to organizational sociometric structures, not line-and-staff authority.
    • B. Responsibility and status — reflects hierarchical ranking rather than functional authority linkages.
    • D. Job and Role relationship — describes individual task design and psychological role expectations.

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84. Question 84

    Which of the following are foreign exchange parity theories?

    A. Lintner Model
    B. Purchasing Power Parity
    C. International Fisher effect
    D. Sharpe Model
    E. Interest Rate Parity

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and E only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DB, D and E only

    Answer: (B) B, C and E only

    Explanation

    In international corporate finance, foreign exchange equilibrium parity theories link exchange rates with economic variables:

    • B. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) — relates spot exchange rate changes to inflation rate differentials.
    • C. International Fisher effect (IFE) — links currency movements to nominal interest rate differentials.
    • E. Interest Rate Parity (IRP) — links forward exchange premiums or discounts to international interest rate differentials.
    • A. Lintner Model — an econometric model of corporate dividend smoothing.
    • D. Sharpe Model — the Single-Index Model used in portfolio analysis.

    Therefore, only B, C, and E are foreign exchange parity theories.

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85. Question 85

    Which one of the following is not an assumption of the Modigliani-Miller irrelevance theory of dividend?

    1. AThere are no transaction costs
    2. BThere are no floatation costs
    3. CInvestors are irrational
    4. DThere is no tax discrimination between capital gains and dividends

    Answer: (C) Investors are irrational

    Explanation

    Modigliani and Miller's dividend irrelevance theorem (1961) rests on perfect capital market assumptions:

    • C. Investors are irrational — correct. MM explicitly assumes that investors behave rationally, always preferring more wealth to less and indifferent between dividends and capital gains.
    • A. No transaction costs — fundamental assumption of frictionless capital markets.
    • B. No floatation costs — allows firms to issue new shares without incurring underwriting fees.
    • D. No tax discrimination — dividends and capital gains are taxed equally (or zero taxes exist).

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86. Question 86

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Price elasticity of demand	I. Demand remains unchanged regardless of price changes
    B. Income elasticity of demand	II. Calculated as the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by percentage change in price
    C. Perfectly inelastic demand	III. A measure of how demand changes in response to change in consumer income
    D. Perfectly elastic demand	IV. Demand drops to zero with even the slightest increase in price

    1. AA - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
    2. BA - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
    3. CA - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
    4. DA - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

    Answer: (C) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV

    Explanation

    Economic concepts of elasticity of demand are defined by responsiveness to price and income:

    A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV

    • A. Price elasticity of demand — II. The percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in price.
    • B. Income elasticity of demand — III. Measures how quantity demanded shifts in response to changes in consumer income.
    • C. Perfectly inelastic demand — I. The quantity demanded remains entirely unchanged regardless of price movements.
    • D. Perfectly elastic demand — IV. Demand drops to zero if the price increases even by the smallest margin.

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87. Question 87

    Arrange the following steps of research process in the correct sequence:

    A. Choose sampling design
    B. Analyze data
    C. Develop research design
    D. Collect data
    E. Define research objectives

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AE, C, A, D, B
    2. BE, A, C, D, B
    3. CC, E, A, B, D
    4. DA, E, C, D, B

    Answer: (A) E, C, A, D, B

    Explanation

    The scientific empirical research methodology proceeds in a five-step order:

    E, C, A, D, B

    • Define research objectives (E) — clearly state the research problem, scope, and testable hypotheses.
    • Develop research design (C) — establish the conceptual blueprint (exploratory, descriptive, or causal).
    • Choose sampling design (A) — determine target population, sampling frame, sample size, and sampling technique.
    • Collect data (D) — administer surveys, interviews, or experimental measurements.
    • Analyze data (B) — apply statistical tools, test hypotheses, and interpret research findings.

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88. Question 88

    Which entrepreneurial quality emphasizes relationship with people first and accepting challenges?

    1. ACreativity
    2. BLeadership
    3. CAchievement motivation
    4. DAdministration

    Answer: (B) Leadership

    Explanation

    Key entrepreneurial competencies drive different dimensions of business management:

    • B. Leadership — correct. Entrepreneurial leadership centers on inspiring individuals, building team relationships, and guiding members to accept complex challenges.
    • A. Creativity — focuses on original ideation, invention, and lateral thinking.
    • C. Achievement motivation — McClelland's construct focusing on personal goal accomplishment and calculated risk-taking rather than interpersonal diplomacy.
    • D. Administration — focuses on bureaucratic coordination, internal control systems, and routine operations.

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89. Question 89

    The 5P model of Strategic Human Resource Management consists of philosophy, programs, practices, process and _____.

    (a) People
    (b) Product
    (c) Politics
    (d) Price

    1. APeople
    2. BProduct
    3. CPolitics
    4. DPrice

    Answer: (A) People

    Explanation

    In Strategic Human Resource Management models (including Randall Schuler's strategic 5P framework):

    • A. People — correct. The 5P model links Philosophy, Policies/People, Programs, Practices, and Processes directly to strategic business needs.
    • B, C, D — Product and Price are elements of the marketing 4P mix, while Politics represents organizational political dynamics. None of these belong to the strategic HRM 5P model.

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90. Question 90

    Bad Debts are associated with which category of credit cost?

    1. ACollection cost
    2. BCapital cost
    3. CDelinquency cost
    4. DDefault cost

    Answer: (D) Default cost

    Explanation

    In credit management and accounts receivable policy:

    • D. Default cost — correct. When a credit customer fails entirely to settle obligations and the receivable becomes uncollectible, the resulting financial loss is recognized as a bad debt loss.
    • A. Collection cost — administrative expenses incurred in issuing reminders, letters, and processing customer payments.
    • B. Capital cost — the opportunity cost or interest expense of capital locked in outstanding receivables.
    • C. Delinquency cost — costs incurred when a customer delays payment past due date (such as overdue notices and specialized recovery efforts), before the debt becomes a complete default.

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91. Question 91

    Fredrick Winslow Taylor started his career in Midvale Steel Company during:

    Scientific management is a theory of management that analyzes and synthesizes workflows. Its main objective is improving economic efficiency, especially labor productivity. It was one of the earliest attempts to apply science of engineering processes to management. Scientific Management is also known as Taylorism after its pioneer, Frederick Winslow Taylor.

    Taylor began the theory's development in the United states during the 1880 s and 1890 s within manufacturing industries, especially steel. Its peak of influence came in the 1910s. Although Taylor died in 1915, by the 1920s scientific management was still influential but had entered into competition and syncretism with opposing or complementary ideas.

    The Midvale Steel Company, "one of America's great armor plate making plants," was the birthplace of scientific management. In 1877, Frederick W. Taylor started as a clerk in Midvale, but advanced to foreman in 1880 . As foreman, Taylor was constantly impressed by the failure of team members to produce more than about one-third of what he deemed a good day's work.

    Taylor determined to discover, by scientific methods, how long it should take men to perform each given piece of work; and it was in the fall of 1882 that he started to put the first features of scientific management into operation. Although scientific management as a distinct theory or school of thought was obsolete by the 1930s, most of its themes are still important parts of industrial engineering and management today.

    1. A1860 s
    2. B1870 s
    3. C1880 s
    4. D1890 s

    Answer: (B) 1870 s

    Explanation

    Based on the passage, Frederick W. Taylor began his career at the Midvale Steel Company in 1877:

    • B. 1870 s — correct. The year 1877 falls directly in the 1870s decade.
    • A, C, D — Taylor advanced to foreman in 1880 and began implementing scientific management in 1882, but his initial employment began in 1877.

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92. Question 92

    Which one of the following is not a correct statement?

    Scientific management is a theory of management that analyzes and synthesizes workflows. Its main objective is improving economic efficiency, especially labor productivity. It was one of the earliest attempts to apply science of engineering processes to management. Scientific Management is also known as Taylorism after its pioneer, Frederick Winslow Taylor.

    Taylor began the theory's development in the United states during the 1880 s and 1890 s within manufacturing industries, especially steel. Its peak of influence came in the 1910s. Although Taylor died in 1915, by the 1920s scientific management was still influential but had entered into competition and syncretism with opposing or complementary ideas.

    The Midvale Steel Company, "one of America's great armor plate making plants," was the birthplace of scientific management. In 1877, Frederick W. Taylor started as a clerk in Midvale, but advanced to foreman in 1880 . As foreman, Taylor was constantly impressed by the failure of team members to produce more than about one-third of what he deemed a good day's work.

    Taylor determined to discover, by scientific methods, how long it should take men to perform each given piece of work; and it was in the fall of 1882 that he started to put the first features of scientific management into operation. Although scientific management as a distinct theory or school of thought was obsolete by the 1930s, most of its themes are still important parts of industrial engineering and management today.

    1. AScientific management is a theory of management that analyzes and synthesizes workflow.
    2. BBy the 1920 s, scientific management was still influential but had entered into competition and syncretism with opposing or complementary ideas
    3. CFrederick W. Taylor started as a clerk in Midvale, but advanced to a senior supervisor in 1880
    4. DTaylor began his Theory's development within manufacturing industries

    Answer: (C) Frederick W. Taylor started as a clerk in Midvale, but advanced to a senior supervisor in 1880

    Explanation

    Evaluating the options directly against the provided reading passage:

    • C — incorrect statement and therefore the correct answer. The passage states that in 1880 Taylor advanced to foreman, not senior supervisor.
    • A — directly matches the opening sentence defining scientific management.
    • B — verbatim quote from the second paragraph detailing the status of the theory in the 1920s.
    • D — directly supported by the passage statement that Taylor developed his theory within manufacturing industries, especially steel.

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93. Question 93

    Which period is associated with the evolution of scientific management?

    Scientific management is a theory of management that analyzes and synthesizes workflows. Its main objective is improving economic efficiency, especially labor productivity. It was one of the earliest attempts to apply science of engineering processes to management. Scientific Management is also known as Taylorism after its pioneer, Frederick Winslow Taylor.

    Taylor began the theory's development in the United states during the 1880 s and 1890 s within manufacturing industries, especially steel. Its peak of influence came in the 1910s. Although Taylor died in 1915, by the 1920s scientific management was still influential but had entered into competition and syncretism with opposing or complementary ideas.

    The Midvale Steel Company, "one of America's great armor plate making plants," was the birthplace of scientific management. In 1877, Frederick W. Taylor started as a clerk in Midvale, but advanced to foreman in 1880 . As foreman, Taylor was constantly impressed by the failure of team members to produce more than about one-third of what he deemed a good day's work.

    Taylor determined to discover, by scientific methods, how long it should take men to perform each given piece of work; and it was in the fall of 1882 that he started to put the first features of scientific management into operation. Although scientific management as a distinct theory or school of thought was obsolete by the 1930s, most of its themes are still important parts of industrial engineering and management today.

    1. A20 th Century
    2. B21 st Century
    3. C1880 s and 1890 s
    4. D1890 s and 1900 s

    Answer: (C) 1880 s and 1890 s

    Explanation

    According to the second paragraph of the passage, Taylor originated the theory's evolution during the late 19th century:

    • C. 1880 s and 1890 s — correct. The passage explicitly states: 'Taylor began the theory's development in the United States during the 1880 s and 1890 s within manufacturing industries.'
    • A, B, D — these intervals do not match the explicit developmental period specified in the text.

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94. Question 94

    Scientific Management is also known as:

    Scientific management is a theory of management that analyzes and synthesizes workflows. Its main objective is improving economic efficiency, especially labor productivity. It was one of the earliest attempts to apply science of engineering processes to management. Scientific Management is also known as Taylorism after its pioneer, Frederick Winslow Taylor.

    Taylor began the theory's development in the United states during the 1880 s and 1890 s within manufacturing industries, especially steel. Its peak of influence came in the 1910s. Although Taylor died in 1915, by the 1920s scientific management was still influential but had entered into competition and syncretism with opposing or complementary ideas.

    The Midvale Steel Company, "one of America's great armor plate making plants," was the birthplace of scientific management. In 1877, Frederick W. Taylor started as a clerk in Midvale, but advanced to foreman in 1880 . As foreman, Taylor was constantly impressed by the failure of team members to produce more than about one-third of what he deemed a good day's work.

    Taylor determined to discover, by scientific methods, how long it should take men to perform each given piece of work; and it was in the fall of 1882 that he started to put the first features of scientific management into operation. Although scientific management as a distinct theory or school of thought was obsolete by the 1930s, most of its themes are still important parts of industrial engineering and management today.

    1. AManagerial Rationalism
    2. BFayolism
    3. CTaylorism
    4. DFunctional Organization

    Answer: (C) Taylorism

    Explanation

    The first paragraph of the reading passage explicitly identifies the alternative title for the theory:

    • C. Taylorism — correct. 'Scientific Management is also known as Taylorism after its pioneer, Frederick Winslow Taylor.'
    • B. Fayolism — refers to Henri Fayol's administrative management school.
    • A & D — general management and organizational design terminology.

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95. Question 95

    Which one of the following was the birthplace of Scientific Management?

    Scientific management is a theory of management that analyzes and synthesizes workflows. Its main objective is improving economic efficiency, especially labor productivity. It was one of the earliest attempts to apply science of engineering processes to management. Scientific Management is also known as Taylorism after its pioneer, Frederick Winslow Taylor.

    Taylor began the theory's development in the United states during the 1880 s and 1890 s within manufacturing industries, especially steel. Its peak of influence came in the 1910s. Although Taylor died in 1915, by the 1920s scientific management was still influential but had entered into competition and syncretism with opposing or complementary ideas.

    The Midvale Steel Company, "one of America's great armor plate making plants," was the birthplace of scientific management. In 1877, Frederick W. Taylor started as a clerk in Midvale, but advanced to foreman in 1880 . As foreman, Taylor was constantly impressed by the failure of team members to produce more than about one-third of what he deemed a good day's work.

    Taylor determined to discover, by scientific methods, how long it should take men to perform each given piece of work; and it was in the fall of 1882 that he started to put the first features of scientific management into operation. Although scientific management as a distinct theory or school of thought was obsolete by the 1930s, most of its themes are still important parts of industrial engineering and management today.

    1. ABethlehem Steel Corporation
    2. BMidvale Steel Corporation
    3. CBethlehem Steel Incorporation
    4. DMidvale Steel Company

    Answer: (D) Midvale Steel Company

    Explanation

    Referring to the third paragraph of the passage:

    • D. Midvale Steel Company — correct. The passage states verbatim: 'The Midvale Steel Company, "one of America's great armor plate making plants," was the birthplace of scientific management.'
    • B — uses the corporate suffix Corporation instead of Company.
    • A & C — Bethlehem Steel was another manufacturing facility where Taylor conducted later pig iron studies, but Midvale was the recognized birthplace.

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96. Question 96

    Which one of the following is not a part of mandatory recommendations?

    Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 1999 set up a committee under Shri Kumar Mangalam Birla, member SEBI Board, to promote and raise the standards of good corporate governance. The primary objective of the committee was to view corporate governance from the perspective of the investors and shareholders and to prepare a 'Code' to suit the Indian corporate environment.

    The mandatory recommendations apply to the listed companies with paid up share capital of Rs. 3 crore and above. The composition of board of directors should be a combination of executive and non-executive directors. Audit committee should contain 3 independent directors with one having financial and accounting knowledge.

    The Board should hold at least 4 meetings in a year with a maximum gap of 4 months between 2 meetings to review operational plans, capital budgets, quarterly results, minutes of committee meetings. The director shall not be member of more than 10 committee and shall not act as chairman of more than 5 committees across all companies.

    The non-mandatory recommendations were to apply to all the listed private and public sector companies, their directors, management, employees and professionals associated with such companies. The committee recognizes that compliance with the recommendations would involve restructuring the existing boards of companies. It also recognizes that smaller ones will have difficulty in immediately complying with these conditions.

    1. AAudit committee should contain 3 independent directors with one having financial and accounting knowledge
    2. BThe Board should hold at least 4 meetings in a year with maximum gap of 4 months between 2 meetings to review operational plans
    3. CDirector shall not be a member of more than 10 committees and shall not act as chairman of more than 5 committees across all companies
    4. DAuditor of the company must have experience of 10 years

    Answer: (D) Auditor of the company must have experience of 10 years

    Explanation

    Evaluating the options against the mandatory recommendations stated in paragraphs 2 and 3:

    • D — correct answer. Auditor tenure requirements are not included in the mandatory recommendations outlined in the passage.
    • A — explicitly stated in paragraph 2 regarding audit committee composition.
    • B — explicitly stated in paragraph 3 regarding minimum board meetings and interval.
    • C — explicitly stated in paragraph 3 regarding director committee limits.

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97. Question 97

    The non-Mandatory recommendations apply to which of the following?

    A. Listed private companies
    B. Listed public sector companies
    C. Shareholders
    D. Professionals associated with such companies

    Choose the correct answer:

    Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 1999 set up a committee under Shri Kumar Mangalam Birla, member SEBI Board, to promote and raise the standards of good corporate governance. The primary objective of the committee was to view corporate governance from the perspective of the investors and shareholders and to prepare a 'Code' to suit the Indian corporate environment.

    The mandatory recommendations apply to the listed companies with paid up share capital of Rs. 3 crore and above. The composition of board of directors should be a combination of executive and non-executive directors. Audit committee should contain 3 independent directors with one having financial and accounting knowledge.

    The Board should hold at least 4 meetings in a year with a maximum gap of 4 months between 2 meetings to review operational plans, capital budgets, quarterly results, minutes of committee meetings. The director shall not be member of more than 10 committee and shall not act as chairman of more than 5 committees across all companies.

    The non-mandatory recommendations were to apply to all the listed private and public sector companies, their directors, management, employees and professionals associated with such companies. The committee recognizes that compliance with the recommendations would involve restructuring the existing boards of companies. It also recognizes that smaller ones will have difficulty in immediately complying with these conditions.

    1. AA, B and C
    2. BA, B and D
    3. CB, C and D
    4. DA, C and D

    Answer: (B) A, B and D

    Explanation

    Paragraph 4 of the passage specifies the scope of non-mandatory recommendations:

    • 'The non-mandatory recommendations were to apply to all the listed private and public sector companies, their directors, management, employees and professionals associated with such companies.'
    • Listed private companies (A), Listed public sector companies (B), and Professionals associated with such companies (D) are explicitly enumerated.
    • Shareholders (C) represent the investor class on whose behalf governance is designed, rather than entities bound by corporate governance compliance recommendations.

    Therefore, the non-mandatory recommendations apply to A, B, and D.

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98. Question 98

    The recommendations of Kumar Mangalam Birla Committee were given in:

    Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 1999 set up a committee under Shri Kumar Mangalam Birla, member SEBI Board, to promote and raise the standards of good corporate governance. The primary objective of the committee was to view corporate governance from the perspective of the investors and shareholders and to prepare a 'Code' to suit the Indian corporate environment.

    The mandatory recommendations apply to the listed companies with paid up share capital of Rs. 3 crore and above. The composition of board of directors should be a combination of executive and non-executive directors. Audit committee should contain 3 independent directors with one having financial and accounting knowledge.

    The Board should hold at least 4 meetings in a year with a maximum gap of 4 months between 2 meetings to review operational plans, capital budgets, quarterly results, minutes of committee meetings. The director shall not be member of more than 10 committee and shall not act as chairman of more than 5 committees across all companies.

    The non-mandatory recommendations were to apply to all the listed private and public sector companies, their directors, management, employees and professionals associated with such companies. The committee recognizes that compliance with the recommendations would involve restructuring the existing boards of companies. It also recognizes that smaller ones will have difficulty in immediately complying with these conditions.

    1. ATwo categories
    2. BThree categories
    3. CFour categories
    4. DFive categories

    Answer: (A) Two categories

    Explanation

    The reading passage establishes that the Kumar Mangalam Birla Committee classified its recommendations into two distinct categories:

    • A. Two categories — correct. Specifically, mandatory recommendations (enforced on listed companies with capital of Rs 3 crore and above) and non-mandatory recommendations (voluntary guidelines for listed entities).
    • B, C, D — the passage provides no mention of third or fourth tiers of recommendations.

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99. Question 99

    The Kumar Mangalam Birla Committee report was on:

    Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 1999 set up a committee under Shri Kumar Mangalam Birla, member SEBI Board, to promote and raise the standards of good corporate governance. The primary objective of the committee was to view corporate governance from the perspective of the investors and shareholders and to prepare a 'Code' to suit the Indian corporate environment.

    The mandatory recommendations apply to the listed companies with paid up share capital of Rs. 3 crore and above. The composition of board of directors should be a combination of executive and non-executive directors. Audit committee should contain 3 independent directors with one having financial and accounting knowledge.

    The Board should hold at least 4 meetings in a year with a maximum gap of 4 months between 2 meetings to review operational plans, capital budgets, quarterly results, minutes of committee meetings. The director shall not be member of more than 10 committee and shall not act as chairman of more than 5 committees across all companies.

    The non-mandatory recommendations were to apply to all the listed private and public sector companies, their directors, management, employees and professionals associated with such companies. The committee recognizes that compliance with the recommendations would involve restructuring the existing boards of companies. It also recognizes that smaller ones will have difficulty in immediately complying with these conditions.

    1. AInvestors' Protection
    2. BInvestors and Shareholders Awareness
    3. CCorporate Governance
    4. DSEBI Guidelines on Market Operations

    Answer: (C) Corporate Governance

    Explanation

    The opening sentence of the passage states:

    • C. Corporate Governance — correct. 'Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 1999 set up a committee under Shri Kumar Mangalam Birla, member SEBI Board, to promote and raise the standards of good corporate governance.'
    • A & B — investor protection and awareness were focal perspectives within the mandate, but the subject of the committee's code was corporate governance.
    • D — broad SEBI operational area, not the subject of this committee report.

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100. Question 100

     Which one of the following can be inferred from the passage regarding compliance with the recommendations?

     Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 1999 set up a committee under Shri Kumar Mangalam Birla, member SEBI Board, to promote and raise the standards of good corporate governance. The primary objective of the committee was to view corporate governance from the perspective of the investors and shareholders and to prepare a 'Code' to suit the Indian corporate environment.

     The mandatory recommendations apply to the listed companies with paid up share capital of Rs. 3 crore and above. The composition of board of directors should be a combination of executive and non-executive directors. Audit committee should contain 3 independent directors with one having financial and accounting knowledge.

     The Board should hold at least 4 meetings in a year with a maximum gap of 4 months between 2 meetings to review operational plans, capital budgets, quarterly results, minutes of committee meetings. The director shall not be member of more than 10 committee and shall not act as chairman of more than 5 committees across all companies.

     The non-mandatory recommendations were to apply to all the listed private and public sector companies, their directors, management, employees and professionals associated with such companies. The committee recognizes that compliance with the recommendations would involve restructuring the existing boards of companies. It also recognizes that smaller ones will have difficulty in immediately complying with these conditions.

     1. AThe existing boards of companies would need restructuring
     2. BA foreign company can be listed without complying with the recommendations
     3. COnly two categories of companies are covered by the recommendations
     4. DAll directors must be re-elected after implementation of the recommendations

     Answer: (A) The existing boards of companies would need restructuring

     Explanation

     The final paragraph of the passage addresses structural adaptation for compliance:

     • A. The existing boards of companies would need restructuring — correct. The passage explicitly states: 'The committee recognizes that compliance with the recommendations would involve restructuring the existing boards of companies.'
     • B, C, D — foreign listing exemptions, two-company restrictions, or mandatory re-election of all directors are unsupported by the passage.

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