UGC NET Computer Science Software Engineering Previous Year Questions (PYQs)

All 146 Software Engineering PYQs

Ordered newest exam first. Each question links back to the full paper it came from.

1. Question 1

   UGC NET June 2026

   Which document outlines the functional and non-functional requirements of a software system?

   1. ASRS document
   2. BDesign document
   3. CTest plan
   4. DUser manual

   Answer: (A) SRS document

   Explanation

   A Software Requirements Specification defines what the system must do and the quality constraints it must meet. Design documents describe implementation choices, while test plans and manuals serve later purposes.

   Sign in to read the full explanation

   Login / Signup

2. Question 2

   UGC NET June 2026

   Which is not a concern during the management of a software project?

   1. AProject/product information
   2. BProduct quality
   3. CTime
   4. DMoney

   Answer: (B) Product quality

   Explanation

   The project-management concerns in this classification are information, time, and money. Product quality is an outcome/quality attribute managed through engineering and quality assurance, rather than one of those named management concerns.

   Sign in to read the full explanation

   Login / Signup

3. Question 3

   UGC NET June 2026

   Match List-I with List-II.

   List-I: Process model	List-II: Characteristic
   A. Classical waterfall model B. Prototype model C. Evolutionary model D. Spiral model	I. Risk analysis II. Large problem with incremental delivery III. Clear requirements IV. Requirements are not well understood

   1. AA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
   2. BA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
   3. CA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
   4. DA-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

   Answer: (B) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

   Explanation

   The classical waterfall model assumes clear requirements. A prototype is suited to poorly understood requirements, an evolutionary model supports incremental delivery, and the spiral model centres on risk analysis. Thus the matching is A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I.

   Sign in to read the full explanation

   Login / Signup

4. Question 4

   UGC NET June 2026

   Match List-I with List-II.

   A. Waterfall model
   B. Agile methodology
   C. Test-driven development
   D. Continuous integration

   List-I	List-II
   A. Waterfall B. Agile C. TDD D. CI	I. Collaboration/release feedback II. Automated integration III. Fixed sequential steps IV. Tests before code

   1. AA-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
   2. BA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-II
   3. CA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
   4. DA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

   Answer: (D) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

   Explanation

   Waterfall is sequential fixed stages (III), Agile uses iterative collaboration and feedback (I), TDD writes tests before implementation (IV), and continuous integration uses frequent integration and automated testing (II).

   Sign in to read the full explanation

   Login / Signup

5. Question 5

   UGC NET June 2026

   A program takes 100 man-days to write in FORTRAN. Rewriting the 1% hot code in assembly takes four times the original FORTRAN effort for that portion. If the team finishes the entire FORTRAN program plus this rewrite in 13 days, how many programmers are on the team?

   1. A13 programmers
   2. B10 programmers
   3. C8 programmers
   4. D100/13 programmers

   Answer: (C) 8 programmers

   Explanation

   Writing the full FORTRAN program costs 100 man-days. Rewriting 1% costs 4 × 1 = 4 further man-days, for a total of 104 man-days. Dividing 104 by 13 calendar days gives 8 programmers.

   Sign in to read the full explanation

   Login / Signup

6. Question 6

   UGC NET June 2026

   If 99% of the program is written in FORTRAN and 1% directly in assembly, what is the percentage increase in programming time compared with writing all FORTRAN first and then rewriting the 1% in assembly?

   1. A10%
   2. B5%
   3. C13%
   4. D8%

   Answer: (B) 5%

   Explanation

   Writing 99% in FORTRAN costs 99 man-days and writing 1% directly in assembly costs 10 man-days, totalling 109. The alternative costs 100 + 4 = 104 man-days. The increase is (109 − 104)/104 × 100 ≈ 4.81%, which rounds to 5%.

   Sign in to read the full explanation

   Login / Signup

7. Question 7

   UGC NET June 2026

   How many days will two programmers take to write the whole program in FORTRAN and then rewrite the 1% hot code in assembly language?

   1. A52
   2. B53
   3. C54
   4. D55

   Answer: (A) 52

   Explanation

   The complete FORTRAN version costs 100 man-days. Converting the 1% part costs four times 1 man-day, adding 4, so the total is 104 man-days. Two programmers complete 104/2 = 52 days of work.

   Sign in to read the full explanation

   Login / Signup

8. Question 8

   UGC NET June 2026

   If 99% of the program is written in FORTRAN and 1% in assembly, what is the percentage increase in execution time compared with writing the whole program in FORTRAN and then rewriting the 1% in assembly?

   1. A0.9%
   2. B1%
   3. C0.1%
   4. D0%

   Answer: (D) 0%

   Explanation

   Both alternatives execute the same final language mix: 99% FORTRAN and the same 1% hot code in assembly. The hot portion is five times faster in either case, so the resulting execution time is identical. Therefore the increase is 0%.

   Sign in to read the full explanation

   Login / Signup

9. Question 9

   UGC NET January 2026

   Match List-I (Process/lifecycle models) with List-II.

   List-I	List-II
   A. V-Model	I. Trigger transition
   B. Incremental process model	II. Classic life cycle
   C. Spiral Model	III. Risk Driven
   D. Concurrent Model	IV. Core product

   1. AA-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
   2. BA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
   3. CA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
   4. DA-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

   Answer: (D) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

   Explanation

   Each process model is best known for one specific descriptive tag from the software engineering literature.

   A-II — The V-Model is a variant of the classic waterfall life cycle that pairs each development stage with a corresponding testing stage.

   B-IV — The incremental model delivers a core product in the first increment, then adds features in successive increments.

   C-III — The spiral model is explicitly risk-driven, since each loop of the spiral begins with a risk analysis before proceeding.

   D-I — The concurrent development model represents each software element as being in one of several states, moving between them through triggered event transitions.

   A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I is therefore the correct match.

   Sign in to read the full explanation

   Login / Signup

10. Question 10

    UGC NET January 2026

    Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

    Assertion (A): Higher cyclomatic complexity indicates a more complex program.
    Reason (R): It is calculated based on the number of independent execution paths in the program.

    1. ABoth A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is correct but R is not correct
    4. DA is not correct but R is correct

    Answer: (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

    Explanation

    Cyclomatic complexity is a direct measure of a program's structural complexity, so a higher value does indicate a more complex program, confirming Assertion A.

    Reason R correctly explains why. Cyclomatic complexity is computed from the number of linearly independent paths through the program's control flow graph, and more independent paths mean more distinct execution routes to understand and test, which is exactly what makes a program more complex. Reason R therefore correctly explains Assertion A.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

11. Question 11

    UGC NET January 2026

    Match List-I (UML diagram types) with List-II.

    LIST-I	LIST-II
    A. Class diagram	I. subset
    B. Package diagram	II. relationship
    C. Object diagram	III. dependencies
    D. Component diagram	IV. static structure

    1. AA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    2. BA-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
    3. CA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    4. DA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Answer: (C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Explanation

    Each pairing follows from what each UML diagram type is used to show.

    A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III.

    • A. Class diagram — IV. Static structure. It models the static structure of a system through classes, attributes, and their relationships.
    • B. Package diagram — I. Subset. It groups related model elements together, carving out a subset of the overall model.
    • C. Object diagram — II. Relationship. It is a snapshot of specific object instances and the relationships (links) between them at one point in time.
    • D. Component diagram — III. Dependencies. It shows the dependencies among the software components that make up a system.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

12. Question 12

    UGC NET January 2026

    Arrange the following WebApp design layers from top to bottom.

    A. Navigation Design
    B. Aesthetic Design
    C. Interface Design
    D. Content Design
    E. Performance Design

    1. AC, B, D, A, E
    2. BC, B, D, E, A
    3. CC, D, B, A, E
    4. DC, D, A, B, E

    Answer: (A) C, B, D, A, E

    Explanation

    Pressman's WebApp design model organizes design activities as layers arranged from the outermost, user-facing concern to the underlying implementation concern.

    Interface design (C) is the top layer, describing how the application presents itself and interacts with the user.
    Aesthetic design (B) comes next, covering the look-and-feel presentation built on that interface.
    Content design (D) follows, covering the actual information, media and data the WebApp delivers.
    Navigation design (A) comes after content, defining how users move between content and interface elements.
    Performance design (E) sits at the base, covering the underlying components and infrastructure that make everything above it work.

    This gives the order C, B, D, A, E.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

13. Question 13

    UGC NET January 2026

    Which of the following statements are correct regarding task elaboration in interface design?

    A. Alpha testing is done at the developer's site in a controlled environment.
    B. Beta testing is done at the end-user site with developer presence.
    C. Acceptance testing may be very formal and last for weeks.
    D. Alpha testing always replaces Beta testing.

    1. AA, B, C Only
    2. BA, B, D Only
    3. CB, C, D only
    4. DA, B, C, D

    Answer: (A) A, B, C Only

    Explanation

    Alpha and Beta testing are distinguished by where they happen and whether the developer is present, and checking each statement against that standard software engineering picture is what resolves this item.

    • A. Alpha testing is done at the developer's site in a controlled environment. — correct, Alpha testing is conducted at the developer's site with the developer able to control and monitor the environment.
    • B. Beta testing is done at the end-user site with developer presence. — as worded, this is not correct. Beta testing is conducted at one or more end-user sites, but specifically without the developer present, in an environment the developer cannot control, which is what makes it a realistic field test.
    • C. Acceptance testing may be very formal and last for weeks. — correct, acceptance testing can range from a few informal test cases to a planned, formal series of tests run over an extended period.
    • D. Alpha testing always replaces Beta testing. — wrong, Alpha and Beta testing serve different purposes, and rigorous engineering practice normally conducts both rather than treating one as a substitute for the other.

    Taken literally, only A and C are correct statements on their own, but among the given combinations, A, B, C Only is the closest match because it contains both genuinely correct statements and adds only one incorrect one, whereas the remaining options also misclassify D or drop a correct statement.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

14. Question 14

    UGC NET January 2026

    Match List-I (Coupling types) with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Content coupling	I. Modifies internal data of another component
    B. Control Coupling	II. Pass control flag to influence logic
    C. Stamp Coupling	III. Uses entire structure/class as argument
    D. Data Coupling	IV. Passes long list of data arguments.

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
    2. BA-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    3. CA-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
    4. DA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

    Answer: (D) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

    Explanation

    Coupling measures how tightly one module depends on another, and each type here has a distinct, well-defined signature.

    Content coupling is the tightest form, where one module directly modifies another module's internal data, so A pairs with I.
    Control coupling occurs when one module passes a control flag that dictates the logic path taken inside another, so B pairs with II.
    Stamp coupling occurs when an entire data structure or class is passed as an argument even though only part of it is needed, so C pairs with III.
    Data coupling, the loosest and most desirable form, is left to pair with IV, passing data arguments between modules.

    A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV is therefore the correct match.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

15. Question 15

    UGC NET January 2026

    Based on the passage, including the 10% contingency margin, what is the project cost?

    A project is planned for an enterprise accounting system with an estimated size of 60 KLOC. The organization applies Basic COCOMO in Semi-Detached mode, using these parameters:

    • Effort = 3.0 x (KLOC)^1.0 person-months
    • Development time = 2.5 x (Effort)^0.5 months
    • Average cost per person-month (PM) = $10,000
    • A contingency margin of 10% on effort is mandatory
    • The client demands a detailed schedule if staff is capped at 15 engineers
    1. A$ 1.80 M
    2. B$ 1.98 M
    3. C$ 2.4 M
    4. D$ 2.36 M

    Answer: (B) $ 1.98 M

    Explanation

    Basic COCOMO first gives the nominal effort from project size, and then the mandatory contingency margin is layered on before costing the project.

    Nominal effort = 3.0 × (60)^1.0 = 180 PM
    Effort with 10% contingency = 180 × 1.10 = 198 PM
    Project cost = 198 PM × $10,000 per PM = $1,980,000

    $1,980,000 is $1.98 M, the contingency-inclusive project cost.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

16. Question 16

    UGC NET January 2026

    Based on the passage, what is the estimated development time in months?

    A project is planned for an enterprise accounting system with an estimated size of 60 KLOC. The organization applies Basic COCOMO in Semi-Detached mode, using these parameters:

    • Effort = 3.0 x (KLOC)^1.0 person-months
    • Development time = 2.5 x (Effort)^0.5 months
    • Average cost per person-month (PM) = $10,000
    • A contingency margin of 10% on effort is mandatory
    • The client demands a detailed schedule if staff is capped at 15 engineers
    1. A28 Months
    2. B26 Months
    3. C34 Months
    4. D12 Months

    Answer: (C) 34 Months

    Explanation

    COCOMO's schedule equation is applied to the nominal effort estimate, the 180 PM figure computed before the contingency margin is added, since the contingency margin covers extra staffing risk rather than changing the underlying size-based schedule model.

    Development time = 2.5 × (Effort)^0.5
    Development time = 2.5 × (180)^0.5 = 2.5 × 13.42 ≈ 33.5 months

    Rounding 33.5 to the nearest whole month gives 34 months, the closest listed option. Using the contingency-adjusted effort of 198 PM instead gives 2.5 × (198)^0.5 ≈ 35.2 months, which still rounds closest to 34 among the given choices, so 34 months is the answer under either basis.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

17. Question 17

    UGC NET January 2026

    Based on the passage, what is the implied average staffing level?

    A project is planned for an enterprise accounting system with an estimated size of 60 KLOC. The organization applies Basic COCOMO in Semi-Detached mode, using these parameters:

    • Effort = 3.0 x (KLOC)^1.0 person-months
    • Development time = 2.5 x (Effort)^0.5 months
    • Average cost per person-month (PM) = $10,000
    • A contingency margin of 10% on effort is mandatory
    • The client demands a detailed schedule if staff is capped at 15 engineers
    1. A8 Engineers
    2. B5 Engineers
    3. C10 Engineers
    4. D12 Engineers

    Answer: (B) 5 Engineers

    Explanation

    Average staffing level is the total effort divided by the calendar time it is spread across, using the same nominal-effort basis adopted for the development time calculation above.

    Average staffing = Effort / Development time
    Average staffing = 180 PM / 33.5 months ≈ 5.37 engineers

    Rounding to the nearest whole engineer gives approximately 5 engineers, the closest listed option.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

18. Question 18

    UGC NET January 2026

    Based on the passage, if the staff is capped at 15 engineers, what is the revised calendar duration?

    A project is planned for an enterprise accounting system with an estimated size of 60 KLOC. The organization applies Basic COCOMO in Semi-Detached mode, using these parameters:

    • Effort = 3.0 x (KLOC)^1.0 person-months
    • Development time = 2.5 x (Effort)^0.5 months
    • Average cost per person-month (PM) = $10,000
    • A contingency margin of 10% on effort is mandatory
    • The client demands a detailed schedule if staff is capped at 15 engineers
    1. A20.0 Months
    2. B18.4 Months
    3. C13.2 Months
    4. D22.0 Months

    Answer: (C) 13.2 Months

    Explanation

    Capping the team size means the full committed effort, including the mandatory 10% contingency margin the organization must actually staff for, has to be delivered by a fixed number of engineers, so this calculation uses the contingency-inclusive effort of 198 PM rather than the nominal 180 PM used for the COCOMO schedule equation above.

    Revised duration = Effort / Number of engineers
    Revised duration = 198 PM / 15 = 13.2 months

    13.2 months matches one of the listed options exactly, confirming that the contingency-inclusive effort is the correct basis for this figure. Using the nominal 180 PM effort instead gives 180 / 15 = 12.0 months, which is not one of the listed options, reinforcing that the capped-staff duration is meant to be read off the full committed effort.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

19. Question 19

    UGC NET January 2026

    Based on the passage, what is the initial effort, in person-months (PM), before adding the contingency margin?

    A project is planned for an enterprise accounting system with an estimated size of 60 KLOC. The organization applies Basic COCOMO in Semi-Detached mode, using these parameters:

    • Effort = 3.0 x (KLOC)^1.0 person-months
    • Development time = 2.5 x (Effort)^0.5 months
    • Average cost per person-month (PM) = $10,000
    • A contingency margin of 10% on effort is mandatory
    • The client demands a detailed schedule if staff is capped at 15 engineers
    1. A240 PM
    2. B260 PM
    3. C180 PM
    4. D200 PM

    Answer: (C) 180 PM

    Explanation

    Basic COCOMO effort scales directly with project size in KLOC using the given exponent of 1.0.

    Effort = 3.0 × (KLOC)^1.0
    Effort = 3.0 × 60 = 180 PM

    180 PM is the nominal effort estimate before the 10% contingency margin is added.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

20. Question 20

    UGC NET June 2025

    Which is not a requirements-elicitation technique?

    1. AInterviews
    2. BThe use-case approach
    3. CFacilitated Application Specification Technique (FAST)
    4. DData-flow diagram

    Answer: (D) Data-flow diagram

    Explanation

    Interviews, use cases, and FAST are techniques for discovering and negotiating requirements. A data-flow diagram models how data moves through a system; it may document requirements but is not itself an elicitation technique.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

21. Question 21

    UGC NET June 2025

    In basic COCOMO, the effort estimate for organic software is:

    1. AE = 2.4(KLOC)^1.05 person-months
    2. BE = 3.4(KLOC)^1.06 person-months
    3. CE = 2.0(KLOC)^1.05 person-months
    4. DE = 2.4(KLOC)^1.07 person-months

    Answer: (A) E = 2.4(KLOC)^1.05 person-months

    Explanation

    The basic COCOMO organic-mode effort equation is E = 2.4 × (KLOC)^1.05 person-months. The coefficients and exponents for semi-detached and embedded modes differ.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

22. Question 22

    UGC NET June 2025

    The process used to discover difficult, unknown, and hidden information about an existing software system is called:

    1. ASoftware engineering
    2. BSoftware re-engineering
    3. CReverse engineering
    4. DInverse engineering

    Answer: (C) Reverse engineering

    Explanation

    Reverse engineering analyzes an existing system to recover its design, specifications, or other knowledge that is not readily visible. Re-engineering is broader and includes modifying or improving the system after such understanding is obtained.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

23. Question 23

    UGC NET June 2025

    Which is not a software characteristic?

    1. ASoftware does not wear out.
    2. BSoftware is flexible.
    3. CSoftware is not manufactured.
    4. DSoftware is always correct.

    Answer: (D) Software is always correct.

    Explanation

    Software can contain defects, so it is not always correct. Unlike physical hardware it does not wear out through use, it can be changed, and it is developed rather than manufactured in the usual physical sense.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

24. Question 24

    UGC NET June 2025

    Arrange stamp coupling, control coupling, external coupling, common coupling, and content coupling from lowest to highest coupling.

    1. AE, A, C, B, D
    2. BD, B, A, E, C
    3. CB, C, D, A, E
    4. DC, A, B, D, E

    Answer: (C) B, C, D, A, E

    Explanation

    Stamp coupling passes a composite data structure and is relatively weak. Control coupling passes control information; external coupling shares externally imposed formats; common coupling shares global data; and content coupling, where one module relies on another's internals, is strongest. Thus B, C, D, A, E is increasing order.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

25. Question 25

    UGC NET June 2025

    Arrange unit, integration, system, and acceptance testing in their usual software-development order.

    1. AB, C, A, D
    2. BB, A, C, D
    3. CC, B, A, D
    4. DC, B, D, A

    Answer: (B) B, A, C, D

    Explanation

    Testing starts with individual units, then verifies interactions between integrated units. The complete system is tested next, and acceptance testing follows to confirm that stakeholder requirements are met. The order is B, A, C, D.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup
26. Practise Software Engineering in a timed set

27. Question 26

    UGC NET June 2025

    Which cohesions are better than procedural cohesion?

    1. AFunctional and communicational only
    2. BFunctional, sequential, and communicational only
    3. CTemporal, communicational, and logical only
    4. DFunctional, communicational, and logical only

    Answer: (B) Functional, sequential, and communicational only

    Explanation

    Functional cohesion is strongest, followed by sequential and communicational cohesion; each is tighter than procedural cohesion. Temporal and logical cohesion are weaker because they group work by time or category rather than by direct data-flow or a single focused purpose.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

28. Question 27

    UGC NET June 2025

    Which are McCall quality factors: maintainability, usability, integrity, and functionality?

    1. AA and D only
    2. BA, B, and D only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DA, B, and C only

    Answer: (D) A, B, and C only

    Explanation

    McCall's quality model includes maintainability, usability, and integrity among its factors. “Functionality” is prominent in later models such as ISO/IEC 25010, but is not one of McCall's named factors.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

29. Question 28

    UGC NET June 2025

    Match reliability, efficiency, maintainability, and portability with their software-quality descriptions.

    Characteristic	Description
    A. Reliability	I. Transfer between environments
    B. Efficiency	II. Sustained performance over time
    C. Maintainability	III. Performance relative to resources
    D. Portability	IV. Effort needed for modification

    1. AA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    3. CA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    4. DA-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

    Answer: (B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Explanation

    Reliability is sustained performance under stated conditions and time; efficiency relates performance to resources; maintainability is the effort to modify software; and portability is transfer between environments. The mapping is A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

30. Question 29

    UGC NET June 2025

    Match equivalence partitioning, boundary-value analysis, cyclomatic complexity, and decision-table testing with their testing focus.

    Technique	Focus
    A. Equivalence Partitioning	I. Independent code paths
    B. Boundary Value Analysis	II. Valid/invalid input sets
    C. Cyclomatic Complexity	III. Input-range limits
    D. Decision Table Testing	IV. Action combinations and conditions

    1. AA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    3. CA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    4. DA-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

    Answer: (A) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

    Explanation

    Equivalence partitioning divides inputs into valid and invalid classes; boundary-value analysis tests input limits; cyclomatic complexity measures independent code paths; and decision tables test action combinations under varying conditions. Therefore A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

31. Question 30

    UGC NET January 2025

    As per the Software Engineering Institute, identify the correct maturity sequence:

    A. Initial
    B. Repeatable
    C. Managed
    D. Optimizing
    E. Defined

    1. AA, B, C, D, E
    2. BA, B, E, C, D
    3. CA, E, C, D, B
    4. DA, E, B, C, D

    Answer: (B) A, B, E, C, D

    Explanation

    The original SEI CMM levels progress from Initial to Repeatable, Defined, Managed and Optimizing. This is A, B, E, C, D. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

32. Question 31

    UGC NET January 2025

    The characteristics of modern programming are:

    A. Each module should do only one thing.
    B. Communication between modules is allowed only through a calling module.
    C. Communication can take place directly between modules without a calling-called relationship.
    D. Modules are single-entry, single-exit systems using control structures.

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BA, B and D only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DC and D only

    Answer: (B) A, B and D only

    Explanation

    Modern structured programming favours single-purpose modules, controlled calling relationships, and single-entry/single-exit control flow. Direct uncontrolled communication between unrelated modules breaks modularity.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

33. Question 32

    UGC NET January 2025

    Find the correct sequence of the prototype software-development model.

    A. Start
    B. Develop prototype
    C. Deliver to customer
    D. Quick design
    E. Quick play

    1. AA, B, C, D, E
    2. BA, E, D, B, C
    3. CA, B, D, E, C
    4. DA, B, E, D, C

    Answer: (B) A, E, D, B, C

    Explanation

    A prototype model begins with a start, quickly builds a preliminary version, obtains quick feedback/play, refines design, and delivers the result. The keyed sequence captures this iterative progression.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

34. Question 33

    UGC NET January 2025

    Software testability is how easily software can be tested. Which characteristic does not lead to testable software?

    1. AObservability
    2. BControllability
    3. CRepairability
    4. DUnderstandability

    Answer: (C) Repairability

    Explanation

    Observability, controllability and understandability directly help testing. Repairability is a maintainability attribute concerned with fixing faults after they are found. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

35. Question 34

    UGC NET January 2025

    Which one of the following is the correct estimation model based on the software equation?

    1. AE = [LOC × B⁰·²²² / P]² × (1/t⁴)
    2. BE = [LOC × B⁰·³³³ / P]³ × (1/t⁴)
    3. CE = [LOC × B⁰·⁴⁴⁴ / P]⁴ × (1/t³)
    4. DE = [LOC × B⁰·¹¹¹ / P]⁶ × (1/t³)

    Answer: (B) E = [LOC × B⁰·³³³ / P]³ × (1/t⁴)

    Explanation

    The authoritative final key selects option B. Its exponent structure is the correct software-equation form among the alternatives printed in the paper. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

36. Question 35

    UGC NET January 2025

    In Software Engineering, Jackson’s Principles are based on:

    A. Designation
    B. Definitions
    C. Refutable assertions
    D. Formal review
    E. Requirement elicitation

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (A) A, B and C only

    Explanation

    Jackson’s principles are founded on designation, definitions and refutable assertions. Formal review and elicitation may support engineering work but are not the listed principles. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

37. Question 36

    UGC NET January 2025

    Collaborative document inspection technique is used for

    1. ARequirement validation process
    2. BRequirement verification process
    3. CIntegration testing
    4. DBlack-box testing

    Answer: (A) Requirement validation process

    Explanation

    Collaborative inspection checks requirements with stakeholders to ensure the documented needs are the right ones. This is a requirements-validation technique, not a testing method. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

38. Question 37

    UGC NET January 2025

    Which one of the following is not part of requirement management?

    1. AFeatures Traceability Table
    2. BDependency Traceability Table
    3. CInterface Traceability Table
    4. DPage Traceability Table

    Answer: (D) Page Traceability Table

    Explanation

    Requirement management uses traceability links for features, dependencies and interfaces. “Page Traceability Table” is not a standard requirement-management traceability artifact. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

39. Question 38

    UGC NET January 2025

    Identify the correct statements regarding the spiral model.

    A. Spiral model is an incremental process model.
    B. Spiral model is a risk-driven process model.
    C. Spiral model is an acyclic balancing approach.
    D. Spiral model involves a set of anchor-point milestones.

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA and D only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (D) B and D only

    Explanation

    The spiral model is explicitly risk-driven and is organised around anchor-point milestones. It is cyclic rather than acyclic, so C is false. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

40. Question 39

    UGC NET January 2025

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I: software risk	List-II: uses
    A. Predictable risk B. Business risk C. Project risk D. Past project	I. Strategic risk II. Staffing and organization III. Implementation IV. Past-project experience

    1. AA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    2. BA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    3. CA-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
    4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (D) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Explanation

    Predictable risk is assessed from past project experience, business risk is strategic, project risk concerns staffing and organisation, and past-project risk concerns implementation. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

41. Question 40

    UGC NET August 2024

    Arrange the following steps of Feature Drive
    Development (FDD) process in the correct
    sequence :
    A. Develop an overall model
    B. Build by feature
    C. Plan by feature
    D. Design by feature
    E. Build a feature list

    1. A(A), (C), (B), (E), (D)
    2. B(A), (E), (C), (D), (B)
    3. C(B),(A),(D),(E),(C)
    4. D(A), (B), (C), (E), (D)

    Answer: (B) (A), (E), (C), (D), (B)

    Explanation

    Feature Driven Development runs: develop an overall model (A), build a feature list (E), plan by feature (C), design by feature (D), then build by feature (B). The model and the feature list must both exist before planning, and design always precedes build. That order is option B.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

42. Question 41

    UGC NET August 2024

    Which of the following are Agile Process Models
    ?
    A. Extreme Programming (XP)
    B. Waterfall
    C. Scrum
    D. Spiral
    E. Incremental

    1. A(A) and (C) Only
    2. B(B) and (C) Only
    3. C(A) and (D) Only
    4. D(B) and (E) Only

    Answer: (A) (A) and (C) Only

    Explanation

    Extreme Programming and Scrum are both Agile methods, built on short iterations and continuous customer feedback. Waterfall is strictly sequential; Spiral is risk-driven and iterative but not Agile; the Incremental model predates the Agile movement. Only (A) and (C) qualify, so option A is correct.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

43. Question 42

    UGC NET August 2024

    Arrange the following phases of the Agile
    process in the correct sequence :
    A. Design
    B. Release
    C. Testing
    D. Development
    E. Planning

    1. A(A), (B), (D), (E), (C)
    2. B(A), (D), (E), (B), (C)
    3. C(E), (A), (D), (C), (B)
    4. D(E), (D), (A), (C), (B)

    Answer: (C) (E), (A), (D), (C), (B)

    Explanation

    Even inside a short iteration the work still flows planning (E) → design (A) → development (D) → testing (C) → release (B). Requirements are agreed before design, code precedes its tests, and release comes last. That order is option C.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

44. Question 43

    UGC NET August 2024

    If a software project has 2000 lines of code
    (LOC) and the average productivity rate is 10
    LOC per person-hour, how many person-hours
    are required to complete the project?

    1. A100
    2. B150
    3. C200
    4. D250

    Answer: (C) 200

    Explanation

    Dividing total size by the productivity rate gives 2000 LOC ÷ 10 LOC per person-hour = 200 person-hours. Option C is correct.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

45. Question 44

    UGC NET August 2024

    Which of the following are typical activities in the
    software process lifecycle?
    A. Requirement Analysis
    B. System Design
    C. Code Refactoring
    D. Deployment
    E. Substructure

    1. A(A), (B), (C) Only
    2. B(B), (C), (D) Only
    3. C(A), (B), (D) Only
    4. D(A), (D), (E) Only

    Answer: (C) (A), (B), (D) Only

    Explanation

    Requirement analysis (A), system design (B) and deployment (D) are standard phases of the software process lifecycle. Code refactoring is a development practice rather than a lifecycle phase, and “substructure” is not a recognised activity at all. Only (A), (B) and (D) — option C.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

46. Question 45

    UGC NET August 2024

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (software design principles)	List-II (Definition)
    (A) Cohesion	(I) Degree to which one module relies on another module.
    (B) Coupling	(II) Dividing a software system into distinct modules.
    (C) Abstraction	(III) Degree to which elements of a module belong together.
    (D) Modularity	(IV) Simplifying complex reality by modeling classes appropriate to the problem.

    1. A(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
    2. B(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
    3. C(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
    4. D(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

    Answer: (C) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

    Explanation

    Cohesion measures how well the elements inside a single module belong together, so (A)-(III). Coupling measures how much one module depends on another, giving (B)-(I). Abstraction simplifies reality by modelling only the classes that matter, so (C)-(IV). Modularity is the division of the system into distinct modules, so (D)-(II). Option C is correct.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

47. Question 46

    UGC NET August 2024

    Given a project with an estimated effort of 1500
    person-hours and a team of 5 people, how many
    days will it take to complete the project, if each
    person works 8 hours a day?

    1. A30
    2. B37.5
    3. C40
    4. D45.5

    Answer: (B) 37.5

    Explanation

    Five people working eight hours a day supply 40 person-hours per day. Dividing 1500 person-hours by 40 gives 37.5 days, so option B is correct.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

48. Question 47

    UGC NET August 2024

    In Software configuration management, what is
    the primary purpose of version control ?

    1. ATo control the changes made to software
    2. BTo document user requirements
    3. CTo estimate project cost
    4. DTo design the software architecture

    Answer: (A) To control the changes made to software

    Explanation

    Within software configuration management, version control exists to record and govern changes to software artefacts over time — tracking history, enabling rollback, and supporting branching and merging. Requirements documentation, cost estimation and architectural design are separate activities. Option A is correct.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

49. Question 48

    UGC NET August 2024

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Testing Type)	List-II (Description)
    (A) Unit testing	(I) Testing individual components of the software.
    (B) Integration testing	(II) Testing the interaction between integrated components.
    (C) System testing	(III) Testing to verify the system meets business needs.
    (D) Acceptance testing	(IV) Testing the complete system to ensure it meets requirements.

    1. A(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
    2. B(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
    3. C(A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
    4. D(A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

    Answer: (B) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

    Explanation

    Unit testing exercises individual components, so (A)-(I). Integration testing checks how integrated components interact, giving (B)-(II). System testing validates the assembled system against its requirements, so (C)-(IV). Acceptance testing confirms the system meets business needs, so (D)-(III). Option B is correct.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

50. Question 49

    UGC NET August 2024

    Given a project that uses the COCOMO model
    with an estimated effort of 2000 person-months
    and a productivity rate of 5 person-month per
    KLOC, what is the estimated size of the project in
    KLOC ?

    1. A200
    2. B400
    3. C100
    4. D50

    Answer: (B) 400

    Explanation

    Dividing effort by the productivity rate gives 2000 person-months ÷ 5 person-months per KLOC = 400 KLOC, so option B is correct.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

51. Question 50

    UGC NET December 2023

    Test suite is consist of :

    1. ASet of defect cases
    2. BSet of boundary cases
    3. CSet of test cases
    4. DSet of nest cases

    Answer: (C) Set of test cases

    Explanation

    The key idea is stated in the problem: Test suite is consist of :. The correct answer is C: Set of test cases. It follows the governing definition, algorithm, or calculation in this software engineering item; the other choices fail to satisfy one or more stated conditions.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup
52. Practise Software Engineering in a timed set

53. Question 51

    UGC NET December 2023

    Level - 0 DFD is also called as :

    1. AUse case Diagram
    2. BSequence Diagram
    3. CContext Diagram
    4. DPrototype Diagram

    Answer: (C) Context Diagram

    Explanation

    The key idea is stated in the problem: Level - 0 DFD is also called as :. The correct answer is C: Context Diagram. It follows the governing definition, algorithm, or calculation in this software engineering item; the other choices fail to satisfy one or more stated conditions.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

54. Question 52

    UGC NET December 2023

    The selection of Spiral Model based on characteristics of requirements :
    A. Are requirements easily understandable and defined ?
    B. Do we change requirements quite often ?
    C. Can we define requirements early in the cycle ?
    D. Requirements are indicating a complex to be built Choose the correct answer from the options given below : @) © Only

    1. AC only
    2. BB only
    3. CB and D only
    4. DA and C only

    Answer: (C) B and D only

    Explanation

    The key idea is stated in the problem: The selection of Spiral Model based on characteristics of requirements :
    A. Are requirements easily understandable and defined ?
    B. Do we change requirements quite often ?
    C. Can we define requirements early in the cycle ?
    D. Requirements are indicating a . The correct answer is C: B and D only. It follows the governing definition, algorithm, or calculation in this software engineering item; the other choices fail to satisfy one or more stated conditions.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

55. Question 53

    UGC NET December 2023

    Evaluate these statements: Statement I: The friend function and the member functions of a friend class directly access the private and protected data. Statement II: The friend function can access the private data through the member functions of the base class In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

    Explanation

    The key idea is stated in the problem: Evaluate these statements: Statement I: The friend function and the member functions of a friend class directly access the private and protected data. Statement II: The friend function can access the private data through the member functions of the base class . The correct answer is A: Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. It follows the governing definition, algorithm, or calculation in this software engineering item; the other choices fail to satisfy one or more stated conditions.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

56. Question 54

    UGC NET December 2023

    Which of the following join is used to get all the tuples of relation X and Y with Null values of corresponding missing values ?

    X (S, Si, C)	Y (S, P, D)
    (J, 1, M) (B, 2, N) (R, 3, H) (T, 4, G)	(J, S₁, CA) (B, P₁, AB) (R, D₁, DC) (A, H₁, MD)

    1. ALeft outer join
    2. BRight outer join
    3. CNatural join
    4. DFull outer join

    Answer: (D) Full outer join

    Explanation

    The key idea is stated in the problem: Which of the following join is used to get all the tuples of relation X and Y with Null values of corresponding missing values ?. The correct answer is D: Full outer join. It follows the governing definition, algorithm, or calculation in this software engineering item; the other choices fail to satisfy one or more stated conditions.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

57. Question 55

    UGC NET June 2023

    A software system experienced five failures during testing. The time elapsed since the previous failure, in hours, is shown in the table.

    Error number	1	2	3	4	5
    Time since last failure (hours)	6	4	8	5	6

    Using the exponential reliability model with the failure rate estimated from the mean time between these five failures, what is the reliability of the software running for the next one hour without failing?

    1. Ae^(−9/29)
    2. Be^(−7/29)
    3. Ce^(−5/29)
    4. De^(−3/29)

    Answer: (C) e^(−5/29)

    Explanation

    The exponential software-reliability model estimates the failure rate as the number of observed failures divided by the total observed operating time, then applies R(t) = e^(-λt) for future operating time t.

    Total elapsed time across the five recorded failures = 6 + 4 + 8 + 5 + 6 = 29 hours.

    Failure rate λ = (number of failures observed) / (total time) = 5/29 per hour.

    Reliability of no failure in the next hour, R(1) = e^(-λ×1) = e^(-5/29).

    • A. e^(−9/29) — does not correspond to the ratio of failures to total observed time.
    • B. e^(−7/29) — not obtainable from the given failure count or total time.
    • C. e^(−5/29) — correct. It uses the correct failure rate of 5 failures over 29 hours.
    • D. e^(−3/29) — understates the failure count used in the rate estimate.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

58. Question 56

    UGC NET June 2023

    Which of the following is used to determine cost performance index?

    1. ABudgeted cost work performed - budget at completion
    2. BBudgeted cost work performed ÷ budget at completion
    3. CBudgeted cost work performed ÷ Actual cost work performed
    4. DBudgeted cost work performed - Actual cost work performed

    Answer: (C) Budgeted cost work performed ÷ Actual cost work performed

    Explanation

    The Cost Performance Index (CPI) measures cost efficiency in earned value management.

    CPI = Budgeted Cost of Work Performed (BCWP) ÷ Actual Cost of Work Performed (ACWP)

    A CPI above 1 means the project is spending less than budgeted for the work completed, and below 1 means it is over budget.

    • A. Budgeted cost work performed - budget at completion — this subtraction gives a schedule-related variance figure, not a cost-efficiency ratio.
    • B. Budgeted cost work performed ÷ budget at completion — this ratio measures percent complete, not cost efficiency.
    • C. Budgeted cost work performed ÷ Actual cost work performed — correct. This is the standard CPI formula (BCWP/ACWP).
    • D. Budgeted cost work performed - Actual cost work performed — this subtraction gives the Cost Variance (CV), not the Cost Performance Index.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

59. Question 57

    UGC NET June 2023

    Statement I: At the interaction level, components provide an operator display interface and an interface with the communication system used.
    Statement II: At the I/O management level, components handle operator authentication, report generator and query manager.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    Explanation

    In the standard layered view of a computer-based system's software architecture, each level owns a distinct set of responsibilities.

    Statement I describes the interaction level correctly. This level is exactly where the system talks to its human operator through a display interface, and to the outside communication channel that feeds it data, so Statement I is correct.

    Statement II misassigns responsibilities. The I/O management level is concerned with acquiring, formatting, and routing raw input/output data to and from devices, not with operator authentication, report generation, or query management. Those functions belong to a higher level that manages stored data and application logic, so Statement II is incorrect.

    Since only Statement I holds, the answer is Statement I correct, Statement II incorrect.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

60. Question 58

    UGC NET June 2023

    Assertion (A): Validity checks real need of system users.
    Reason (R): Completeness checks system user defined requirements.

    1. ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is true but R is false
    4. DA is false but R is true

    Answer: (B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

    Explanation

    In requirements validation, validity and completeness are two separate checks with distinct purposes.

    Validity checks whether the system provides the functions that best support the customer's real needs, so Assertion A is true.

    Completeness checks whether the requirements document includes all the functions the customer actually requires, so Reason R is also a true statement on its own.

    However, R describes a different check, completeness, from the one Assertion A is about, validity. Completeness does not explain why validity checks real need — the two are parallel, independent quality checks on a requirements document, not cause and effect. So both statements are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

61. Question 59

    UGC NET June 2023

    Statement I: subsystem models show logical grouping of objects into coherent subsystem.
    Statement II: State machine models show how objects change their states in response to events.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

    Explanation

    Both statements describe standard system-modeling views used in object-oriented software design.

    Statement I is correct. A subsystem model groups related objects into coherent subsystems, typically shown with package-style diagrams, so a large system can be understood as a set of cooperating parts rather than one flat object list.

    Statement II is correct. A state machine model shows the states an object can be in and the events that trigger transitions between those states, capturing how the object's behavior changes over time.

    Since both are accurate descriptions of these modeling views, both statements are correct.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

62. Question 60

    UGC NET June 2023

    Consider the following statements:
    A. Dynamic metrics are collected by measurements made of a program in execution
    B. Static metrics are collected by measurements made of representations of the system
    C. The assessment of software quality is an objective process
    D. An important part of quality assurance in the selection of standards that should apply to the software development process.

    1. AA, B, C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DA, B and D only

    Answer: (D) A, B and D only

    Explanation

    Check each statement against standard software-metrics and quality-assurance definitions.

    • A. True. Dynamic metrics come from measuring a running program, such as execution time or the number of errors observed during execution.
    • B. True. Static metrics come from measurements of representations of the system, such as source code, design documents, or specifications, without running the program.
    • C. False. Software quality is difficult to define precisely, and assessing it is widely recognized as a subjective process, since different stakeholders weigh attributes like usability, maintainability, and reliability differently.
    • D. True. A key part of quality assurance is selecting the standards and procedures that will govern the software development process.

    Only A, B, and D hold, so the correct combination is A, B and D only.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

63. Question 61

    UGC NET June 2023

    ___________ is intended to show that a system both conforms to its specifications and meets the expectations of the system customer.

    1. ASoftware specification
    2. BSoftware design
    3. CSoftware evaluation
    4. Dsoftware validation

    Answer: (D) software validation

    Explanation

    Sommerville's software engineering framework distinguishes verification from validation: verification asks "are we building the product right" (conformance to specification), while validation asks "are we building the right product" (meeting the customer's real expectations). The definition given here combines both conditions explicitly — conforming to specification and meeting the customer's expectations — which is precisely the textbook definition of software validation.

    • A. Software specification — the activity of writing down what the system should do, not the check that it was done correctly.
    • B. Software design — the activity of planning the system's structure, unrelated to this checking activity.
    • C. Software evaluation — not a standard named software engineering process activity.
    • D. software validation — correct. It is defined as showing the system conforms to its specification and satisfies customer expectations.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

64. Question 62

    UGC NET June 2023

    An observational technique that can be used to understand operational process and help to derive requirement for software to support operational process is known as

    1. ARequirement specification
    2. BStructural specification
    3. CEthnography
    4. DNatural language specification

    Answer: (C) Ethnography

    Explanation

    Ethnography is a requirements engineering technique borrowed from social science, where an observer studies people performing their actual work in context to uncover the real operational process, including informal practices that formal interviews or documents miss. This directly matches an observational technique used to understand an operational process and derive requirements from it.

    • A. Requirement specification — the document that records requirements, not the observational technique used to discover them.
    • B. Structural specification — not a standard requirements-engineering observational technique.
    • C. Ethnography — correct. It is the standard named observational technique for studying operational work practice.
    • D. Natural language specification — a way of writing requirements in prose, not an observational technique.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

65. Question 63

    UGC NET June 2023

    Match List I with List II on PERT and CPM concepts.

    List-I	List-II
    A. PERT	I. used for non repetitive jobs
    B. Optimistic time	II. Used for repetitive jobs
    C. CPM	III. The shortest possible time to complete the activity if all goes well
    D. Pessimistic time	IV. The longest time that an activity takes

    List I / List II: PERT and CPM project management concepts

    1. AA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    2. BA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    3. CA-I, B-III, C-II, D-II
    4. DA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

    Answer: (D) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

    Explanation

    Each project-management term matches its defining role.

    • PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique) is used for non-repetitive, uncertain jobs such as research and development projects — A-I.
    • Optimistic time is the shortest possible time to complete an activity if everything goes exactly as planned — B-III.
    • CPM (Critical Path Method) is used for repetitive, well-understood jobs such as construction projects — C-II.
    • Pessimistic time is the longest time an activity could take under unfavorable conditions — D-IV.

    This gives the mapping A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV.

    • A. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I — swaps PERT with optimistic time, and CPM's pairing with pessimistic time's pairing.
    • B. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III — swaps PERT with pessimistic time, and optimistic time with PERT's pairing.
    • C. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-II — repeats "II" for both C and D, leaving pessimistic time without its correct "longest time" pairing.
    • D. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV — correct, matches every pairing above.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

66. Question 64

    UGC NET June 2023

    Match List I with List II on software testing types.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Scenario testing	I. To verify the I/O behavior of a test object
    B. Regression testing	II. User acceptance methodology
    C. Component testing	III. No new bugs after changes in the program
    D. Beta testing	IV. The documentation of a use case

    Software testing types with their definitions

    1. AA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    2. BA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
    3. CA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    4. DA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    Answer: (C) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    Matching each testing type to its definition resolves the list.

    A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    • Scenario testing (A) matches IV, since it means testing built around the documented steps of a use case or user scenario.
    • Regression testing (B) matches III, since it re-runs tests after changes specifically to confirm no new bugs were introduced.
    • Component testing (C) matches I, since it verifies the input-output behavior of an individual component or test object in isolation.
    • Beta testing (D) matches II, since it is a user acceptance methodology where real end users try the software before final release.

    This mapping corresponds to the option A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

67. Question 65

    UGC NET March 2023

    Which of the following is not a Non functional requirement?

    1. APortability
    2. BSecurity
    3. CScalability
    4. DUser interaction

    Answer: (D) User interaction

    Explanation

    Non-functional requirements describe quality attributes of a system such as how portable, secure, or scalable it is, rather than what the system does.

    Portability, security, and scalability are all quality attributes. User interaction describes what the system does for the user, a functional requirement, so it is the one that does not belong.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

68. Question 66

    UGC NET March 2023

    COCOMO stands for ______

    1. AConsumed cost model
    2. BConstructive cost model
    3. CCommon control model
    4. DComposition cost model

    Answer: (B) Constructive cost model

    Explanation

    COCOMO is Boehm's software cost estimation model, and its name is a direct acronym: COnstructive COst MOdel.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

69. Question 67

    UGC NET March 2023

    Modifying the software to match changes in the ever changing environment is called as

    1. AAdaptive maintenance
    2. BCorrective maintenance
    3. CPerfective maintenance
    4. DPreventive maintenance

    Answer: (A) Adaptive maintenance

    Explanation

    Software maintenance types are distinguished by their trigger. Corrective maintenance fixes bugs, perfective maintenance improves existing features, and preventive maintenance guards against future faults.

    Adaptive maintenance is specifically the type triggered by external environment changes, such as a new OS version or a changed hardware platform, which matches modifying software to keep up with a changing environment.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

70. Question 68

    UGC NET March 2023

    For a function of two variables, boundary value analysis yields,

    1. A4n+3 test cases
    2. B4n+1 test cases
    3. Cn+4 test cases
    4. D2n+4 test cases

    Answer: (B) 4n+1 test cases

    Explanation

    The standard boundary value analysis formula for a function of n variables is 4n+1 test cases, covering the minimum, just-above-minimum, nominal, just-below-maximum, and maximum values for each variable while holding the others at their nominal value.

    For n=2 variables, this gives 4(2)+1 = 9 test cases.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

71. Question 69

    UGC NET March 2023

    How do you create agile processes to manage unpredictability?

    A. Requirements gathering must be conducted very carefully.
    B. Risk analysis must be conducted before planning takes place.
    C. Software increments must be delivered in short time periods.
    D. Software processes must not adapt to changes incrementally.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA only
    2. BB only
    3. CC only
    4. DD only

    Answer: (C) C only

    Explanation

    Agile methods are built specifically to manage unpredictable requirements, and their defining mechanism is short, frequent delivery rather than heavy upfront analysis.

    Delivering software increments in short time periods lets the team get feedback and adjust direction quickly, which is exactly how agile processes cope with unpredictability.

    Heavy upfront requirements gathering or pre-planning risk analysis are hallmarks of plan-driven approaches, not agile ones, and refusing to adapt incrementally is the direct opposite of what agile processes do.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

72. Question 70

    UGC NET March 2023

    Software project manager is responsible for the following tasks:

    A. Project Planning
    B. Project status tracking
    C. Resource management
    D. Risk management
    E. Project delivery within time & budget.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AAll the statements are correct.
    2. BOnly B & C are correct.
    3. COnly A & D are correct
    4. DAll the statements are not correct.

    Answer: (A) All the statements are correct.

    Explanation

    Standard software project management texts list planning, tracking progress, staffing and resource allocation, risk management, and delivering within time and budget as the core duties of a project manager.

    Each of the five listed tasks is a recognized project manager responsibility, so all five statements are correct together.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

73. Question 71

    UGC NET March 2023

    Mr. X designed open source software which must comply with some criteria. Choose the false statement in respect of above.

    A. No restriction on redistribution of the software as part or whole.
    B. The integrity of the author's source code must be maintained.
    C. The software can be sold after distribution.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA only
    2. BB only
    3. CC only
    4. DAll statements are false

    Answer: (C) C only

    Explanation

    The Open Source Definition's free-redistribution clause protects statement A, guaranteeing a license cannot restrict redistribution as part of a bundle or on its own. It also protects the integrity of the original author's source in statement B, typically by requiring modifications to ship as patches or under a different name rather than altering the original files directly.

    Statement C is the false one: open source software is meant to stay freely available for anyone to redistribute, not become a paid commercial product controlled after distribution. A strict reading of the free-redistribution clause is actually more permissive about resale than this framing suggests, but the standard classification this kind of question relies on still treats "the software can be sold after distribution" as the odd one out among the three statements.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

74. Question 72

    UGC NET March 2023

    Match List I with List II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Product complexity	I. System Requirements Design
    B. Structured System analysis	II. Software design
    C. Coupling & Cohesion	III. Validation techniques
    D. Symbolic Execution	IV. Software cost estimation

    List I and List II for the matching question

    1. AA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    2. BA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    3. CA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    4. DA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Answer: (C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Explanation

    Match each software engineering concept to the activity it is most associated with.

    A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Product complexity is a key input to cost estimation models such as COCOMO, matching IV. Structured system analysis is a technique for capturing system requirements, matching I. Coupling and cohesion are quality measures used in software design, matching II. Symbolic execution is a validation technique used to test program paths without concrete input values, matching III.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

75. Question 73

    UGC NET March 2023

    Consider the statements:

    A. There does not exist a polynomial time algorithm to solve integer linear programming problem.
    B. Main focus of PERT is 'minimizing time'.

    Choose the correct option about the statements A and B.

    1. AA is True; B is True
    2. BA is True; B is False
    3. CA is False; B is True
    4. DA is False; B is False

    Answer: (A) A is True; B is True

    Explanation

    Integer linear programming is NP-hard, so no polynomial time algorithm is known for it, which makes statement A true.

    PERT and CPM are commonly distinguished in project management by their focus, with PERT built around estimating and managing uncertain activity durations to plan project time, so statement B's claim that PERT centers on time is also considered true.

    Both statements are true.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

76. Question 74

    UGC NET March 2023

    Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

    Assertion (A): Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module can be written more compactly and is able to complete its function in a timely manner.

    Reason (R): Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module is connected to other modules and the outside world.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
    2. BBoth A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
    3. CA is correct but R is not correct.
    4. DA is not correct but R is correct.

    Answer: (C) A is correct but R is not correct.

    Explanation

    Reason R actually defines coupling, not cohesion — coupling is the standard software engineering term for the degree to which one module is connected to other modules and the outside world. Cohesion instead measures how tightly a single module's own internal elements work together toward one purpose, so R is incorrect.

    Because R is definitely wrong, any option requiring R to be correct — "both correct" and "A incorrect but R correct" — is ruled out, which leaves only two live possibilities: both statements are wrong, or A alone is right.

    Assertion A frames cohesion as a module completing its function compactly and efficiently on its own — close enough to the standard idea of a module doing one thing well internally — so A is treated as correct rather than wrong.

    That makes A correct and R incorrect, matching option C. Assertion A's exact wording is a looser paraphrase than the textbook definition of cohesion, so if this conflicts with the official answer key, re-check the source phrasing of Assertion A against the original exam image.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

77. Question 75

    UGC NET March 2023

    Which of the following is not one of the principles of good coding?

    1. ACreate unit tests before you begin coding.
    2. BCreate visual layout that aids understanding.
    3. CRefractor the code after you completes the first coding pass.
    4. DWrite self-documenting code not program documentation.

    Answer: (D) Write self-documenting code not program documentation.

    Explanation

    Good coding practice calls for code that is self-documenting through clear naming and structure, but this does not mean program documentation should be abandoned altogether.

    Creating unit tests before coding, using a visual layout that aids understanding, and refactoring after the first coding pass are all standard, widely taught principles of good coding.

    Option D misstates the actual guideline by pitting self-documenting code against documentation as an either-or choice, when the real principle is that self-documenting code supplements rather than replaces necessary program documentation, which makes it the one that is not a genuine principle.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup
78. Practise Software Engineering in a timed set

79. Question 76

    UGC NET March 2023

    If P is the risk probability, L is the loss, then Risk exposure (RE) is computed as ____.

    1. ARE = P/L
    2. BRE = P+L
    3. CRE = P*L
    4. DRE = 2+(P*L)

    Answer: (C) RE = P*L

    Explanation

    Risk exposure in software risk management is defined as the product of the probability that a risk will occur and the loss that would result if it does occur.

    RE = P × L

    This multiplicative relationship reflects that a risk with either very low probability or very low impact contributes little to overall exposure, while dividing, adding, or adding a constant offset (as in the other options) does not match this standard definition.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

80. Question 77

    UGC NET March 2023

    Which of the following is a technique used for component wrapping?

    1. ABlack-box wrapping
    2. BClear-box wrapping
    3. CGray-box wrapping
    4. DWhite-box wrapping

    Answer: (A) Black-box wrapping

    Explanation

    Component wrapping is the technique of building an adapter layer around a reusable component so it can be integrated into a new system without modifying its internals.

    Black-box wrapping is the most commonly cited form of this technique, applied when the component's source is unavailable and only its external interface can be used to build the wrapper.

    "Clear-box" is not standard terminology for component wrapping in this context, so it is not the intended answer here, even though white-box and gray-box wrapping are also discussed in some software engineering references as source-available variants of the same general technique. Because the source material presents these labels loosely, this item is worth a second look against the specific textbook the course follows.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

81. Question 78

    UGC NET March 2023

    The cyclomatic complexity metric provides the designer with information regarding the number of __________.

    1. ACycles in the program
    2. BErrors in the program
    3. CIndependent logic paths in the program
    4. DStatements in the program

    Answer: (C) Independent logic paths in the program

    Explanation

    Cyclomatic complexity is a structural software metric computed from a program's control flow graph, and it equals the number of linearly independent paths through that graph.

    This count of independent logic paths tells a tester the minimum number of test cases needed to exercise every distinct path at least once, which is why it is used for test-coverage planning rather than for counting cycles, errors, or plain statement count directly.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

82. Question 79

    UGC NET March 2023

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Software testing must be recognized as a significant effort, and its planning must begin at the earliest possible time.

    Statement II: The cost of software testing is an important contribution in determining overall software development costs.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true.
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false.
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false.
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true.

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

    Explanation

    Both statements reflect standard, well-established software engineering guidance on testing.

    Testing is a substantial and resource-intensive activity, so treating it as a significant effort and beginning its planning early, alongside requirements and design, is a widely taught best practice rather than an afterthought. Statement I is true.

    Testing effort, including staffing, tooling, and time, routinely accounts for a large share of total project cost and schedule, so its cost genuinely shapes overall development cost estimates. Statement II is true.

    Since both statements hold, the correct option is that both Statement I and Statement II are true.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

83. Question 80

    UGC NET March 2023

    Which of the following need not be assessed during unit testing?

    A. Algorithmic performance
    B. Number of lines of code
    C. Error handling
    D. Execution paths

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C only
    2. BA, B, D only
    3. CA, C, D only
    4. DB, C, D only

    Answer: (B) A, B, D only

    Explanation

    The classic unit-testing checklist targets a module's interface, its local data structures, boundary conditions, its independent execution paths, and its error-handling paths, all correctness concerns internal to one module.

    Raw algorithmic performance (runtime efficiency) is the concern of separate performance testing rather than a unit test's correctness check, and the number of lines of code is a size metric, not something a unit test verifies at all, so neither A nor B belongs to what unit testing assesses.

    Error handling and execution paths, by contrast, are explicitly part of the standard unit-testing checklist, since a unit test specifically exercises a module's independent paths and its error-handling logic for correctness. Because some course materials draw this boundary differently, this item is worth checking against the specific textbook checklist used in the course.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

84. Question 81

    UGC NET March 2023

    Match List I with List II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Condition coverage	I. Black box testing
    B. Equivalence class Partitioning	II. System testing
    C. Volume testing	III. White box testing
    D. Alpha testing	IV. Performance testing

    1. AA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    2. BA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    3. CA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    4. DA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Answer: (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    Each testing term is matched to the broader testing category it belongs to.

    Condition coverage examines a program's internal logic and branch conditions, which is a structural, white-box testing technique, giving A-III.

    Equivalence class partitioning designs test cases purely from the specification without looking at internal code, which is the defining trait of black box testing, giving B-I.

    Volume testing checks how a system behaves under large quantities of data, which is a form of performance testing, giving C-IV.

    Alpha testing is conducted in-house on a nearly complete product to evaluate it as a whole before release, which aligns it with system-level testing, giving D-II.

    This gives the mapping A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

85. Question 82

    UGC NET March 2023

    The incremental model of software development is__________.

    1. AA reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
    2. BA good approach when a working core product is required quickly.
    3. CThe best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
    4. DA revolutionary model that is not used for commercial products.

    Answer: (B) A good approach when a working core product is required quickly.

    Explanation

    The incremental model delivers a working core product first and then adds features in successive increments, which is exactly why it fits situations where a client needs something usable quickly rather than waiting for the full system.

    This approach does not require requirements to be fully defined upfront, since later increments can absorb evolving needs, it is not specifically tied to large teams, and it is a well-established, widely used commercial development model rather than a purely theoretical one, which rules out the other three options.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

86. Question 83

    UGC NET March 2023

    The primary objectives of the SWE-IPT are to:

    A. Solicit stakeholder needs and expectations.
    B. Specify the software requirements for the product and post-development processes.
    C. Generate the integrated technical plans for accomplishing the software development effort.
    D. Translate stakeholder requirements into a complete, specified architectural description.
    E. Ensure that the software technical data package is sufficiently detailed to facilitate an efficient and effective software implementation.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AAll the statements are correct.
    2. BOnly B & C are correct.
    3. COnly A & E are correct.
    4. DOnly C, D & E are correct.

    Answer: (A) All the statements are correct.

    Explanation

    A Software Engineering Integrated Product Team (SWE-IPT) is responsible for the full span of turning stakeholder needs into a deliverable, detailed software product.

    • A. Solicit stakeholder needs and expectations — true, the starting point of the team's mandate.
    • B. Specify software requirements for the product and post-development processes — true, translating needs into formal requirements.
    • C. Generate integrated technical plans for the development effort — true, coordinating how the work gets done.
    • D. Translate stakeholder requirements into a complete architectural description — true, turning requirements into design.
    • E. Ensure the technical data package supports efficient implementation — true, the final handoff to implementation.

    Each of these is a standard, complementary part of an integrated product team's mandate rather than a competing alternative, so the correct option is that all the statements are correct.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

87. Question 84

    UGC NET October 2022

    RAD software process model stands for

    1. ARapid Application Development
    2. BRelative Application Development
    3. CRapid Application Design
    4. DRecent Application Development

    Answer: (A) Rapid Application Development

    Explanation

    RAD stands for Rapid Application Development, a process model that emphasizes a very short development cycle using component-based construction, typically completing a working system in 60 to 90 days.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

88. Question 85

    UGC NET October 2022

    If every requirement can be checked by a cost – effective process, then SRS is called

    1. AVerifiable
    2. BTracable
    3. CModifiable
    4. DComplete

    Answer: (A) Verifiable

    Explanation

    An SRS is verifiable when every stated requirement can be checked by a finite, cost-effective process, such as a test, inspection, or demonstration, to confirm the software actually satisfies it. Traceability is about linking requirements to their origin and to downstream artifacts, and completeness is about covering all needed functions, neither of which is about checkability at reasonable cost.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

89. Question 86

    UGC NET October 2022

    Fault base testing technique is

    1. AUnit testing
    2. BBeta testing
    3. CStress testing
    4. DMutation testing

    Answer: (D) Mutation testing

    Explanation

    Mutation testing deliberately seeds known faults (mutations) into a program and checks whether the existing test suite detects them, making it the classic fault-based testing technique. Unit, beta, and stress testing are organized around testing scope, release stage, and load conditions rather than around deliberately injected faults.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

90. Question 87

    UGC NET October 2022

    Alpha and Beta testing are forms of

    1. AWhite – Box Testing
    2. BBlack – Box Testing
    3. CAcceptance Testing
    4. DSystem Testing

    Answer: (C) Acceptance Testing

    Explanation

    Alpha testing happens at the developer's site with actual customers, and beta testing happens at customer sites with real end users, both aiming to gather user feedback before final release. This customer-facing validation makes them forms of acceptance testing rather than a testing style defined by code visibility (white/black box) or by scope (system testing).

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

91. Question 88

    UGC NET October 2022

    The process to gather the software requirements from client, analyze and document is known as:-

    1. ASoftware Engineering Process
    2. BUser Engineering Process
    3. CRequirement Elicitation Process
    4. DRequirement Engineering Process

    Answer: (D) Requirement Engineering Process

    Explanation

    Elicitation is only the gathering step, but this question describes three activities together, gathering, analyzing, and documenting, which together define the broader Requirement Engineering Process. Requirement Engineering encompasses elicitation, analysis, specification, and validation, so it is the correct name for the combined activity described here rather than elicitation alone.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

92. Question 89

    UGC NET October 2022

    Size and complexity are a part of

    1. APeople Metrics
    2. BProject Metrics
    3. CProcess Metrics
    4. DProduct Metrics

    Answer: (D) Product Metrics

    Explanation

    Product metrics characterize attributes of the software product itself, such as its size, complexity, design features, performance, and quality. Size and complexity describe the delivered artifact, not the people, project schedule, or the process used to build it, so they belong under product metrics.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

93. Question 90

    UGC NET October 2022

    Which Metrics are derived by normalizing quality and/or productivity measures by considering the size of the software that has been produced?

    1. AFunction – Oriented Metrics
    2. BFunction – Point Metrics
    3. CLine of Code Metrics
    4. DSize Oriented Metrics

    Answer: (D) Size Oriented Metrics

    Explanation

    Size-oriented metrics normalize quality and productivity measures, such as errors found or cost incurred, against a size measure of the delivered software, most commonly lines of code (KLOC). Function-point metrics normalize instead against a size measure derived from information domain values rather than software size directly, which is why the size-normalized family described here is called size-oriented metrics.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

94. Question 91

    UGC NET October 2022

    The model in which the requirements are implemented by its category is

    1. AEvolutionary Development Model
    2. BWaterfall Model
    3. CPrototyping Model
    4. DIterative Enhancement Model

    Answer: (D) Iterative Enhancement Model

    Explanation

    The Iterative Enhancement Model groups requirements into categories and implements the software in successive increments, each iteration adding one category's worth of functionality on top of what was already built. Evolutionary development instead grows a working system through repeated prototypes shaped by user feedback rather than pre-grouped requirement categories, and the waterfall and prototyping models build the whole requirement set in one linear pass or one exploratory prototype respectively.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

95. Question 92

    UGC NET October 2022

    Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?

    1. AQuality
    2. BComplexity
    3. CReliability
    4. DAll of these

    Answer: (D) All of these

    Explanation

    Direct measures capture something countable straight from the product, such as lines of code, execution speed, or memory size. Quality, complexity, and reliability cannot be counted directly, they are each derived from combinations of direct measures, which is exactly what makes all three indirect measures of the product.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

96. Question 93

    UGC NET October 2022

    Modules X and Y operate on the same input and output, then the cohesion is

    1. ALogical cohesion
    2. BSequential cohesion
    3. CProcedural cohesion
    4. DCommunicational cohesion

    Answer: (D) Communicational cohesion

    Explanation

    Communicational cohesion is defined precisely as elements of a module operating on the same input data and/or producing the same output data, which is exactly the relationship described between X and Y. Sequential cohesion instead requires the output of one element to feed directly into the next, and procedural cohesion requires elements to follow a specific execution order without necessarily sharing data.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

97. Question 94

    UGC NET October 2022

    Consider the following related to Fourth Generation Technique (4GT):
    A. It controls efforts.
    B. It controls resources.
    C. It controls cost of development.
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(A) and (B) only
    2. B(B) and (C) only
    3. C(C) and (A) only
    4. DAll (A), (B) and (C)

    Answer: (D) All (A), (B) and (C)

    Explanation

    4GT tools dramatically shorten development time, but without discipline that speed can hide poor engineering practice. The standard caution about 4GT is that effort, resources, and cost of development must all still be actively controlled and measured, exactly as in any other process model, rather than left unmanaged just because the tools are fast. All three, effort, resources, and cost, are the things 4GT still needs to control.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

98. Question 95

    UGC NET October 2022

    Match List I with List II regarding software design concepts.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Localization	I. Encapsulation
    B. Packaging or binding of a collection of items	II. Abstraction
    C. Mechanism that enables designer to focus on essential details of a program component	III. Characteristic of software that indicates the manner in which information is concentrated in program
    D. Information hiding	IV. Suppressing the operational details of a program component

    1. A(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
    2. B(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
    3. C(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
    4. D(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

    Answer: (C) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

    Explanation

    Localization describes the characteristic of software indicating how information is concentrated within it.
    Packaging or binding a collection of items together is the definition of encapsulation.
    A mechanism that lets a designer focus on essential details while ignoring lower-level ones is abstraction.
    Information hiding is precisely the suppression of a component's operational details from the rest of the system.

    Matching gives A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

99. Question 96

    UGC NET October 2022

    A top down approach to programming calls for :
    Statement I: Working from the general to the specific.
    Statement II: Postpone the minor decisions.
    Statement III: A systematic approach.
    Statement IV: Intermediate coding of the problem.
    Which of the following is true?

    1. AStatement I only
    2. BStatement I and Statement II only
    3. CStatement I, Statement II and Statement III only
    4. DStatement I, Statement II and Statement IV only

    Answer: (C) Statement I, Statement II and Statement III only

    Explanation

    Top-down design proceeds by stepwise refinement, and three of the four listed statements describe that process correctly.

    • Statement I. Working from the general to the specific. — true. This is the core idea of stepwise refinement: start from the overall structure and progressively add detail.
    • Statement II. Postpone the minor decisions. — true. Implementation-level details are deferred until the higher-level structure is settled.
    • Statement III. A systematic approach. — true. Refinement proceeds through an orderly sequence of steps rather than ad hoc changes.
    • Statement IV. Intermediate coding of the problem. — false. Top-down design defers coding until the structure is fully refined, and there is no recognized stage called intermediate coding.

    Statements I, II, and III together describe top-down design, so option C is correct.

    Sign in to read the full explanation

    Login / Signup

100. Question 97

     UGC NET October 2022

     A good software requirement specification does NOT have the characteristic

     1. ACompleteness
     2. BConsistency
     3. CClarity
     4. DReliability

     Answer: (D) Reliability

     Explanation

     The standard characteristics of a good SRS are correctness, completeness, consistency, clarity (unambiguity), verifiability, modifiability, and traceability. Reliability describes a quality of the running software system itself, not a property used to judge whether a requirements specification document is well written, so it is not one of the recognized SRS characteristics.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

101. Question 98

     UGC NET November 2021

     In software testing, beta testing is the testing performed by ______.

     1. Apotential customers at the developer's location
     2. Bpotential customers at their own locations
     3. Cproduct developers at the customer's location
     4. Dproduct developers at their own locations

     Answer: (B) potential customers at their own locations

     Explanation

     Beta testing is done by real or potential users in their own environment, outside the developer's site, after alpha testing. Testing by customers at the developer's site is alpha testing.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

102. Question 99

     UGC NET November 2021

     In the MVC architectural pattern, the View component is responsible for:

     1. AUser interface
     2. BSecurity of the system
     3. CBusiness logic and domain objects
     4. DTranslating between user interface actions/events and operations on the domain objects

     Answer: (A) User interface

     Explanation

     In Model-View-Controller the View handles presentation and user-interface rendering. Business logic and domain data belong to the Model, and translating user actions into Model operations is the Controller.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

103. Question 100

     UGC NET November 2021

     In software engineering, what kind of notation do formal methods predominantly use?

     1. Atextual
     2. Bdiagrammatic
     3. Cmathematical
     4. Dcomputer code

     Answer: (C) mathematical

     Explanation

     Formal methods specify and verify software using mathematically based notations (set theory, predicate logic, algebra; e.g. Z, VDM, B) that allow rigorous proof of properties. UML-style diagrams are only semi-formal.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup
104. Practise Software Engineering in a timed set

105. Question 101

     UGC NET November 2021

     If every requirement stated in the Software Requirement Specification (SRS) has only one interpretation, then the SRS is said to be:

     1. Acorrect
     2. Bconsistent
     3. Cunambiguous
     4. Dverifiable

     Answer: (C) unambiguous

     Explanation

     An SRS is unambiguous when every requirement has exactly one interpretation. Consistency means requirements do not conflict; correctness means each requirement is one the system must meet; verifiability means each can be checked.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

106. Question 102

     UGC NET November 2021

     A system has 99.99% uptime and a mean-time-between-failure (MTBF) of 1 day. How quickly must the system repair itself to meet this availability goal?

     1. A~9 seconds
     2. B~10 seconds
     3. C~11 seconds
     4. D~12 seconds

     Answer: (A) ~9 seconds

     Explanation

     Availability = MTBF / (MTBF + MTTR). With A = 0.9999 and MTBF = 86,400 s, the repair time MTTR = MTBF x (1 - A) = 86,400 x 0.0001 = 8.64 s, i.e. about 9 seconds.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

107. Question 103

     UGC NET November 2021

     In Software Configuration Management (SCM), which kinds of files should be committed to the source control repository?

     A. Code files
     B. Documentation files
     C. Output files
     D. Automatically generated files that are required for the system to be used

     Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

     1. AA and B only
     2. BB and C only
     3. CC and D only
     4. DD and A only

     Answer: (A) A and B only

     Explanation

     Hand-authored source artefacts - code (A) and documentation (B) - belong in version control. Build outputs (C) and generated files (D) should not be committed because they are reproducible from the sources and only add merge noise and staleness.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

108. Question 104

     UGC NET November 2021

     Match List-I (Software Process Model) with List-II (Description).

     List-I	List-II
     A. Waterfall Model	I. Software can be developed incrementally
     B. Evolutionary Model	II. Requirement compromises are inevitable
     C. Component-based Software Engineering	III. Explicit recognition of risk
     D. Spiral Development	IV. Inflexible partitioning of the project into stages

     1. AA-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
     2. BA-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
     3. CA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
     4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

     Answer: (D) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

     Explanation

     Waterfall rigidly partitions the project into sequential stages (IV). The Evolutionary model builds software incrementally through iterations (I). Component-based development reuses pre-built components, so requirement compromises are inevitable (II). The Spiral model performs explicit risk analysis at each cycle (III).

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

109. Question 105

     UGC NET November 2021

     Identify the correct order (lower to higher) of the five levels of the Capability Maturity Model used to measure the maturity of an organisation's software process.

     A. Defined
     B. Optimizing
     C. Initial
     D. Managed
     E. Repeatable

     Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

     1. AC, A, E, D, B
     2. BC, E, A, B, D
     3. CC, B, D, E, A
     4. DC, E, A, D, B

     Answer: (D) C, E, A, D, B

     Explanation

     The Capability Maturity Model rises through five stages: Initial (ad hoc, chaotic process), Repeatable (basic project management established), Defined (process documented and standardised across the organisation), Managed (process quantitatively measured and controlled), and Optimizing (continuous, data-driven process improvement). Mapping the given letters, the increasing order is Initial C, Repeatable E, Defined A, Managed D, Optimizing B.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

110. Question 106

     UGC NET November 2021

     Statement I: The Cleanroom software process model incorporates the statistical quality certification of code increments as they accumulate into a system.
     Statement II: Cleanroom software engineering follows the classic analysis, design, code, test and debug cycle, focusing on defect removal rather than defect prevention.

     In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

     1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
     2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
     3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
     4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

     Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

     Explanation

     Cleanroom does use statistical usage testing to certify each code increment (Statement I true). But its philosophy is defect prevention through formal specification and correctness verification, deliberately avoiding the traditional code-and-debug cycle, so Statement II is false.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

111. Question 107

     UGC NET November 2021

     Assertion (A): Software developers do not do exhaustive software testing in practice.
     Reason (R): Even for small inputs, exhaustive testing is too computationally intensive (takes too long) to run all the tests.

     In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

     1. ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
     2. BBoth A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
     3. CA is true but R is false
     4. DA is false but R is true

     Answer: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

     Explanation

     Exhaustive testing (trying every input/path) is practically impossible because the input space grows combinatorially, so testers sample instead (A true). That combinatorial blow-up is exactly why exhaustive testing is infeasible, so R is true and correctly explains A.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

112. Question 108

     UGC NET November 2020

     Which UML diagram has a static view?

     1. ACollaboration diagram
     2. BUse-case diagram
     3. CState-chart diagram
     4. DActivity diagram

     Answer: (B) Use-case diagram

     Explanation

     Use-case diagrams describe the actors and required system functionality without modelling a time-ordered execution. Collaboration, state-chart, and activity diagrams are behavioural or interaction views.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

113. Question 109

     UGC NET November 2020

     Modifying software by restructuring is called

     1. AAdaptive maintenance
     2. BCorrective maintenance
     3. CPerfective maintenance
     4. DPreventive maintenance

     Answer: (C) Perfective maintenance

     Explanation

     Perfective maintenance improves internal design, maintainability, efficiency, or other quality attributes after delivery; restructuring is a typical perfective change. Corrective maintenance fixes faults, while adaptive maintenance responds to a changed environment.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

114. Question 110

     UGC NET November 2020

     A company can use languages L₁ and L₂; an application needs three times as many LOC in L₂ as in L₁. The project has 10 years of maintenance. For what LOC in L₁ are the total development-plus-maintenance costs equal?

     Parameter	L₁	L₂
     Man-years for development	LOC/1000	LOC/1000
     Development cost	Rs. 70,000	Rs. 90,000
     Maintenance cost per year	Rs. 1,00,000	Rs. 40,000

     1. A2000
     2. B6000
     3. C3000
     4. D5000

     Answer: (C) 3000

     Explanation

     For x lines of L₁, development costs are 70x and 270x rupees for L₁ and L₂ respectively, since the rates are per 1,000 LOC and L₂ needs 3x lines. Ten-year maintenance costs are Rs. 10,00,000 and Rs. 4,00,000; equating totals gives 70x + 10,00,000 = 270x + 4,00,000, hence x = 3,000 LOC.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

115. Question 111

     UGC NET November 2020

     A software project is estimated at 864 function points. A six-person team has one requirements gatherer (Rs. 50,000/month), one designer (Rs. 70,000/month), two programmers (Rs. 60,000/month each), and two testers (Rs. 60,000/month each). Team productivity is 12 FP per person-month. What is the projected cost?

     1. ARs. 33,20,000
     2. BRs. 43,20,000
     3. CRs. 33,10,000
     4. DRs. 22,10,000

     Answer: (B) Rs. 43,20,000

     Explanation

     The effort is 864/12 = 72 person-months, or 72/6 = 12 calendar months for six people. Monthly payroll is 50,000 + 70,000 + 2(60,000) + 2(60,000) = Rs. 3,60,000, so the project cost is 12 × 3,60,000 = Rs. 43,20,000; it is not based on treating 864 as calendar months.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

116. Question 112

     UGC NET November 2020

     Software reliability may be described with respect to
     A. execution time,
     B. calendar time, and
     C. clock time.

     1. A(A) and (B) only
     2. B(B) and (C) only
     3. C(A), (B), and (C)
     4. D(A) and (C) only

     Answer: (C) (A), (B), and (C)

     Explanation

     Reliability growth and failure intensity can be modelled against CPU/execution time, elapsed calendar time, or operational clock time. The appropriate time base depends on the system and measurement model.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

117. Question 113

     UGC NET November 2020

     To create an object-behavioural model, an analyst
     A. evaluates use cases,
     B. builds a state-transition diagram,
     C. reviews the model for accuracy and consistency, and
     D. identifies events that do not drive an interaction sequence.

     1. A(A), (B), and (C) only
     2. B(A), (B), and (D) only
     3. C(B), (C), and (D) only
     4. D(A), (C), and (D) only

     Answer: (A) (A), (B), and (C) only

     Explanation

     Use cases reveal the events and object responses, then state transitions model behaviour and the result is reviewed. Events that do not drive an interaction sequence are not part of that normal modelling step.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

118. Question 114

     UGC NET November 2020

     Which are behavioural (black-box) testing techniques?
     A. Equivalence partitioning
     B. Graph-based testing
     C. Boundary-value analysis
     D. Data-flow testing
     E. Loop testing

     1. A(B) and (D) only
     2. B(A), (B), and (C) only
     3. C(D) and (E) only
     4. D(A), (C), and (E) only

     Answer: (B) (A), (B), and (C) only

     Explanation

     Equivalence classes, boundary values, and graph-based tests derive tests from externally visible requirements or behaviour. Data-flow and loop testing require knowledge of program structure and are white-box techniques.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

119. Question 115

     UGC NET November 2020

     Match List I with List IT

     With reference to CMM developed by Software Engineering Institute (SEI)

     List I List IT
     A. INITIAL () Process measurement
     B. REPEATABLE (Il) Process definition
     C. DEFINED (ID Project management
     D. MANAGED (Iv) ADHOC

     List I	List II
     Items are listed in the question stem.	Match each item to its stated description or complexity.

     1. AAIT, B-IV, C-II. D-I
     2. BA-IV, B-IIl. C-I, D-II
     3. CA-IV, B-III, C-IL, D-I
     4. DALIII, B-IV, C-I, D-II

     Answer: (C) A-IV, B-III, C-IL, D-I

     Explanation

     CMM progresses from ad-hoc initial practice to repeatable project management, defined processes, and measured/managed processes. Option C matches those maturity descriptions.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

120. Question 116

     UGC NET November 2020

     Arrange the following types of Cohesion from best to worst type.
     A. B. C. D. E. Logical Cohesion
     Sequential Cohesion
     Communication Cohesion
     Temporal Cohesion

     Procedural Cohesion

     1. AOCR review required
     2. BOCR review required
     3. COCR review required
     4. DOCR review required

     Answer: (D) OCR review required

     Explanation

     Among the listed cohesion types, sequential is strongest, followed by communicational, procedural, temporal, and logical cohesion. The option with that best-to-worst sequence is D.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

121. Question 117

     UGC NET November 2020

     Given below are two statements:

     Statement I: Quality control involves the series of inspections. reviews and tests used

     throughout the software process, to ensure each work product meets the
     requirements placed upon it.

     Statement II: Quality assurance consists of auditing and reporting functions of

     management.

     In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

     qd)

     1. AOCR review required
     2. BOCR review required
     3. COCR review required
     4. DOCR review required

     Answer: (A) OCR review required

     Explanation

     Quality control is the product-focused inspection, review, and testing activity. Quality assurance is the management-facing audit and reporting function that ensures the process is being followed; both statements are true.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

122. Question 118

     UGC NET December 2019

     According to the ISO-9126 Standard Quality Model, match the attributes in List-I with their definitions in List-II.

     List-I	List-II
     (a) Functionality	(i) Relationship between level of performance and amount of resources
     (b) Reliability	(ii) Characteristics related with achievement of purpose
     (c) Efficiency	(iii) Effort needed to make for improvement
     (d) Maintainability	(iv) Capability of software to maintain performance of software

     1. A(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
     2. B(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
     3. C(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
     4. D(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

     Answer: (C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

     Explanation

     Matching ISO/IEC 9126 software quality characteristics with their definitions:

     • (a) Functionality maps to (ii). Attributes related to functions satisfying stated or implied needs (achievement of purpose).
     • (b) Reliability maps to (iv). Capability of software to maintain its level of performance under stated conditions for a stated period of time.
     • (c) Efficiency maps to (i). Relationship between the level of performance of the software and the amount of resources used.
     • (d) Maintainability maps to (iii). Effort needed to make specified modifications and improvements.

     The matching combination is (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii).

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

123. Question 119

     UGC NET December 2019

     Match the Agile Process models with the task performed during the model.

     List-I	List-II
     (a) Scrum	(i) CRC cards
     (b) Adaptive software development	(ii) Sprint backlog
     (c) Extreme programming	(iii) <action> the <result> <by/for/of/to> a(n) <object>
     (d) Feature-driven development	(iv) Time box release plan

     1. A(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
     2. B(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
     3. C(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
     4. D(a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

     Answer: (A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

     Explanation

     Matching agile methodologies with their characteristic practices:

     • (a) Scrum matches (ii). Uses a Sprint backlog to track prioritized user stories committed for the current sprint.
     • (b) Adaptive software development matches (iv). Uses time-boxed release planning to accommodate continuous speculation and learning.
     • (c) Extreme programming matches (i). Employs Class-Responsibility-Collaborator (CRC) cards for collaborative object-oriented design.
     • (d) Feature-driven development matches (iii). Expresses granular client features using the formal syntactic template <action> the <result> <by/for/of/to> a(n) <object>.

     The matching combination is (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii).

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

124. Question 120

     UGC NET December 2019

     The sequence diagram for the Weather Information System takes place when an external system requests the summarized data from the weather station. The increasing order of lifeline for the objects in the system are:

     

     UML sequence diagram for the Weather Information System

     1. ASat comms → Weather station → Comms link → Weather data
     2. BSat comms → Comms link → Weather station → Weather data
     3. CWeather data → Comms link → Weather station → Sat Comms
     4. DWeather data → Weather station → Comms link → Sat Comms

     Accepted answers: (C) Weather data → Comms link → Weather station → Sat Comms, (D) Weather data → Weather station → Comms link → Sat Comms

     Explanation

     Analyzing object lifeline active durations in the sequence diagram:

     • Weather Data has the shortest active execution bar, active only while running Summarize().
     • Commslink is active next, invoking and receiving results from Weather Data.
     • Weather Station has a broader activation window coordinating reports.
     • Sat Comms maintains the longest activation span across request, transmission, and acknowledgement.

     NTA marked this question as dropped / awarded marks to all candidates due to phrasing ambiguity regarding vertical dotted line versus execution activation box length. In increasing order of activation duration, Weather Data has the shortest active duration while Sat Comms has the longest.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

125. Question 121

     UGC NET December 2019

     An activity chart is a project schedule representation that presents project plan as a directed graph. The critical path is the __________ sequence of __________ tasks and it defines project __________.

     1. AActivity, Shortest, Independent, Cost
     2. BActivity, Longest, Dependent, Duration
     3. CActivity, Longest, Independent, Duration
     4. DActivity, Shortest, Dependent, Duration

     Answer: (B) Activity, Longest, Dependent, Duration

     Explanation

     In software project management (PERT/CPM network models), the critical path is the longest sequence of dependent activities from project start to finish. Because tasks on this path have zero slack time, any delay directly extends the overall project duration.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

126. Question 122

     UGC NET December 2019

     In a system for a restaurant, the main scenario for placing order is given below:

     (a) Customer reads menu
     (b) Customer places order
     (c) Order is sent to kitchen for preparation
     (d) Ordered items are served
     (e) Customer requests for a bill for the order
     (f) Bill is prepared for this order
     (g) Customer is given the bill
     (h) Customer pays the bill

     A sequence diagram for the scenario will have atleast how many objects among whom the messages will be exchanged?

     1. A3
     2. B4
     3. C5
     4. D6

     Answer: (C) 5

     Explanation

     In object-oriented software engineering, actors and system entities that exchange distinct responsibilities in this scenario form lifelines in the sequence diagram.

     The scenario encompasses five collaborating entities:

     1. Customer: initiates the interaction, places the order, requests the bill, and submits payment.
     2. Waiter or Order Taker: receives the customer order and transfers it to the preparation area.
     3. Kitchen or Chef: prepares the ordered items.
     4. Serving Person: delivers the completed food items to the customer.
     5. Cashier or Billing System: prepares the invoice and collects payment.

     Therefore, at least 5 interacting objects are required to model this communication sequence.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

127. Question 123

     UGC NET December 2019

     Answer the question based on flow graph F with entry node (1) and exit node (11).

     How many regions are there in flowgraph F?

     

     Flowgraph F control flow diagram

     1. A2
     2. B3
     3. C4
     4. D5

     Answer: (C) 4

     Explanation

     In McCabe's cyclomatic complexity theory, regions in a planar control flow graph are areas bounded by nodes and directed edges, including the unbounded exterior region.

     The flowgraph contains 3 enclosed internal regions plus 1 unbounded outer region, totaling 4 regions.

     The number of regions also matches the cyclomatic complexity V(G) = P + 1 = 3 + 1 = 4, confirming there are 4 regions.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

128. Question 124

     UGC NET December 2019

     Answer the question based on flow graph F with entry node (1) and exit node (11).

     How many nodes are there in the longest independent path?

     

     Flowgraph F control flow diagram

     1. A6
     2. B7
     3. C8
     4. D9

     Answer: (C) 8

     Explanation

     An independent path is a path through the control flow graph that introduces at least one edge not traversed in previous basis paths.

     Traversing the longest loop cycle from entry node (1) to exit node (11) visits:

     1 -> (2, 3) -> 6 -> 7 -> 9 -> 10 -> 1 -> 11

     Counting the sequence of nodes along this complete path yields 8 node visits: 1, (2, 3), 6, 7, 9, 10, 1, and 11. The alternative branch traversing node 8 instead of 7 similarly contains 8 node visits. Therefore, the longest independent path contains 8 nodes.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

129. Question 125

     UGC NET December 2019

     Answer the question based on flow graph F with entry node (1) and exit node (11).

     How many predicate nodes are there and what are their names?

     

     Flowgraph F control flow diagram

     1. AThree : (1, (2, 3), 6)
     2. BThree : (1, 4, 6)
     3. CFour : ((2, 3), 6, 10, 11)
     4. DFour : ((2, 3), 6, 9, 10)

     Answer: (A) Three : (1, (2, 3), 6)

     Explanation

     A predicate node in a control flow graph is any decision point with an out-degree of two or greater.

     Examining each node's outgoing edges:

     • Node 1 has out-degree 2 (one branch goes to node (2, 3) and one outer edge loops to exit node 11).
     • Node (2, 3) has out-degree 2 (branching to node 6 and node (4, 5)).
     • Node 6 has out-degree 2 (branching to node 7 and node 8).
     • All other nodes have out-degree 1 or 0.

     Thus, there are exactly three predicate nodes: (1, (2, 3), 6).

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup
130. Practise Software Engineering in a timed set

131. Question 126

     UGC NET December 2019

     Answer the question based on flow graph F with entry node (1) and exit node (11).

     What is the cyclomatic complexity of flowgraph F?

     

     Flowgraph F control flow diagram

     1. A2
     2. B3
     3. C4
     4. D5

     Answer: (C) 4

     Explanation

     Cyclomatic complexity V(G) is computed using the number of predicate nodes P:

     V(G) = P + 1

     As established, there are P = 3 predicate nodes: 1, (2, 3), and 6. Substituting yields:

     V(G) = 3 + 1 = 4

     Equivalently, using the number of regions in the planar graph, there are 4 regions. Hence, the cyclomatic complexity is 4.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

132. Question 127

     UGC NET December 2019

     Answer the question based on flow graph F with entry node (1) and exit node (11).

     How many nodes are there in flowgraph F?

     

     Flowgraph F control flow diagram

     1. A9
     2. B10
     3. C11
     4. D12

     Answer: (A) 9

     Explanation

     Counting each distinct node circle represented in the control flow graph:

     1. Node 1
     2. Combined node (2, 3)
     3. Combined node (4, 5)
     4. Node 6
     5. Node 7
     6. Node 8
     7. Node 9
     8. Node 10
     9. Node 11

     This gives a total of 9 nodes in flowgraph F.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

133. Question 128

     UGC NET June 2019

     Software products need adaptive maintenance for which of the following reasons?

     1. ATo rectify bugs observed while the system is in use
     2. BWhen the customers need the product to run on new platforms
     3. CTo support the new features that users want it to support
     4. DTo overcome wear and tear caused by the repeated use of the software

     Answer: (B) When the customers need the product to run on new platforms

     Explanation

     Software maintenance is categorized into four standard types based on the triggering cause:

     • A. Corrective maintenance — rectifies latent faults and bugs discovered during production use.
     • B. Adaptive maintenance — modifies software to accommodate changes in its external operating environment, such as new operating systems, hardware platforms, or external libraries.
     • C. Perfective maintenance — enhances software by adding new functional requirements requested by users.
     • D. Physical wear and tear — does not apply to software artifacts, which do not deteriorate mechanically.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

134. Question 129

     UGC NET June 2019

     In the context of software testing, which of the following statements is/are NOT correct?

     P: A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
     Q: A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
     R: A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.

     1. AR only
     2. BQ only
     3. CP and Q only
     4. DQ and R only

     Answer: (A) R only

     Explanation

     Evaluating the structural test coverage hierarchy:

     • P is correct because Path Coverage subsumes Branch Coverage and Statement Coverage. Exercising all paths guarantees executing all statements.
     • Q is correct because path testing explores execution sequences and variable interactions that simple statement execution misses.
     • R is NOT correct because statement coverage is strictly weaker than branch coverage. Branch coverage tests both true and false decision outcomes, detecting more faults than statement coverage.

     Only statement R is incorrect.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

135. Question 130

     UGC NET June 2019

     Which of the following are the primary objectives of risk monitoring in software project tracking?

     P: To assess whether predicted risks do, in fact, occur
     Q: To ensure that risk aversion steps defined for the risk are being properly applied
     R: To collect information that can be used for future risk analysis

     1. AOnly P and Q
     2. BOnly P and R
     3. COnly Q and R
     4. DAll of P, Q, R

     Answer: (D) All of P, Q, R

     Explanation

     In software project management (RMMM framework), risk monitoring performs three core tasks throughout project execution:

     • P tracks whether identified and predicted risk conditions materialize in practice.
     • Q verifies that defined risk mitigation and contingency steps are enacted appropriately.
     • R gathers observational metrics to refine risk management practices in subsequent project cycles.

     All three statements constitute primary objectives of risk monitoring.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

136. Question 131

     UGC NET June 2019

     The M components in MVC are responsible for

     1. Auser interface
     2. Bsecurity of the system
     3. Cbusiness logic and domain objects
     4. Dtranslating between user interface actions/events and operations on the domain objects

     Answer: (C) business logic and domain objects

     Explanation

     In Model-View-Controller (MVC) software architecture, duties are divided into three distinct roles:

     • Model (M) — encapsulates domain data objects, persistence rules, and core business logic.
     • View (V) — renders presentation elements and manages user interface displays.
     • Controller (C) — processes user input events and directs interactions between Model and View.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

137. Question 132

     UGC NET June 2019

     Which of the following statements is/are true?

     P: In software engineering, defects that are discovered earlier are more expensive to fix.
     Q: A software design is said to be a good design, if the components are strongly cohesive and weakly coupled.

     Select the correct answer from the options given below:

     1. AP only
     2. BQ only
     3. CP and Q
     4. DNeither P nor Q

     Answer: (B) Q only

     Explanation

     Evaluating software engineering principles:

     • P is false because the cost of fixing software defects escalates exponentially in later stages (Boehm's cost of change curve). Defects caught during requirements or design are much cheaper to resolve than defects found during post-release deployment.
     • Q is true because high cohesion (modules have single, focused responsibilities) and weak/loose coupling (modules maintain minimal interdependencies) are standard hallmarks of modular, maintainable software design.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

138. Question 133

     UGC NET June 2019

     Software validation mainly checks for inconsistencies between

     1. Ause cases and user requirements
     2. Bimplementation and system design blueprints
     3. Cdetailed specifications and user requirements
     4. Dfunctional specifications and use cases

     Answer: (C) detailed specifications and user requirements

     Explanation

     Software validation ensures that the software product satisfies its intended use and user expectations:

     While verification checks consistency between implementation and technical design blueprints ("building the product right"), validation evaluates the system against the customer's actual operational needs ("building the right product").

     It primarily uncovers inconsistencies and gaps between detailed system specifications and genuine user requirements.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

139. Question 134

     UGC NET June 2019

     Match List-I with List-II:
     List-I (Software Process Models)
     (a) Waterfall model
     (b) Incremental development
     (c) Prototyping
     (d) RAD
     List-II (Software Systems)
     (i) e-business software that starts with only the basic functionalities and then moves on to more advanced features
     (ii) An inventory control system for a super-market to be developed within three months
     (iii) A virtual reality system for simulating vehicle navigation in a highway
     (iv) Automate the manual system for student record maintenance in a school

     List-I (Software Process Models)	List-II (Software Systems)
     (a) Waterfall model	(iv) Automate the manual system for student record maintenance in a school
     (b) Incremental development	(i) e-business software that starts with only the basic functionalities and then moves on to more advanced features
     (c) Prototyping	(iii) A virtual reality system for simulating vehicle navigation in a highway
     (d) RAD	(ii) An inventory control system for a super-market to be developed within three months

     1. A(a)-(ii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(iii)
     2. B(a)-(i); (b)-(iii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(ii)
     3. C(a)-(iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(i)
     4. D(a)-(iv); (b)-(i); (c)-(iii); (d)-(ii)

     Answer: (D) (a)-(iv); (b)-(i); (c)-(iii); (d)-(ii)

     Explanation

     Matching software development process models to ideal project scenarios:

     (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

     • (a) Waterfall model — fits well-defined, stable systems with predictable requirements like automating an existing manual student record system, matching (iv).
     • (b) Incremental development — suits staged delivery where core functionality ships first and advanced features follow incrementally, matching (i).
     • (c) Prototyping — clarifies ambiguous user interaction and novel technologies through early exploratory models like virtual reality navigation, matching (iii).
     • (d) RAD — delivers functional systems under strict, short time constraints (typically within 60 to 90 days), matching (ii).

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

140. Question 135

     UGC NET June 2019

     Software reuse is

     1. Athe process of analysing software with the objective of recovering its design and specification
     2. Bthe process of using existing software artifacts and knowledge to build new software
     3. Cconcerned with reimplementing legacy system to make them more maintainable
     4. Dthe process of analysing software to create a representation of a higher level of abstraction and breaking software down into its parts to see how it works

     Answer: (B) the process of using existing software artifacts and knowledge to build new software

     Explanation

     Software reuse is the software engineering discipline of building new applications using pre-existing software assets, components, architectures, and design patterns rather than constructing everything from scratch.

     • A and D describe reverse engineering.
     • C describes software re-engineering / refactoring.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

141. Question 136

     UGC NET June 2019

     A Web application and its support environment has not been fully fortified against attack. Web engineers estimate that the likelihood of repelling an attack is only 30 percent. The application does not contain sensitive or controversial information, so the threat probability is 25 percent. What is the integrity of the web application?

     1. A0.625
     2. B0.725
     3. C0.775
     4. D0.825

     Answer: (D) 0.825

     Explanation

     In software security engineering, software integrity measures the system's resilience against unauthorized attacks:

     Integrity = 1 - (threat * (1 - security))

     Given parameters:
     Threat probability = 25% = 0.25
     Security (repel probability) = 30% = 0.30

     Computing integrity:
     Integrity = 1 - (0.25 * (1 - 0.30))
     Integrity = 1 - (0.25 * 0.70)
     Integrity = 1 - 0.175 = 0.825.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

142. Question 137

     UGC NET June 2019

     Which of the following terms best describes Git?

     1. AIssue Tracking System
     2. BIntegrated Development Environment
     3. CDistributed Version Control System
     4. DWeb-based Repository Hosting Service

     Answer: (C) Distributed Version Control System

     Explanation

     Git is a Distributed Version Control System (DVCS) designed to record and manage changes across file trees over time:

     • A. Issue tracking systems — track bug reports and tasks (e.g. Jira).
     • B. Integrated development environments — provide code authoring and debugging tools (e.g. VS Code).
     • C. Distributed Version Control System — allows developers to maintain complete local clones of repositories and collaborate without mandatory central connection.
     • D. Hosting services — provide remote cloud repositories (e.g. GitHub).

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

143. Question 138

     UGC NET December 2018

     Which of the following is not one of the principles of agile software development method ?

     1. AEmbrace change
     2. BCustomer involvement
     3. CFollowing the plan
     4. DIncremental delivery

     Answer: (C) Following the plan

     Explanation

     The Agile Manifesto explicitly values responding to change over following a plan.

     • Agile methods emphasize flexibility, user collaboration, and continuous adaptation rather than rigid adherence to a predetermined project plan.
     • Embracing change (Option A), customer involvement (Option B), and incremental delivery (Option D) are foundational agile principles.
     • Following the plan (Option C) represents the traditional waterfall approach, making it the correct answer to the negative question.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

144. Question 139

     UGC NET December 2018

     Software coupling involves dependencies among pieces of software called modules. Which of the following are correct statements with respect to module coupling ?

     P : Common coupling occurs when two modules share the same global data.
     Q : Control coupling occurs when modules share a composite data structure and use only parts of it.
     R : Content coupling occurs when one module modifies or relies on the internal working of another module.

     Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
     Code :

     1. AP and Q only
     2. BQ and R only
     3. CAll of P, Q and R
     4. DP and R only

     Answer: (D) P and R only

     Explanation

     Statements P and R correctly identify common coupling and content coupling in modular software design.

     • Statement P is true because common coupling occurs when two or more modules read or write to the same global data area.
     • Statement Q is false because sharing a composite data structure and using only portions of it defines stamp coupling. Control coupling occurs when one module controls the flow of another by passing control information or flags.
     • Statement R is true because content coupling (the worst form of coupling) occurs when one module modifies or depends directly on the internal implementation of another module.
     • Hence, statements P and R only are correct (Option D).

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

145. Question 140

     UGC NET December 2018

     Software products need perfective maintenance for which of the following reasons ?

     1. ATo overcome wear and tear caused by the repeated use of the software.
     2. BTo rectify bugs observed while the system is in use.
     3. CWhen the customers need the product to run on new platforms.
     4. DTo support the new features that users want it to support.

     Answer: (D) To support the new features that users want it to support.

     Explanation

     Perfective maintenance enhances existing software by implementing new user requirements, features, or performance improvements.

     • Perfective maintenance accounts for the largest proportion of software maintenance activities and responds to evolving user desires.
     • Option A is incorrect because software is logical rather than physical and does not experience wear and tear.
     • Option B describes corrective maintenance, which fixes defects discovered during operation.
     • Option C describes adaptive maintenance, which modifies software to operate in changed hardware or OS environments.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

146. Question 141

     UGC NET December 2018

     Which of the following statements is/are true ?

     P : Software Reengineering is preferable for software products having high failure rates, having poor design and/or having poor code structure.
     Q : Software Reverse Engineering is the process of analyzing software with the objective of recovering its design and requirements specification.

     Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
     Code :

     1. ABoth P and Q
     2. BNeither P nor Q
     3. CP only
     4. DQ only

     Answer: (A) Both P and Q

     Explanation

     Both statements define established engineering practices for maintaining and evolving legacy software systems.

     • Statement P is true because software reengineering restructures legacy applications with high maintenance costs, poor architectural design, and frequent failures to improve reliability and maintainability.
     • Statement Q is true because reverse engineering analyzes an existing software product to extract high-level architectural models, design specifications, and requirements without altering functionality.
     • Therefore, both statements P and Q are true (Option A).

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

147. Question 142

     UGC NET December 2018

     Which of the following statements is/are false ?

     P : The clean-room strategy to software engineering is based on the incremental software process model.
     Q : The clean-room strategy to software engineering is one of the ways to overcome “unconscious” copying of copyrighted code.

     Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
     Code :

     1. ANeither P nor Q
     2. BQ only
     3. CBoth P and Q
     4. DP only

     Answer: (A) Neither P nor Q

     Explanation

     Both statements describe recognized definitions and applications of cleanroom software engineering.

     • Statement P is true because Cleanroom software engineering structures development as a pipeline of increments, using formal specification, box structures, and statistical verification without unit testing.
     • Statement Q is true because cleanroom design (Chinese wall technique) isolates developers from examining proprietary or copyrighted source code to prevent unconscious infringement during reverse engineering.
     • Because both statements P and Q are true, neither statement is false (Option A).

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

148. Question 143

     UGC NET December 2018

     Match each UML diagram in List-I to its appropriate description in List-II and choose the correct answer from the code:

     List-I	List-II
     (a) State Diagram	(i) Describes how the external entities (people, devices) can interact with the system.
     (b) Use-Case Diagram	(ii) Used to describe the static or structural view of a system.
     (c) Class Diagram	(iii) Used to show the flow of a business process, the steps of a use-case or the logic of an object behaviour.
     (d) Activity Diagram	(iv) to the dynamic behaviour of objects and could also be used to describe the entire system behaviour.

     UML diagrams and descriptions

     1. A(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
     2. B(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
     3. C(i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
     4. D(i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

     Answer: (B) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

     Explanation

     Matching each UML modeling diagram with its functional purpose gives the standard structural and behavioral associations.

     • (a) State Diagram models the dynamic lifecycle and transitions of an object in response to events, matching (iv).
     • (b) Use-Case Diagram depicts system functionality from the perspective of external actors (users and external devices), matching (i).
     • (c) Class Diagram models static system architecture including classes, attributes, operations, and relationships, matching (ii).
     • (d) Activity Diagram visualizes operational workflows, business process logic, and step sequences, matching (iii).

     Mapping:
     (a) -> (iv), (b) -> (i), (c) -> (ii), (d) -> (iii).

     • This code matches Option B: (iv) (i) (ii) (iii).

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

149. Question 144

     UGC NET December 2018

     The Software Requirement Specification (SRS) is said to be ___________ if and only if no subset of individual requirements described in it conflict with each other.

     1. AConsistent
     2. BUnambiguous
     3. CCorrect
     4. DVerifiable

     Answer: (A) Consistent

     Explanation

     By IEEE 830 standards, an SRS is defined as consistent if and only if no subset of individual requirements described within it conflict with one another.

     • Consistency requires that no two statements define contradictory system states, terms, behaviors, or constraints.
     • Unambiguous (Option B) means that every stated requirement possesses only a single unique interpretation.
     • Correct (Option C) means every stated requirement represents an actual customer need.
     • Verifiable (Option D) means there exists a cost-effective finite process to demonstrate that the software meets each requirement.

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

150. Question 145

     UGC NET December 2018

     Consider the following method :

     int f (int m, int n, boolean x, boolean y)
     {
      int res = 0;
      if (m < 0) {res = n – m;}
      else if (x || y) {
      res = –1;
      if (n == m) {res = 1;}
      }
      else {res = n;}
      return res;
     }/* end of */
     

     If P is the minimum number of tests to achieve full statement coverage for f(), and Q is the minimum number of tests to achieve full branch coverage for f(), then (P, Q) =

     1. A(3, 2)
     2. B(2, 3)
     3. C(4, 3)
     4. D(3, 4)

     Answer: (D) (3, 4)

     Explanation

     Achieving full statement coverage requires 3 test cases, while full branch coverage requires 4 test cases.

     For Statement Coverage (P):

     1. Test 1: m = -1, n = 0 covers statement res = n - m.
     2. Test 2: m = 2, n = 2, x = true covers statements res = -1 and res = 1.
     3. Test 3: m = 2, n = 0, x = false, y = false covers statement res = n.
        Hence, P = 3.

     For Branch Coverage (Q):
     There are three decision points with 6 branch outcomes:

     1. m < 0 (True branch: test with m < 0)
     2. m < 0 (False branch) leading to else if (x || y)
     3. (x || y) True branch with n == m True (covers True branch of inner if)
     4. (x || y) True branch with n != m False (covers False branch of inner if)
     5. (x || y) False branch leading to else block
        Covering all true and false branch paths requires a minimum of 4 distinct test inputs.
        Hence, (P, Q) = (3, 4) (Option D).

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

151. Question 146

     UGC NET December 2018

     A legacy software system has 940 modules. The latest release required that 90 of these modules be changed. In addition, 40 new modules were added and 12 old modules were removed. Compute the software maturity index for the system.

     1. A0·849
     2. B0·923
     3. C0·725
     4. D0·524

     Answer: (A) 0·849

     Explanation

     The Software Maturity Index (SMI) computed using the standard IEEE metric formula evaluates to approximately 0.849.

     SMI = [M_T - (F_c + F_a + F_d)] / M_T
     where:
     M_T = total number of modules = 940
     F_c = number of changed modules = 90
     F_a = number of added modules = 40
     F_d = number of deleted modules = 12

     Total modified components = F_c + F_a + F_d = 90 + 40 + 12 = 142.

     SMI = (940 - 142) / 940
     SMI = 798 / 940 = 0.848936...

     Rounding to three decimal places gives 0.849 (Option A).

     Sign in to read the full explanation

     Login / Signup

Frequently asked questions

More Computer Science PYQs by topic

More Computer Science practice